Tuyển Tập Đề Thi Học Sinh Giỏi Thpt Và Chọn Đội Tuyển Hsgqg [PDF]

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TUYỂN TẬP ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT VÀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSGQG TẬP 2 (Tài liệu lưu hành nội bộ) LÊ TRUNG KIÊN Sưu tầm và biên soạn

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NAM ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Đề thi gồm 09 trang, thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này)

Điểm của bài thi Bằng số:

Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Giám khảo số 1:

Bằng chữ:

Giám khảo số 2:

SỐ PHÁCH

SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points) Part I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.(5 points) 1. A. appropriate B. assistance C. variety D. imitate D. diversity 2. A. compulsory B. statistical C. publication 3. 4. 5.

A. impressive A. access A. longevity

B. establishment B. success B. socialize

C. achievement C. offer C. alternative

D. popularity D. picture D. particular

Your answers: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Part II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest (5 points) 1. A. prefer B. fertile C. determine D. motherly D. reservation 2. A. resident B. basically C. raise 3. 4. 5.

A. naked A. consider A. extremely

B. communicated B. contemplate B. immediate

C. subscribed C. convention C. medium

D. rugged D. contaminate D. medicine

Your answers: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

SECTION B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (100 points) Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (20 points) 1. I’m ……… aware of the need to obey the rules of the competition. A. well B. far C. much D. greatly 2. ……….. she’s got a job that she likes, she’s a lot happier. A. Since when B. Just as C. Now that D. Just now

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3. The line is busy; someone ………… the telephone now. A. must be using B. must use C. must have used D. must have been using 4. Jame was ……… from college for bad behavior. A. exciled B. dismissed C. discharged D. expelled 5. It turned out that we ……… rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours. A. hadn’t B. should have C. mustn’t have D. needn’t have 6. There were some high buildings in the city,......were, however, badly damaged in the earthquake. A. all of whom B. most of them C. most of which D. none of which 7. We need to guarantee the financial ……… before we can start the design work. A. agreement B. backing C. analysis D. plans 8. Though the demand for a pay increase was accepted, it still…. short of what the employees wanted. A. ended B. came C. fell D. arrived 9. The fire destroyed all the plans. Now we will have to start again from ………. A. beginning B. the first C. scratch D. ash 10. ……… you should do now is take a long holiday. A. That B. How C. What D. As 11. All candidates will be treated equally, ……… of their age and background. A. notwithstanding B. discounting C. irrelevant D. irrespective 12. The name of the book was on the ……… of my tongue, but I just couldn’t say it out. A. end B. tip C. top D. point 13. Her mother asked her to ……… the table for the evening meal. A. place B. put out C. serve D. lay 14. Species diversity provides humans ……… so many essential things. A. for B. of C. with D. to 15. The habitats of endangered animals are being ……… A. serious damage B. serious damaged C. seriously damage D. seriously damaged 16. It’s estimated that there are now about 500,000 elephants and they live in a small…….of countries. A. sum B. amount C. variety D. number 17. “Why are you so mad?” - “You ……me you weren’t coming to dinner. I waited for you for two hours.” A. should tell B. need have told C. must have told D. should have told 18. …….. she read her father’s diary did she realize that it was her mother, not her father, who was at fault. A. Only when B. Other than C. So long as D. As soon as 19. The girl ..........I borrowed the dictionary asked me to use it carefully. A. whom B. of whome C. from whom D. to whom 20. The snow is very thick on the ground, …........ I will try to go to work today anyway. A. thus B. however C. but D. therefore Your answers: 1. 6. 11. 16.

2. 7. 12. 17.

3. 8. 13. 18.

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4. 9. 14. 19.

5. 10. 15. 20.

Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete each sentence. (20 points) 1. The soil has been (POOR) …………………. by erosion. 2. Don’t rely on John. He is a(n) (EXPERIENCE) …………. driver. 3. Whenever I ask permission for going out with friends, my parents (VARY) ……………say “No”. 4. It is likely that employers will (INCREASE) ……………… seek out students with good communication skills at work. 5. (LEGAL) ………………….parked cars usually get a ticket and are sometimes towed away. 6. The recent hunt hurricane caused (WIDE) …………………. damage. 7. Some companies, trying to encourage students to attend interviews, provide good salary packages and (CHALLENGE) ………………….work environment. 8. I am afraid that your report is full of (ACCURATE) …………………. 9. (ACCOMPANY) …………………. children will not be allowed to cross busy streets. 10. The girls in this class (NUMBER) …………………. the boys by two to one. Your answers 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word. (20 points) 1. All his plans for starting his own business fell …………. 2. He didn’t want to lose ………….. by admitting that he had made a mistake. 3. He makes money by buying old houses and doing them …………... 4. I will ………. an eye on your cat while you are away. 5. Don’t let the ……….. out of the bag. This is supposed to be secret. 6. Please try to finish the eassay today. Never put ……… till tomorrow what you can do today. 7. If someone has behaved badly in the past, but promises to be good in future, we say he has promised to “ turn over a new …………” 8. He thinks he is really important, but he is only really a big ………. in a small pond. 9. His grandfather ………… away last night at the age of ninety- three years old. 10. Excuse me. Can you spare me a few minutes? I can’t make ………… or tail of this exercise. Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (20 points) a. It is vital that he (1. arrive ) ………… before six p.m.

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b. I’d rather you (2. not be) ………… absent from class yesterday. c. I suppose when she (3. come) ………… back in two years' time, they (4. pull) ………… down all these old buildings. d. On arrival at home, I (5. realize) ………… that she (6. just leave) …………a few minutes before. e. Don’t tell me I acted too quickly. I’m sure nobody in my place (7. wait)…........ a minute longer. f. She appears (8. offend)…......... deeply by what I said to her yesterday. She didn’t say a single to me for two days. g. I don’t appreciate (9. treat)………………… like a second-class citizen. h. It’s too late to get home now. We may have to resort to (10. find) ……… a room in a nearby hotel overnight. Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part V. There are 10 unnecessary words in the following passage. Identify and write them in the provided space. You must also write the line in which it is. (20 points) Line 1. Midsummer, the celebration of the turning of the sun, has been being the 2. highlight of the northern summer for centuries – an event full of symbolism, customs, 3. magic and superstitions. In Finland, Midsummer night is so short as that evening dusk 4. flows into morning dawn almost unnoticed. Even in southern Finland, midnight is the 5. best described as strong twilight. Midsummer night was, the most of all, 6. the celebration of greenery and fruit. Nature is in a full bloom then and the day is 7. never-ending. It was customary throughout Finland to bring branches and greenery to 8. indoors on Midsummer Eve. Houses were so thouroughly cleaned and decorated with 9. birch branches and flower garlands. This indoor forest was complete when leaves on 10. the scrubbed floor gave out a fresh forest aroma. Midsummer is still the Finns’ most 11. important one summer celebration. They gather together around the bonfire to dance, 12. play and be with family and friends themselves. In some areas Midsummer poles 13. decorated with flower garlands and leaves are erected for the festivities. Although some 14. of the old ceremonies are now performed only for fun, Midsummer night, as bathed in 15. the strange white light of the North, is still mysterious. Your answers: Unnecessary word 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Line

Unnecessary word 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Line

SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION (40 POINTS) Part I. Choose the best word A, B, C or D to fill in spaces in the following passage. (10 points) Interpreting the feelings of (1)…… people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (2) ……. as much on what they seem to be telling us as on the actual words they say. Facial expression and (3) ……… of voice are obvious ways of showing our reaction to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to (4) ……. The art of being tactful lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact reluctant to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also (5)…….. feelings, and interviewers often (6)…….. particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However, it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character (7)…….., and psychological stability. This (8)…….the awkward questions of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce (9)…… results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be objectionable intrusion into their private lives. Quite (10) ……... from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a conscientious employee or a valued colleague? 1. A. another B. other C. others D. the other 2. A. estimate B. rely C. reckon D. trust 3. A. height B. tone C. pitch D. beat 4. A. enclose B. deceive C. reveal D. hide 5. A. display B. indicate C. imply D. infer 6. A. have B. show C. make D. pay 7. A. quirks B. mannerisms C. traits D. points 8. A. asks B. gives C. raises D. provokes 9. A. faithful B. regular C. reliable D. predictable 10. A. different B. apart C. away D. except Your answers: 1. 2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Part II. Fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word. (20 points) There is a wide variety of hotel accommodation in the beautiful city of Chester, which lies just over the border in England, making it the ideal starting-point for touring North Wales. (1)........ of the pleasures of travelling through Wales, (2)......... in the north or the south, (3)........ that the perceptive visitor will readily learn about (4)........... history, mythology and folklore of this lovely country. Probably no other part of Britain is peopled with (5)......... many lovers of music and poetry. The Welsh are people (6)..........., in the shops, the pubs and in the High Street, delight in discussing not only the arts but a wide variety of (7)..........topics as politics, religion and local history as well. Thus, in (8)......... remotest of Welsh villages, it is always possible to learn about history and traditions ranging back over centuries. For the tourist, numerous excellent hotels, guest houses and farm houses that (9)........... accommodation are to be found throughout North Wales. It is probably fair to say that prices in general tend to be lower than (10).......... charged in similar establishments in England.

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Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part III. Read the passage and choose the most suitable clause or phrase from the list (A-J) to fill in the numbered gap. There are more clauses or phrases than necessary. (5 points) In the early days of sea travel, seamen on long voyages lived exclusively on salted meat and biscuits. Many of them died (1)………. causes swollen gums, livid white spots on the flesh and general exhaustion. On one occasion, in 1535, an English ship arrived in new found land with its crew desperately ill. The men’s lives were saved by Iroquois Indians (2)……….. Gradually it came to be realised (3) ………… and Captain Cock on his long voyages of discovery to Australia and New Zealand established the fact that scurvy could be warded off by the provision of fresh fruit for sailors. Nowadays it is understood that a diet which contains (4)………… result in serious diseases if certain important elements are missing. These elements are called Vitamins. Quite a number of such substances are known and they are given letters to identify them, A, B, C, D, and so on. Different diseases are associated with (5)…………. Even a slight lack of Vitamin C, for example, the vitamin most plentiful in fresh fruit and vegetables, is thought to increase significantly our susceptibility to colds and influenza. A. that scurvy was caused by some lack in the sailors' diet B. a variety of fruit and green vegetables C. they lived mainly on rice D. of scurvy, a disease of the blood which E. nothing harmful may yet F. that it is necessary to make special provision to supply the missing vitamins. G. of the dangers of a restricted diet that H. deficiencies of particular vitamins I. some ingredients in the husk might be the cause of the disease J. who gave them vegetable leaves to eat Your answers: 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Part IV. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (5 points) In most discussions of cultural diversity, attention has focused on visible, explicit aspects of culture, such as language, dress, food, religion, music, and social rituals. Although they are important, these visible expressions of culture, which are taught deliberately and learned consciously, are only the tip of the iceberg of culture. Much of culture is taught and learned implicitly, or outside awareness. Thus, neither cultural insiders nor cultural outsiders are aware that certain "invisible” aspects of their culture exist.

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Invisible elements of culture are important to us. For example, how long we can be late before being impolite, what topics we should avoid in a conversation, how we show interest or attention through listening behavior, what we consider beautiful or ugly. These are all aspects of culture that we learn and use without being aware of it. When we meet other people whose invisible cultural assumptions differ from those we have learned implicitly, we usually do not recognize their behavior as cultural in origin. Differences in invisible culture can cause problems in cross-cultural relations. Conflicts may arise when we are unable to recognize others’ behavioral differences as cultural rather than personal. We tend to misinterpret other people’s behavior, blame them, or judge their intentions or competence without realizing that we are experiencing cultural rather than individual differences. Formal organizations and institutions, such as schools, hospitals, workplaces, governments, and the legal system are collection sites for invisible cultural differences. If the differences were more visible, we might have less misunderstanding. For example, if we met a man in a courthouse who was wearing exotic clothes, speaking a language other than ours, and carrying food that looked strange, we would not assume that we understood his thoughts and feelings or that he understood ours. Yet when such a man is dressed similarly to us, speaks our language, and does not differ from us in other obvious ways, we may fail to recognize the invisible cultural differences between us. As a result, mutual misunderstanding may arise. 1. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To explain the importance of invisible aspects of culture. B. To describe cultural diversity. C. To point out that much of culture is learned consciously. D. To explain why cross-cultural conflict occurs. 2. The word “deliberately” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. slowly B. accurately C. intentionally D. randomly 3. The phrase “the tip of the iceberg” in bold in paragraph 1 means that A. other cultures seem cold to us B. visible aspects of culture are learned in formal institutions C. we usually focus on the highest forms of culture D. most aspects of culture cannot be seen 4. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that conflict results when A. people think cultural differences are personal B. people compete with those from other cultures C. one culture is more invisible than another culture D. some people recognize more cultural differences than others 5. The author implies that institutions such as schools and workplaces A. are aware of cultural differences B. teach their employees about cultural differences C. reinforce invisible cultural differences D. share a common culture SECTION D. WRITING (50 points) Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. The number of murders has been going up little by little each year. There …………………………………………………………………………...….

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2. His chances of success are small. It is not ……………………………………………………………………………. 3. It was Walter Raleigh who introduced potatoes and tobacco into England. The English owe …………………………………………………………………. 4. The plan may be ingenious, but it will never work on practice. Ingenious …………………………………………………………………………. 5. He tried hard so that he would win the first race. With ……………………………………………………………………………… Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given one. Using the given word in backets. Do not change the word. (10points) 1. I always think about transport costs when job hunting (CONSIDERATION) I always …………………………………………………………………… when job hunting. 2. Jenny's birthday is on the same day as the Queen's (COINCIDES) Jenny's ………………………………………………………………………. Queen's 3. The young actress was very nervous before the audition (BUTTERFLIES) The young actress ………………………………………………………… before the audition 4. Don't pay any attention when she complains (NOTICE) Don't ……………………………………………………………………… complaints. 5. Anne has decided to buy fewer clothes from now on (CUT) Anne has decided to …………………………………………………………from now on Part III. Writing an essay (30 points) Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic: “How to develop Vietnam tourisim industry?” ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

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………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………...………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ==The End==

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NAM ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014 Môn: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Đề thi gồm 09 trang, thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này)

HƯỚNG DẪN, BIỂU ĐIỂM CHẤM SECTION A. PHONETICS ( 10 points) Part I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others in the group.(5 points) 01 point/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B Part II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest (5 points) 01 point/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D SECTION B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (100 points) Part I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence. (20 points) 01 points/1 correct answer x 20 = 20 points 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. C Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete each sentence. (20 points) 02 points/1 correct answer x 10 = 20 points 1. impoverished 6. widespread 2. inexperienced 7. challenging 3. invariably 8. inaccuracies 4. increasingly 9. Unaccompanied 5. Illegally 10. outnumber Part III. Fill in the gap with a suitable word. (20 points) 02 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 20 points 1. through 6. off 2. face 7. leaf 3. up 8. fish 4. keep 9. passed 5. cat 10. head IV. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets: (20 points) 02 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 20 points 1. (should) arrive 6. had just left 2. hadn’t been 7. could have waited/ would have waited 3. comes 8. to have been offended 4. will have pulled 9. being treated 5. arrived 10. finding

1

Part V. There are 10 unnecessary words in the following passage. Identify and write them in the provided space. You must also write the line in which it is. (20 points) 02 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 20 points Unnecessary word Line Unnecessary word Line 1. being 1 6. to 7 2. as 3 7. so 8 3. the 4 8. one 11 4. the 5 9. themselves 12 5. a 6 10. as 14 SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION (40 POINTS) Part I. Choose the best word A, B, C or D, to fill spaces in the following text. (10 points) 01 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points 1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. B Part II: Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word (20 points) 02 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 20 points 1. One 6. who/ that 2. either/ whether 7. such 3. is 8. the 4. the 9. provide 5. so 10.those Part III. Read the passage and choose the most suitable clause or phrase from the list (A-J) to complete the article. There are more clauses or phrases than necessary. (5 points) 01 points/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points 1. D 2. J 3. A 4. E 5. H Part IV. Read the passage and choose the correct answer (5 points) 01 points/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A

5. C

SECTION D. WRITING (50 points) Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 02 points/1 correct answer x 5 = 10 points 1. There has been a little/gradual increase/rise in the number of murders each year. 2. It is not (very) likely that he will succeed. 3. The English owe the introduction of potatoes and tobacco to Walter Raleigh. The English owe to Walter Raleigh for the introduction of potatoes and tobacco. 4. Ingenious as the plan may be, it will never work on practice. 5. With a view to winning the first race, he tried hard. Part II. Rewrite the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. Using the given word in backets, do not change its form. (10points) 02 points/1 correct answer x 5 = 10 points 1. I always take transport costs into consideration when job hunting. 2. Jenny's birthday coincides with the Queen's 3. The young actress had butterflies in her stomach before the audition 4. Don't take any notice of her complaints. 5. Anne has decided to cut down on buying clothes from now on

2

Part III. Writing an essay (30 points) Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic: “How to develop Vietnam tourism industry?” 1. Form: An essay (10 points) + Easy to read + Coherent 2. Content: 10 points Successful fulfillment of the task with appropriate content (possible measures to develop Vietnam tourism industry) 3. Language: 10 points + Appropriate vocabulary (3 points) + Correct grammar (3 points) + Connectors (2 points) + Spelling/ Punctuality (2 points) CHÚ Ý: TỔNG ĐIỂM TOÀN BÀI LÀ 200 ĐIỂM KẾT QUẢ BÀI THI ĐƯỢC QUY VỀ THANG ĐIỂM 20 ĐỂ XÉT GIẢI. ==The End==

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UBND TỈNH PHÚ YÊN SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT - NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 MÔN: TIÊNG ANH Ngày thi: 17/10/2013 Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Lưu ý : Đề thi có 08 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trên đề thi

LISTENING I. You are going to hear a radio broadcast about interesting museums. Listen and choose the correct answer. You will hear the piece twice. (1.25 points) 1. In Amanda’s opinion, in an attractive museum A. there is one route through the exhibition. B. visitors don’t need to walk and look at all. C. art isn’t presented in an old-fashioned way. 2. The museum of Louisiana is special because A. it is in a beautiful park by the river. B. it shows only modern sculptures. C. you can do a lot of things there. 3. When visitors in the Experimentarium touch and move things, they can A. learn what makes things operate. B. build a complicated mechanism. C. understand that science is easy. 4. In the museum of music and instruments A. headphones aren’t for everybody. B. each instrument is played live. C. you see and hear at the same time. 5. What is the main aim of this extract? A. To explain the meaning of the word “interactive”. B. To suggest which museums are worth visiting. C. To give information about Amanda’s favourite museum. ANSWERS 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

II. You are going to hear a phone conversation about a citizenship test. Complete the form below with one word in each gap. You will hear the piece twice. (4 points) THE UK CITIZENSHIP TEST - The citizenship test contains (1)____________ questions. - There are questions about job interviews, (2)____________ a flat, how to open a bank account. - There are also questions about British institutions and about national and local (3)____________ - The questions about politics might be connected with the Prime Minister, the (4)____________ family and the main political parties. - There are no questions about famous (5)____________ and (6)____________. - The test costs (7)____________. - You can find all the information on the website (8)____________

1

ANSWERS 1. 5.

2. 6.

3. 7.

4. 8.

VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR I. Give the correct form of the verb in brackets (3 points) a. It’s essential (1)_________(respect) safety regulations (2)_________(avoid)(3)__________(pay) high penalties. b. Your taking the job means (4)____________(be) available all day and night. How about (5)____________(reconsider) the decision ? c. It wasn’t until last Monday that we (6)____________(learn) that the house which we (7)____________(live) in for thirty years (8)____________ (pull) down the following year. d. I couldn’t wait (9)____________(see) the Taj Mahal. I (10)____________read so much about it before. e. Just be patient. By the time you (11)____________ (come) back from holiday, your office (12)____________(do) up for sure. ANSWERS 1. 7.

2. 8.

3. 9.

4. 10.

5. 11.

6. 12.

II. Choose the correct answer (5 points ) 1. If he ________ well on the training course last year, he ________ offered the promotion now. A. had done / would be B. had done / would have done C. did / would be D. did / will be 2. He took me to the college ________. A. he used to study B. in that he used to study C. where he used to study D. which he used to study 3. He has been very interested in doing research on ________ since he was at school. A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically 4. He has been learning hard to prepare ________ the coming final exam. A. for B. with C. on D. over 5. ________ the end of the course, the students have to take an exam on four basic skills of the target language. A. In B. At C. On D. To 6. Tell me the day ________ you want to leave. A. which B. in which C. that D. when 7. Of all my students, Betty is the only one ________ has found a job. A. whom B. which C. that D. whose 8. GCSE courses are ____ in a variety of subjects which are usually decided by the students themselves. A. spent B. taken C. made D. looked 9. An ‘A-level’ in Maths or a / an ________ qualification is normally required. A. equal B. same C. like D. equivalent 10. It is often a good idea to start with small, easily ________ goals. A. achievable B. achieve C. achievement D. achiever 11. The Eiffel Tower, ________ design was revolutionary at its time, is still a marvelous structure. A. which B. that C. whose D. of which 12. Many children are under such a high ________ of learning that they do not feel happy at school.

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A. recommendation B. interview C. pressure D. concentration 13. ________, he walked to the station. A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired C. In spite being tired D. Despite tired 14. During the time of economic reforms, the economy has grown _______ with only a few major setbacks. A. constant B. constantly C. constants D. constancy 15. The nurse is always kind and gentle to us. She is a very _________ person. A. caring B. careful C. careless D. care 16. Tam is willing to help his mother with the household _________. A. chord B. chores C. jobs D. choir 17. Phở, a kind of noodle, is one of her favourite _________ when she visits Vietnam. A. courses B. plates C. bowls D. dishes 18. "Men make house and women make it _________ " is a popular saying. A. family B. garden C. home D. room 19. The Internet enables users of computers to _________ information in a variety of forms. A, share B. divide C. cut D. tell 20. The guidelines in this book can help you become a _________ speaker. A. confide B. confident C. confidence D. self-confidence ANSWERS 1. 2. 11. 12.

3. 13.

4. 14.

5. 15.

6. 16.

7. 17.

III. Give the correct form of the word in capitals THE RNLI The RNLI (Royal National Life Boat Institution) is an organization (1)____________ of government control, dedicated to saving lives at sea. The RNLI has an active fleet of several hundred lifeboats around the length and (2)____________of Britain’s coastline. Since it was found in 1824, the RNLI has had an extremely (3)____________impact on maritime safety, saving over 1,300,000 lives. Because the RNLI is not funded by the government, it relies on the (4)____________ of the public to cover its costs, its income coming from membership fees and (5)____________ donations. Some people have raised (6)____________ to this, saying that such an (7)____________ service should be government-funded. The lifeboat crews are almost all volunteers. They are generally (8)____________ by the British people as being (9)____________ in their (10)____________, frequently putting their lives at risk to save others.

8. 18.

9. 19.

10. 20.

(2.5 points )

1. DEPEND 2. BROAD 3. SIGNIFY 4. GOOD 5. CHARITY 6. OBJECT 7. VALUE 8. KNOW 9. EXAMPLE 10. SELF

ANSWERS

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IV . Read this passage about phrenology. There is a spelling mistake in each line. Underline each of the mistakes and write the correction in the space on the right. (3.75 points) A quick surph around the internet is enough to confirm that the old art of phrenology is makeing a bit of a comeback. Indeed, our by no means extensive browse reveled more than 600 references to phrenology on the webb. The science of phrenology was developped in Austria in the late 18th century by Franz Joseph Gal, won of the founders of modern neurology. At a time when almost nothing was know about the functioning of the brain, Gal had the amazing insight that diferent regions of the brain might be responsable for different faculties. How well these faculties were developed, acording to Gal, could be judged by feeling the bumps on the relavent part of someone’s head. Sadly, phrenology, whilst geting the general idea right, is based on two false premises. Firstly, that the contours of the brian actually follow those of the scull, and secondly that it is possible to equate size with efficiency. Additionaly, Gal got most of his bumps in the wrong place.

1._____________ 2._____________ 3._____________ 4._____________ 5._____________ 6._____________ 7._____________ 8._____________ 9._____________ 10.____________ 11.____________ 12.____________ 13.____________ 14. ____________ 15. ____________

READING I. Choose the word that best completes the sentences in the text (4 points ) Stress is like a shadow. It (1)__________ us wherever we go. Stress inducing situations may (2)__________at work, at home, in a supermarket or on a bus – namely, everywhere. Not all situations appear to be equally stressful however they invariably put some amount of (3)__________on our nerves. Ignore it for too long and you will end up with much more serious health problems to (4)__________. Regardless of whether the emotions we experience are positive or negative , too much of a good thing can be as destructive as too much of a bad things. Recurrent ups and (5)__________ as well as volatile emotions require continuous adaptations that (6)__________ a disastrous impact upon our stamina and vital forces. In result, stresses that cannot be easily relieved tend to (7)__________to numerous health (8)__________. This is why people suffer from heart attacks, stomach problems, intestinal afflictions as well as higher blood pressure. Other symptoms of stress-related diseases are no less painful; asthma, hormonal disorders and severe migraines can turn life (9)__________ a real nightmare. Doctors make distinctions between occurrences that (10)__________ our emotional life and segregate them according to the level of stress they produce. Death of a life partner (11)__________the most, then a divorce, redundancy and a serious disease follow. However, a wedding, removal or a retirement can be equally stress- provoking. Even situations which seemingly do not affect us much may in fact produce hidden stresses that will only (12)__________later. It seems there is no escape from stresses in everyday life. But there are always remedies to (13)__________them. First of all, everyone of us needs to answer a simple question. “Do you want to end up as a (14)__________of nerves?” If your answer is “no”, then make a (15)__________of reading and sticking to the following pieces of advice. Do not take much at a time. Emotions will not do much (16)__________if you learn to dose them. Did your child behave badly in a restaurant last night? Do not hit the roof. Count to ten, take a deep breath; children’s intentions are sometimes hard to guess. These things simply happen. 1. A. associates B. accompanies C. attaches D. assembles 2. A. introduce B. accomplish C. initiate D. arise 3. A. strain B. stream C. stretch D. struggle 4. A. eye B. forehead C. face D. mouth

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5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

A. falls A. exert A. result A. demolitions A. up A. express A. scores A. turn up A. overflow A. bunch A. spot A. harm

B. drops B. apply B. lead B. confusions B. with B. inflict B. achieves B. come down B. override B. roll B. point B. injury

C. offs C. devise C. effect C. disorders C. into C. prompt C. establishes C. take over C. overhaul C. bundle C. move C. wound

D. downs D. influence D. follow D. commotions D. on D. affect D. reaches D. bring about D. overcome D. kit D. stage D. hurt

II. You are going to read a magazine article about a deaf actress. Choose from the list A-I the sentence which best summarises each part (1-8) of the article There is one extra sentence you do not need to use. (4 points ) A. It helps if others “talk’ your language , and anyway even as an exception I certainly feel I belong. B. This makes the cat very jealous, especially in the evening. C. It was specialized work and gave me the answer to my wishes. D. At this point I like to lead my own life. E. I’m constantly kept in touch , and well prepared for an emergency. F. After thinking these things work several ways, I soon drop off. G. Being odd man out has its strain but the signals can help. H. Now I’m happier I wonder how life then was possible. I. He acts as my clock, companion and very shadow. A DAY IN THE LIFE OF 1. It could be Sam if I have an early call or 11am after a late night, but whatever time my alarm goes off, Ouzo crawls up from the bottom of the bed and wakes me up. “ Good morning, Ouzo”, I say, and we both go back to sleep for five minutes. We hate waking up. Ouzo should sleep on the floor but it’s piled with clothes so he sleeps on the bed. Eventually I get up and let Ouzo out as the cat is coming in. Ouzo follows me everywhere, even the bathroom. 2. I can’t remember how I coped without him. When I lived on my own I felt very insecure and lonely. This house consists of three flats for deaf people so a light flashes when the doorbell goes and another when the phone rings. I used to hate those flashing lights – it was as if I was a robot. Now I’m much more relaxed . I sit back and Ouzo tells me what’s happening. 3. He barks and runs to the door when the doorbell rings; he wakes me up when the alarm goes; he taps me on my arm and leads me to the phone when it rings ; and if the smoke alarm were to go off he would tap me once and lie down. It hasn’t happened yet, but we have to practice.

5

4 I’ve had Ouzo for three-and-a half years and he comes everywhere with me. He spent five months being trained at the Hearing Dogs for the Deaf centre near Oxford, in a house with different kinds of doors, bathrooms and bedrooms. I love animals but my flat is very small so I said I’d like a small fluffy dog and that’s exactly what I got. As soon as I met him I thought “That’s my dog!” Now Ouzo is my ears. 5 I’m usually the only deaf person in a company and I can find it all quite hard and very tiring, but it brings me out of myself. Deaf people tend to be very visual, so we learn quickly. Sometimes it’s hard with a group; you try to lip-read but it’s difficult because many little sounds look the same - it is good to have signing (sign language) as a back-up. 6. When I did Casualty the crew learnt some sign language. “Silence,” which is a finger to the lips, and “Cut”, which is drawing a finger across the throat! I don’t think of myself as a deaf actor but as an actor who is also deaf. I’m proud to be deaf. I feel close to deaf people, although I was the only person who was deaf in my family. 7. After work I’m usually tired from being very aware and watching people and signing all day, so most evenings I like to come home, relax and switch off. I start cooking at about 7.30, most pasta and mushrooms; I’d like to give dinner parties but my flat is too small. Then I’ll have a bath, lighting candles, around me, very relaxing – get into my pyjamas, lock the doors, let the cat out and praise Ouzo. 8. “Remember to wake me tomorrow morning, Ouzo.” A dog isn’t just a man’s best friend; it’s a deaf woman’s, too. I don’t like total darkness; I like to see the moonlight streaming in, but within five minutes we’re both asleep. III. Fill in the gap with ONE suitable word

( 2.5 points )

TEENAGERS Until very recently, teenagers have been hooked on television. Parents have worried that their children are becoming fat, lazy (1)_____________potatoes, and teenagers seem to have preferred watching TV (2)_____________ almost any other activity in the home. Except perhaps sleeping. But no more! According to the latest statistics, teenagers have (3)_____________off TV and are turning off in droves. Given the choice (4)_____________TV and the Internet, it’s clear what most teens prefer. The internet (5)_____________an interactive, social need that TV doesn’t. Teenagers at a loose (6)_____________ in their bedrooms can hang (7)_____________with their mates in cyberspace. As websites such as MySpace have (8)_____________off, teenagers have been only (9)_____________eager to join in their millions and spend hours a day – and night – online. We’re witnessing the birth of the generation of the ‘keyboard potato’, for (10)_____________of a better expression. ANSWERS 1. 6.

2. 7.

3. 8.

4. 9.

5. 10.

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WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given 1. You don’t hear much that’s good these days. These days most_______________________________________ 2. I think I forgot to pack my scissors. I____________________________________________________ 3. Paul and Pete share so many similar interests. Paul_________________________________________________ 4. It would be in your interest to take an earlier train on Sunday. You would___________________________________________ 5. Karen should be made responsible for dealing with customer complaints. It’s high time Karen_____________________________________ 6. I wish coffee didn’t affect me. If____________________________________________________ 7. Passengers can only board the plane when all bags have been checked Only_________________________________________________ 8. Why do you think you are allowed to criticize me like that? What do you think_____________________________________? 9. The website wouldn’t allow me to access certain pages. The website__________________________________________ 10. “ I haven’t made any firm decision yet” said Laurence Laurence said he___________________________________ at that time.

( 5 points ) news must common off charge effect after gives denied open

II. Writing : Many students have to live with roommates while going to school or university. What are some of the important qualities of a good roommate? Use specific reasons and examples to explain why these qualities are important. ( about 200 words) (5 points ) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

_______________

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ANSWER KEY Listening : I. 1.25 points 1. C 2. C 3. A 4.C 5.B II. 4 points 1. 24 2. renting 3. government 4. royal 5. kings 6. queens 7. 34 pounds 8. www.lifeintheuktest.gov.uk Grammar and Vocabulary I. 3 points 1. to respect 2.to avoid 3.paying 4.being 5. reconsidering 6. learned 7. had been living/had lived 8. was going to be pulled/would be pulled 9. to see 10. had read 11. come 12. will have been done II. 5 points 1.A 2.C 3.A 4.A 5.B 6.D 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.A 11. C 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B III. 2.5 points 1. Independent 2. breadth 3. significant 4. goodwill 5. charitable 6. objections 7. invaluable 8. acknowledged/known9. exemplary 10. selflessness IV. 3.75 points 1. surph → surf 2. makeing→ making 3. reveled→ revealed 4. webb → web 5.developped→ developed 6. won→ one 7. know → known 8. diferent→ different 9. responsable→responsible 10. acording→according11. relavent→relevant 12. geting→getting 13. brian→ brain 14. scull→ skull 15.additionaly→additionally Reading I.4 points 1.B 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.D 11.A 12.A 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. A II. 4 points 1. I 2. H 3. E 4. C 5. G 6. A 7.D 8. F III. 2.5 points 1. couch 2. to 3. gone 4. between 5. meets 6. end 7. out 8. taken 9. too 10. want Writing I. 5 points 1. These days most news you hear is bad. 2. I must have forgotten to pack my scissors. 3. Paul has so much in common with Pete./Paul has so many interests in common with Pete. 4. You would be better off taking an earlier train on Sunday. 5. It’s high time Karen was in charge of dealing with customer complaints. 6. If only coffee didn’t have any effect on me/had no effect on me. 7. Only after all bags have been checked can passengers board the plane. 8. What do you think gives the right to criticize me like that? 9. The website denied me access to certain pages. 10. Laurence said he had (still) left his options to open at that time.

II. 5 points Total points : 40

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỒNG THÁP -------------------------------------------

Đề chính thức

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT DỰ THI CẤP QUỐC GIA NĂM 2011 --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) (Đề thi gồm có: 08 trang)

Giám khảo 1

Giám khảo 2

Điểm bài thi

Số phách

SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION (30 ps.) Part 1: (10 ps.) Read the statements below carefully. You will hear the director of a language school talking to some students who have just arrived at the school. Fill in the gaps with the missing information. Listen to the recording twice and spend 5 minutes to complete your task. 1. Those students who have their surname beginning with H, their family will wait for them in . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2. The introductory party is for all students to meet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3. The deadline for paying the school fees is after . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4. If students have any problems about money, they can contact . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5. Students’ meals are taken with their family, but if they want to have meal at school, they have to come and see . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Part 2: (20 ps.) Read the statements below carefully. You will hear an interview on radio with someone who started a news survey called Children’s Express. Decide if the statements are True or False. Write T or F in the space provided on the right column. You will hear the interview twice. T/F The purpose of Children’s Express is to encourage children to 1. . . . . . . . . . . . consider important factors of the world. In Children’s Express younsters can learn various kinds of job 2. . . . . . . . . . . . including the job of journalists. They learn to write articles and interview VIPs of the US. 3. . . . . . . . . . . . Everything on newspapers and magazines reflects exactly the 4. . . . . . . . . . . . content of the oral interviews. The interviewer of the Radio station has good impression of the teenage 5. . . . . . . . . . . . journalists’ work. SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (70 ps.) 1/10

Part 1: (50 ps.) Choose the word which best completes the following sentences. Circle the letter of your choice either A, B, C or D. 1. I can’t seem to get ……………. to him that he’s making a terrible mistake. A. across B. over C.through D. off 2. They took …………… consideration the experience of each candidate before deciding who to offer the job A. into B. up C. after D. down 3. She wore on her expensive jewellry so that she could show ……………. how wealthy she was. A. on B. up C. off D. by 4. The boss is nice ……………. everyone else, but for some reasons he always pickking ……………. me. A. with/up B. to/on C. by/on D. to/up 5. I had a similar experience ……………. yours last year, so I sympathise……………. you. A. on/with B. in/for C. about/with D. for/with 6. We’ve……………of time to catch the train so there’s no need to run A.very much B. enough C. plenty D. great deal 7. That’s …………….. . The bus is usually on time, so I’ve no idea why it’s late today. A. unusual B. strange C. special D. uncustomary 8. I was so …………….. before the exams that I couldn’t sleep for two weeks. A. worrying B. nervous C. shocked D. uncomfortable 9. Three years ago, there were two million people without jobs. Now there are over three million ……………. A. unbusied B. workless C.jobless D. unemployed 10. I’m …………….. that something’s terrible going to happen if I’m not careful A. scared B. feared C. threatened D. frightened 11. To end or…………………….. greatly pollution immediately, people have to stop using many things that benefit them. A. reduce B. decrease C. shorten D. lessen 12. Public transportation needs to be …………… in the next five years to serve the quick development of the city. A. repaired B. upgraded C. fixed D. improved. 13. He couldn’t …………his father that he was telling the truth. A. confide B. trust C. convince D. admit 14. To practice a foreign language, it is best to …………… with native speakers of that language. A. communicate B. contact C. inform D. give word 15. Einstein ’s theories have …………… to the development of modern science A. cooperated B. provided C. supplied D. contributed 16. Hamburgers, hot dogs, and fries are sometimes called junk ……………….. A. dishes B. meals C. food D. feed 17. Can you do me a(n)…………and post this letter A. help B. promise C. aid D. favour 18. A fire fighter saved a family from burning to death. He received a …………… from the city government. A. medal B. award C. prize D. gift 19. Last year the potatoes harvest was very disappointing, but this year it looks as though we shall have a better………………….. 2/10

20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

A. result B. crop C. income D. outcome The mechanic explained in great…………………. of how the car worked A. detail B. clarity C. information D.example Have you taken your ……………….. on our new flat? A. safety B. protection C. assurance D. insurance When the starter gave the ………………. all the competitors in the race began to run round the track. A. signal B. whistle C. shot D. horn In developing countries where ¾ of the world’s ……………….. lives, women produce more than half of the food. A. population B. people C. dwellers D. inhabitants The main attraction of the job was that it offered the …………….to do research. A. possibility B. opportunity C. proposal D. prospect Scientist have discovered a close ………………. between smoking and several serious diseases. A. unifcation B. combination C. relation D. connection

Part 2: (20 ps.) Each line of the following passage contains ONE mistake (grammar or spelling). Identify the mistake and write the correct form in the space provided in the column on the right. Number (0) has been done as an example. Anybody running a company knows that a well-planned conference can greatly improve the performance on that business. The main reason for this is that it takes your employees away from a daily work place and offers them somewhere fresh for a short time. So, unless the conference is well thought out it will not have the best results and you will have wasted a great deal of money. The first step is find the right place. Can your employees easily reach the conference center? It is near the railway station? Is it close to a good, fast road? Has it plenty of suitably parking space? If you are going to choose a hotel, and perhaps the hotel has cheaper rates at weekends or, if it is a popular tourist area, midweek rates may be cheaper. Other requirement is food and drink. This is very an important issue. You know, breakfast is a time which people can relax before the day’s work begins, and you may not want a long break for lunch in the middle of the day. Buffet lunches are very popular for this reason. Then there is dinner, that most employees consider a reward for a day’s hard work!

(0). on 26.

of

............ ..

27. . . . . . . . . . . . .

..

28. . . . . . . . . . . . .

..

29. . . . . . . . . . . . . 30. . . . . . . . . . . . .

..

31. . . . . . . . . . . . . 32. . . . . . . . . . . . . 33. . . . . . . . . . . . . 34. . . . . . . . . . . . .

..

However your needs, it is essential to think ahead if you want 35. . . . . . . . . . . . . a successful conference.

..

SECTION III: READING COMPRHENSION Part 1: (10 ps.) 3/10

..

.. .. ..

You are going to read a magazine article about changing your life. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A – H for each part (1 – 5) of the article. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. Numbers (0) & (6) are done as examples.

F

A. B. C. D. E. F. G. H.

The number of cars in London has not fallen. Traffic movement in London today is just as bad as it was in the past There has been a decrease in certain types of traffic in London Using a car in London continues to have advantages. New developments have prevented improvements in traffic conditions London. Little can be done to improve the traffic situation in London. Travelling by other means of transport can be unpleasant. Driving in London is getting worse.

Part 2: (10 ps.) 4/10

Reading the passage carefully and answer the questions. Write your answers in the space provided: Some waste is not dangerous. Often somebody will recycle it and do something useful with it. You can break up old cars to get the metal, or make new glass from old bottles. But some waste is toxic – it is very poisonous. In the USA, for example, factories dump – throw away265 million tons of toxic waste every year. How do you dump toxic waste safely? Well, you can put it in metal containers and leave it somewhere safe; but this can be a very bad idea. You can bury toxic waste. You put it in a deep hole and cover it with soil. That is what happened at Love Canal in the USA. In the 1930s a chemical producer buried many tons of toxic waste in metal containers. In 1950s, a builder bought the land and built a little town there. Nobody remembered the containers of toxic waste under the ground. Then, in the 1970s, the waste started to come through the metal of the containers and pollute the ground. Trees and grass blackened and died. There was a bad smell everywhere. People had to leave their homes. The people who cleaned up Love Canal found eighty-two different toxic chemicals in the soil. You can burn toxic waste, but it is more expensive than burying it and the burning can produce dangerous gases. So some people burn their toxic waste at sea in special ships The chemicals get into the air and the wind carries them a long way. You can send you toxic waste to a poorer country and pay somebody to burn or bury it there. The USA sends toxic waste to Panama. Germany and Holland send toxic waste to the Czech Republic. Is this a good idea? Toxic waste can be useful if you know how to recycle it. Some producers bury their toxic waste in the soil. There, special bacteria in the soil eat the waste and change it into clean, safe carbon dioxide and water. In Britain, some people are growing special waste-eating bacteria. These bacteria eat toxic chemicals. There is a lot of toxic waste in the world: Are these bacteria hungry enough? 1. What message does the writer want to send to the readers of this passage? ............................................................................................ ........................................ ....................................................

2. According to the writer, why is burying toxic waste not a good idea? ........................................................................................... . .................................................. ..........................................

3. What happens if we choose burning toxic waste in stead of burying it? .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. ..........................................

4. What does the writer imply when he puts the question “Is this a good idea?” in paragraph 3? .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................ ................................

5. Do you think growing special waste-eating bacteria is the best solution to cope with toxic waste on earth? .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................

Part 3: (20 ps.) 5/10

Complete the following passage with the best words of your choice.Write your answers in the space provided: The population of the world has increased more in modern time than in all other ages of history combined. World population totalled about 500 million in 1650. In doubled in the (1) …………….………. from 1650-1850. Today the population is more than six billion. No one know the limits of population that the earth can support. Thomas Malthus, an English economist (2) …………….………. a theory that became widely accepted in the nineteenth century. He suggested that (3) …………….………. world population tended to increase more (4) …………….………. than the food supply, a continual strain was exerted upon available resources. Malthus cited wars, famines, epidemics, and other disasters as the usual limitations of population growth. With recent advances in science and technology, (5) …………….………. improved agricultural methods and great strides in medicine, some of the limiting factors in population growth have been lessened (6) …………….………. obvious results. International (7) …………….………. have put forward several recommendations to alleviate the problems of (8) …………….………. , including an increase in food production, general economic development in target areas, and a (9) …………….………. in birth rates. Most experts agree that it will be necessary (10) …………….………. to all three recommendations in an effort to effect a lasting solution.

SECTION IV: WRITING Part 1: (10 ps.) Rewrite each sentence so that the meaning stays the same. Follow the example. Example:

The witness can be relied on completely (reliable) The witness is completely reliable.

1. No, please don’t tell him. (I’d) ........................................................................................

2. I’m never going to talk to him again.(That’s) ........................................................................................

3. You may get hungry on the train, so take some sandwiches (case) ........................................................................................

4. Don’t you understand that it’s important to be more careful? (importance) ........................................................................................

5. The thought of having much to solve at the same time frightens me (frightening)

a lot.

........................................................................................

Part 2: (20 ps.) 6/10

Observe the chart and write a brief report of 150 words in the space provided to interpret it. 16000 14000 12000 10000 8000 6000 4000 2000 0 2003

2005

2006

2007

Number of Vietnamese visitors to Malaysia ....................................... ..................................................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................ ................................ ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .......................................................................... .................. .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................... ........................................ ...................................... .................................................. .... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................................. .......................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. ..........................................

Part 3: (30 ps.) 7/10

According to you what are the advantages and diadvantages of using the Internet. Write a paragraph of 300 words to state your point of view in the space provided. .................................................................................. .......... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................ ................................ .............................................. .............................................. .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .......................................................................... .................. .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................ ...................................... .................................................. .... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ........................................................... ................................. ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... ............................................................................................ .................................................. .......................................... .................................................. .......................................... .................................................... ........................................ ....................................................................................... ..... .................................................. .......................................... . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . END

8/10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỒNG THÁP

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI THPT DỰ THI CẤP QUỐC GIA NĂM 2008

-------------------------------------------

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC) Ngày thi: 18 tháng 11 năm 2007 (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm có: 02 trang) SECTION I: LISTENING COMPREHENSION Total: 30 points Part 1: 10 points 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 2: 20 points 1=T

the dining room the teachers 7 days/ a week the school director the chef 2=F

3=F

4=T

5=T

16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25

SECTION II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR Total: 70 points 2 points for each Part 1: 50 points 1 2 3 4 5

C A C B D

Part 2: 20 points 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

the However to find/finding suitable then Another when but which Whatever

6 7 8 9 10

C B B D D

11 12 13 14 15

A B C A D

C D A B A

SECTION III: READING COMPRHENSION Total: 40 points Part 1: 10 points 1. G 2. C 3. E 4. A 5. D 9/10

D C A B B

Part 2: 10 points 1. He wants to aware people of recycling waste to protect our environment. 2. Burying toxic waste is not a good idea because some toxic wastes are not disintegrated. 3. If we choose burning toxic waste instead of burying it, the gases from burnt toxic waste will be one of the causes of air-pollution. 4. He means it is unfair to do that because toxic waste will have negative influence on the environment of the place it comes to. 5. I don’t think so because there is too much toxic waste on earth and these bacteria can’t eat it up. Part 3: 20 points 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

period developed because rapidly including with organizations overpopulation decrease 10. combine

SECTION IV: WRITING Total: 60 points Part 1: 10 points 1. I’d rather you didn’t tell him 2. That’s the last time I’ve talked to him. 3. In case you get hungry you had better / should / ought to take some sandwiches.

4. Don’t you understand the importance of being more careful? 5. It is a very frightening thought of having much to solve at the same time Part 2: 20 points Genral statement about the chart – 5 points Trends at different times – 5 points Overall trend – 5 points Conclusion – 5 points Part 3: 30 points A brief introduction about internet – 5 points Benefits people gain from using internet – 10 points The internet’s negative influences on people – 10 points Personal points of view on how to use internet in the right ways – 5 points

10/10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Đề thi gồm 09 trang)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014

Môn: TIẾNG ANH 11 Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể giao đề) Ngày thi: 08/10/2013

Điểm của bài thi

Họ, tên và chữ kí của giám khảo

Bằng số:

Giám khảo 1:

Bằng chữ:

Giám khảo 2:

Số phách (do chủ tịch HĐCT ghi)

PART I: LISTENING (3 points) - Phần nghe có 2 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 2 lần - Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe là một đoạn nhạc - Trước mỗi phần nghe, thí sinh có 1 phút để đọc bài - Sau mỗi phần nghe, thí sinh có 30 giây để kiểm tra kết quả Question 1: You will hear an announcement fitness center. Listen and fill in the missing information in the numbered space. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. (2 points)

HEALTH WEEK

Course Guarantees: (1) ______________ Learn new (2)______________ techniques Work hard Things to Take: - A good pair of (3)____________ - Shorts and T-shirts - (4)_____________ for the pool. Programme First Day: - Weighing - Fill in a quick (5)______________ - Plan with (6)______________for each person. Weekdays: Morning: - exercise session in the gym. - personal trainer to check you exercise correctly. Afternoon: - (7)______________ - exercises in the pool. - (8)______________in the spa Last Day: Individual weighing assessment and progress check. Discussion on (9)______________& maintaining progress in everyday life. Price: a 25% discount Total cost (10) £ ____________ for one week. 1

Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Question 2: You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. Listen and choose the best answers. (1 point) 1. What does Britta say about living in Berlin? A. She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise. B. She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn. C. She likes living in a big, busy city. 2. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is_____________. A. a rather expensive place to live B. a good place to eat out C. a long way from the city centre 3. How does Britta usually travel around in Berlin? A. She walks.

B. She uses her bicycle.

C. She uses the train or bus.

4. Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, likes going___________. A. to the park with her B. to the shops with his parents C. to a gallery with her. 5. Britta has lots of friends who____________. A. live near her Your answers: 1.

2.

B. work with her

C. are still in England

3.

4.

5.

PART II: PHONETICS (2 points) Question 1: Pick out the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1 point) 1. A. endangered 2. A. though 3. A. accidental 4. A. choose 5. A. naked Your answers: 1. 2.

B. handkerchief B. tough B. international B. school B. recorded

C. condition C. rough C. fortunate C. good C. trusted

3.

4.

2

D. defeat D. laughter D. sentence D. soon D. formed 5.

Question 2: Pick out the word that has different stress pattern from the rest. (1 point) 1. A. locate B. decide C. statement D. unfair 2. A. programme B. device C. private D. student 3. A. different B. opposite C. technical D. excursion 4. A. photographer B. destination C. participant D. professional 5. A. prepare B. question C. educate D. calculator Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART III: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (4 points) Question 1: Choose the suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1 point) 1. According to a recent survey, most people are on good_________with their neighbours. A. acquaintance B. relationship C. terms D. friendship 2. _________she take my advice, she will win a place at university. A. Should B. If C. Unless D. Will 3. As I was coming out of the room, I collided_________somebody who was coming in. A. with B. into C. of D. for 4. It’s our responsibility to contribute to _________our own lives. A. growing B. heightening C. bettering D. increasing 5. We’ve known each other for a long time._________, I didn’t recognize her at the party. A. But B. However C. Consequently D. Yet 6. _________Ali went to sleep, he had finished the work. A. Before B. After C. While D. Until 7. Peter told me that he was leaving for the capital___________. A. tomorrow B. next day C. the day before D. the following day 8. You’d better take his proposal_________before_________ your final decision. A. into account/ making B. by surprise/ doing C. into account/ doing D. by surprise/ making 9. With a very little money to_________, Marie Curie came to Paris to realise her dream. A. do with B. work for C. stay on D. live on 10. Not until Nick was five_________ French. A. when he learned B. did he learn C.that he learned D. he learned Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point) 1. No decision_________(make) about any future appointment until all suitable candidates__________(interview). 2. The sunlight_________(come) through the window________(wake) us up early every morning. 3. Yoona saves $200 a week. By the time she _________(retire), she__________(save) $20,000. 4. It’s high time you_________( have) the house_________(repaint). 5. My daughter said that she watered the flowers everyday. She________(not/water) them. If she_________( have), they wouldn’t have died. 3

Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 3: Fill in each blank with the correct form of the words. (1 point) GOING GREEN There is an (1. argue)______that recycling may have some (2. foresee)________nagative effects. Of course, it would be a major achievement if we were able to increase (3. aware)________of the threat to the environment caused by pollution and the (4. burn)_________ of fossil fuels. However, if the public’s only involvement in (5. ecology)________issues is taking their newspapers and bottles to the recycling point, we may only be creating the (6. appear)________of improvement. If they have to drive any (7. distant)_________to the recycling point, for example, it might mean the consumption of more energy is (8. save)________. Also, if people feel that they are making their contribution to the environment, they might not put so much (9. press)__________on large organizations to encourage the development of (10. safe)_________, less damaging forms of production. Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Question 4: Each line of the following passage contains one mistake. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on the right. (1 point) An endangered species is a population of an organism who is at risk of becoming extinct because it is both few in numbers or threatened by changed environmental or predation parameters. An endangered species is usually a taxonomic species, though may be another evolutionary significant unit. The World Conservation Union was calculated the percentage of endangered species as 40% of all organisms based at the sample of species that have been evaluating through 2006. Many nations have laws offering protection to this species: for example, forbidding hunting, restricting land develop or creating preserves. Only a few of the many species at risk of extinct actually make it to the lists and obtain legal protection. Much species become extinct, or potentially will become extinct without gaining public notice.

0. who 1.__________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4.__________ 5.__________ 6.__________ 7.__________ 8.__________ 9.__________ 10._________

PART IV: READING (5 points) Question 1: Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (1 point) In its simplest sense the word “advertising” means“(1)__________attention to something”, notifying or informing people of something. You can advertise by word of mouth, quite 4

informally and locally and without incurring great (2)_________. But if you want to inform a large (3)_________of people about something, you might need to advertise in the more normal sense of the word, by (4)__________announcement. If you put a notice in a local newsagent’s shop, design a poster or (5)_________some place in a local newspaper, you are likely to bring the information you wish to communicate to the attention of more people than if you simply (6)_________the word around friends and neighbours. You could go further and distribute leaflets as well, get someone to (7)_________a placard around, even advertise on local radio and (8)_________a publicity stunt. However, you might not be content to simply convey certain facts and leave it at that. You might wish to add a bit of (9)__________ or even to exaggerate the facts by (10)_________to people’s emotions. And this is of course where all the controversy about advertising in its current form arises. Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Question 2: Read the passage and choose the best options (A, B, C or D) to fit the numbered blank. (2 points) The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been (1)_______ for broken relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could cause serious problems and may ruin many lives. Special help groups have been set up to (2)_________sufferers help and support. Psychologists have described many worrying examples, including one man who took his own wife after (3)_________more than $14,000 to feed his addiction, and a teenager who had to receive psychiatric treatment for his 12-hour-a-day habit. "This illness is not (4)_________and it must be taken seriously," said an expert in behavioral addiction at Nottingham Trent University. "These are not sad people with serious personality (5)_________; they are people who were fine before they found the Internet." IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about the Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (6)_________to their partners about how much time they spend online; they (7)_________they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; although they felt guilty, they became depressed if they were (8)________to stop using it. Almost anyone can be at risk. “Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already (9)_________on computer games and who (10)_________it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet” psychologists say. Surprisingly, however, that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a computer before. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

A. blamed A. offer A. gaining A. false A. mistakes A. betray A. want A. let A. taken A. say

B. faulted B. suggest B. lending B. imitation B. errors B. deceive B. wish B. allowed B. addicted B. feel

C. mistaken C. recommend C. winning C. fake C. faults C. cheat C. rather C. had C. tied C. find 5

D. accused D. advise D. borrowing D. artificial D. defects D. lie D. prefer D. made D. hooked D. have

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 3: Read the passage and choose the best answers. (2 points) The goal of Internet-based encyclopedia Wikipedia (www.wikipedia.org) is to give every on the planet access to information. Like other encyclopedias, Wikipedia contains lot of information more than 2.5 million articles in 200 different languages covering just about every subject. Unlike other encyclopedias, however, Wikipedia is not written by experts, but by ordinary people. These writers are not paid and their names are not published. They contribute to Wikipedia simply because they want to share their knowledge. Encyclopedias began in ancient times as collections of writings about all aspects of human knowledge. The word itself comes from ancient Greek, and means” a complete general education”. Real popularity for encyclopedias came in the 19th century in Europe and the United States, with the publication of encyclopedias written for ordinary readers. With the invention of the CD-ROM, the same amount of information could be put on a few computer discs. Then with the Internet, it became possible to create an online encyclopedia that could be constantly updated, like Microsoft’s Encarta. However, even Internet-based encyclopedias like Encarta were written by paid experts. At first, Wikipedia, the brainchild of Jimmmy Wales, a businessman in Chicago, was not so different from these. In 2001, he had the idea for an Internet-based encyclopedia that would provide information quickly and easily to everyone. Furthermore, that information would be available free, unlike other Internet encyclopedias at that time. But Wales, like everyone else, believed that people with special knowledge were needed to write the articles, and so he began by hiring experts. He soon changed his approach, however, as it took them a long time to finish their work. He decided to open up the encyclopedia in a radical new way so that everyone would have access not only to the informtion, but also to the process of putting this information online. To do this, he used what is known as” Wiki”software ( from the Hawaiian word” fast”), which allows users to create or alter content on web page. The system is very simple: When you open the website, you can simply search for information or you can log on to become a writer or editor of articles. If you find an article that interests you- about your hometown, for example- you can correct it or expand it. This process goes on until noone is interested in making any more changes. 1. Wikipedia is a(n)______________. A. article B. book C. journal D. dictionary 2. Wikipedia is written by_______________. A. paid written B. millionaires C. normal people D. world experts 3. The phrase “these writers” in the first paragraph refers to_______________. A. ordinary readers B. ordinary people C. encyclopedia experts D. every subject 4. The phrase ” the word” in the second paragraph refers to________________. A. knowledge B. encyclopedia C. writing D. collection 5. Microsoft’s Encarta is cited in the passage as an example of________________. A. printed encyclopedia B. updateable online encyclopedia C. online encyclopedia D. CD-ROM dictionary 6. The word ” brainchild” in the second paragraph can be best replaced by________________. A. child B. father C. born D. product 6

7. The word” approach” in the third paragraph means________________. A. method B. idea C. writing D. time 8. The user of Wikipedia can do all of the following EXCEPT_________________. A. have access to information B. edit information C. modify information D. determinate the website 9. We can say that Jimmy Wales_________________. A. became very famous after the formation of Wikipedia B. made a great profit from Wikipedia C. is the father of Wikipedia D. decides who can use Wikipedia 10. Wiki software enables__________________. A. editing B. limited access C. a purchase of information D. exchanging articles Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

PART V. WRITING (6 points) Question 1: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the given one. (1 point) 1. Julia is talking to an Italian businessman. The businessman………………………………………………………………………………. 2. It’s not normal l for me to get up early. I am not………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. They took extra night classes, so as not to have to repeat the course. They avoided………………………………………………………………………………….. 4. If they hadn’t encouraged us, we couldn’t have finished the work successfully. Had it not………………………………………………………………………………........... 5. On receipt of your cheque, we will send the goods to you. The moment………………………………………………………………………………........... Question 2: Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a similar meaning as the printed one. You must not change the given word. (1 point) 1. “Don’t play with the matches!’’, I said to Jack. (AGAINST) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. He said that he hadn’t stolen her Iphone 5. (DENIED) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 3. Please take care of my children when I am away. (EYE) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 4. They proposed organizing the sport event by the end of October. (ORGANIZED) …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 5. I was less impressed by their performance than I'd hoped. (COME) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

7

Question 3: Paragragh writing (1.5 points) You and your classmates participated in some kinds of volunteer work during the summer vacation. Write a letter of at least 120 words to your pen friend about your activities and feelings. Dear Yoonchun, …………………………………………………………………………………………………….… ...…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …...………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……...……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………...…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………...………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………...……………………………………………………………………………………… ………………...…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………...………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………...……………………………………………………………………………… ………………………...…………………………………………………………………………… …………………………...………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………...……………………………………………………………………… ………………………………...…………………………………………………………………… …………………………………...………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………...……………………………………………………………… ………………………………………...…………………………………………………………… …………………………………………...……………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………...………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………...……………………………………………………………… Love Margaret Question 4: Essay writing (2.5 points) Nowadays the social network like Facebook is very popupar with the young. Write an essay of at least 250 words to discuss advantages and disavantages of the social network for teenagers. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ..…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …...………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……...……………………………………………………………………………………………… ………...…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………...………………………………………………………………………………………… 8

……………...……………………………………………………………………………………… ………………...…………………………………………………………………………………… …………………...………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………...……………………………………………………………………………… ………………………...…………………………………………………………………………… …………………………...………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………...……………………………………………………………………… ………………………………...…………………………………………………………………… …………………………………...………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………...……………………………………………………………… ………………………………………...…………………………………………………………… …………………………………………...………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………...……………………………………………………… ……………………………………………...……………………………………………………… ………………………………………………...…………………………………………………… …………………………………………………...………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………...……………………………………………… ………………………………………………………...…………………………………………… …………………………………………………………...………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………...……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………...…………………………………… …………………………………………………………………...………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………...……………………………… ………………………………………………………………………...…………………………… …………………………………………………………………………...………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………...……………………… ………………………………………………………………………………...…………………… …………………………………………………………………………………...………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………...……………… ………………………………………………………………………………………...…………… …………………………………………………………………………………………...………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………...……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………...…… …………………………………………………………………………………………………..… ________THE END_________ 9

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 – 2014

Môn: TIẾNG ANH 11 Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể giao đề) Ngày thi: 08/10/2013

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang) PART I: LISTENING (3 points) Question 1 (10 x 0.2 = 2 points) 1. become healthier

2. exercise

6. specific targets

7. healthy snack

3. trainers

4. swimming costume

5. health questionnaire

8. relaxation

9. fitness strategies

10. 105

Question 2 (5 x 0.2 = 1point 1. C

2. B

3. B

4. C

5. A

PART II: PHONETICS (10x 0.2 = 2 points) Question 1: (5x 0.2 = 1 point) 1. B

2. A

3. C

4. C`

5. D

3.D

4.B

5.A

Question 2: (5x 0.2 = 1 point) 1. C

2.B

PART III: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (4 points) Question 1 (10x 0.1 = 1 points) 1. C

2.A

3.A

4.C

5. B

6. A

7.D

8.A

9.D

10.B

Question 2 (10 x 0,1 = 1 point) 1.will be made

have been interviewed

2. coming

wakes

3. retires

will have saved

4. had

repainted

5. couldn’t have watered

had had

Question 3. (10 x 0.1 = 1 point) 1. argument

2. unforeseen

3. awareness

4. burning

5. ecological

6. disappearance

7. distance

8. saved

9. pressure

10. safer

Question 4 . (10x 0.1 = 1point) 1 both

either

2. changed

6. evaluating

changing

7. this 10

these

evaluated

3. though 4. was 5. at

but

8. develop

has

9. extinct

on

10. Much

development extinction Many

PART IV: READING (5 points) Question 1 (10 x 0.1 = 1point) 1. drawing

2. expense/ costs

3.number

4. public

5. buy/ take

6. pass/ spread

7. carry

8. organize/arrange

9. emphasis

10. appealing

Question 2. (10 x 0.2 = 2 points) 1. A

2.A

3.D

4.C

5.D

6.D

7.B

8.D

9.D

10.C

Question 3. (10x 0,2 = 2 points) 1. C

2.C

3.B

4.B

5. C

6.D

7.B

8.D

9.C

10.A

PART V: WRITING (6 points) Question 1. (5 x 0.2 = 1 point) 1. The businessman to whom Julia is talking is Italian. 2. I am not used to getting up early. 3. They avoided having to repeat the course by taking extra night classes. 4. Had it not been for their encouragement , we couldn’t have finished the work successfully. 5. The moment we receive your cheque, we will send the goods to you. Question 2. (5 x 0.2 = 1 point) 1. I warned Jack against playing with the matches. 2. He denied stealing/ having stolen her Iphone 5. 3. Please keep an eye on my children when I am away. 4. They proposed that the sport event should be organized by the end of October. 5. Their performance didn’t come up to my expectations. Question 3 (1.5 points) Organization: 0.4

Content: 0.4

Language use: 0.4

Spelling and grammar: 0.3

Question 4 . (2,5 points) Organization: 0.5

Content: 1

Language use: 0.5

Spelling and grammar: 0.5

............Hết................. 11

12

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 12

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi gồm 09 trang)

Điểm của bài thi

Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể giao đề) Ngày thi: 08/10/2013 Họ, tên và chữ kí của giám khảo

Bằng số:

Giám khảo 1:

Bằng chữ:

Giám khảo 2:

Số phách (do chủ tịch HĐCT ghi)

PART I: LISTENING (3 points) Phần nghe có 2 bài, mỗi bài được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe là một đoạn nhạc. Trước mỗi phần nghe, thí sinh có 1 phút để đọc bài. Sau mỗi phần nghe, thí sinh có 30 giây để kiểm tra kết quả. Question 1: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. (2 points)

JOB ENQUIRY Work at: a restaurant Type of work: (1)______________ Number of hours per week: (2) ______________ Would need work permit Work in the: Hillsdunne Road branch Nearest bus stop: next to (3) ______________ Pay: (4) £______________an hour Extra benefits: - a free dinner - extra pay when you work on (5) ______________ - transport home when you work (6) ______________ Qualities required: - (7) ______________ - Ability to (8) ______________ Interview arranged for: Thursday (9) ______________at 6 p.m. Bring the names of two referees Ask for: Samira (10) ______________

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Question 2: You will hear someone reviewing tonight’s television programmes. Listen and choose the most suitable answers. (1 point) 1. The film about insects is _________. A. badly photographed B. unsuitable for some people C. much too long 2. Tonight's Miller and Edwards programme________. A. has fewer jokes than usual B. is longer than usual C. is continued next week 3. Policewatch is not on television tonight because _________. A. another programme has taken its place B. Andy McKay is ill C. you can’t see it on Thursdays any more 4. What does the reviewer say about Stardate 3000? A. It has expensive scenery. B. It took two months to make. C. The stories could be better. 5. From tomorrow, TV Diary will be shown _________. A. after the tennis matches B. at a later time C. at 6.30 in the evening Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. PART II: PHONETICS (2 points) Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (1 point) 1. A. wretched B. wicked C. decided D. caused 2. A. receipt B. psychology C. pneumonia D. recipe 3. A. drought B. tough C. plough D. flour 4. A. complexion B. luxury C. anxious D. exhaust 5. A. designer B. resolve C. response D. resign Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 2: Choose the word that has different stress pattern from the rest. (1 point) 1. A. advisable 2. A. parental 3. A. employee 4. A. tremendous 5. A. synchronize Your answers: 1. 2.

B. admirable B. atmosphere B. committee B. enormous B. temporary 3.

C. reliable C. politics C. Geography C. facility C. procedure 4.

D. desirable D. secretary D. guarantee D. presidential D. necessary 5.

PART III: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (4 points) Question 1: Choose the best option to complete the following sentences. (1 point) 1. Take it easy. Don’t ______ off more than you can ______. A. eat – swallow B. eat – chew C. bite – swallow D. bite - chew Page 2 of 9

2. I don’t care what other people gossip about me. It’s no________ of mine. A. matter B. objective C. concern D. importance 3. Going out for a while and taking a rest always ________ stressed people good. A. induce B. take C. do D. have 4. I haven’t got the time to do my own work, _________help you with yours. A. leaving aside B. let alone C. not to mention D. not counting 5. ________ the government to fall, the stock market would crash uncontrollably. A. Provided B. Should C. Were D. In case 6. It’s imperative that the latest proposal of the Ministry of Education and Training for a multifaceted educational reform __________ carefully. A. pilot B. to pilot C. be piloted D. is piloted 7. Nowadays students are obviously not________aware of the dangers of spending too much time in the cyberspace. A. utterly B. highly C. fully D. fairly 8. I’d rather you________a noise last night. I couldn’t get to sleep. A. hadn’t made B. didn’t make C. not make D. wouldn’t make 9. Jane: “Why are you so nervous about this exam?” Mary: “I need to get a high score.________, I will have to resit for it.” A. On top of that B. Otherwise C. Besides D. First and foremost 10. Jack: “Many happy returns!” Peter: “___________” A. Enjoy yourself! B. Thanks a lot! C. The same to you D. You can say that again. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point) It once (1. believe)________ that being overweight (2. be) ________healthy, but nowadays few people (3. subscribe) ________ to this viewpoint. While many people (4. fight) ________the battle (5. reduce) ________weight, studies are being conducted concerning the appetite and how it (6. control) ________by both emotional and biochemical factors. Some of the conclusion of these studies may give insight into how (7. deal) ________with weight problems. For example, when (8. ask) ________about their eating habits in times of stress, several hundred people said they (9. react) to stressful situations by eating. Further investigations with both human and animals indicated that it (10. not be) ________food that relieves tension but rather the act of chewing. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 3: Fill in each blank with the correct form of the words. (1 point) JOB ADVERTISEMENT This dynamic company is seeking a Sales Director to sell its new range of engineering products in South America. The successful (1. apply) _________will be fluent in Spanish and competent in Portugese, and will (2. prefer) ________have recent experience of this (3. increase) ________competitive market. We are looking for candidates who are highly (4. motivate) _________and who are able to demonstrate (5. leader) _________qualities. The Sales Director will mainly be responsible for putting strategies in place for the (6. develop) _________of new business, Page 3 of 9

for setting (7. achieve) _________ sales targets, and for the (8. maintain) _________of good relationships with key clients. To apply for this position, please send a covering letter (9. company) _________by your CV, and details of at least two referees. For (10. add) _________details, please contact Carolyn Pattern on 075234102. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 4: There are ten mistakes in the text below. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided. (1 point) Robots can work in places to which humans can’t easily get. These including deep oceans, on distant planets or on sites with bad pollution. Robots are also used in factories although they can work much quickly and accurately than a human, and with needing to rest. Improvements in technology over the past fifty years have meant that scientists are now able to create very clever robots. The most complicate of these can make decisions for themselves, learn new things, and deal for problems. However, while robots that look as people are common in science fiction films, they are very rarely in the real life. Making a machine that can balance and move on two legs is a real challenge and is unnecessary for most of the jobs we need robots to make for us. However, a Japanese robot called as Asimo does walk on two legs and can even climb up and down stairs. Your answers: 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10. PART IV: READING COMPREHENSION (5 points)

Question 1: Read the following passage and use ONE word to fill in each gap. (1 point) In the hustle and bustle of today’s modern world all of us, (1) __________exception, have to contend with some level of stress. Obviously, the source and amount of stress are relative (2) __________the individual. Just (3) __________causes and quantities of stress are subject to personal factors, (4) __________is the way in which a person deals with it. (5) __________is a well-known fact that some people flourish when faced with a potentially stress-causing task or situation. On the other hand, the majority of people (6) __________adversely affected when confronted with a serious dilemma. Abnormal levels of stress can be a serious health hazard and may prove detrimental to one’s physical health. Even some types of cancer are reportedly linked to stress. Knowing that stress is a modern-day malady which we all suffer from (7) __________prompted many to begin looking seriously at ways of controlling stress. (8) __________ to the fact that stress will always play a part in our lives, it is (9) __________ importance that strategies of stress management (10) __________ found. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10. Page 4 of 9

Question 2: Read the following passage and choose the best answers. (2 points) The reasons for the extinction of a species and for the rapid rates of change in our environment are currently the focus of much scientific research. An individual species' susceptibility to extinction depends on at least two things: the taxon (the biological group-kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, or genus) to which a species belongs, and the overall rate of environmental change. Fossil evidence shows that more mammals and birds become extinct than mollusks or insects. Studies of the extinction of the dinosaurs and other reptiles during the Cretaceous Period show that a changing environment affects different tаха in different ways. Some may be dramatically affected, others less so. The best way to answer the question of what causes an extinction is to combine fields of inquiry and a variety of viewpoints. Using the fossil record and historical documentation, the different rates of the extinction of various taxa and different responses to environmental change can be detected.Then the evolutionary development of the different species can be compared, and traits that may be disadvantageous can be singled out. Finally, researchers can use mathematical formulae to determine whether a population is likely to adapt itself to the changing environment or disappear. Hopefully, as more of this information is collected, specialists in different fields— e.g. physiological and behavioral ecology, population ecology, community ecology, evolutionary biology and systematics, biogeography, and paleobiology — will work together to make predictions about the broader changes that might occur in the ecosystem. 1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. Assessment of the work of specialists concerned with ecology B. A discussion of possible causes of extinction, and of ways to make predictions about environmental change C. The changing aspects of our environment D. A comparison of the extinction rates of different taxa 2. The word “susceptibility” is closest in meaning to__________. A. insensitivity B. receptiveness C. immunity D. vulnerability 3. An example of a taxon would be__________. A. a phylum B. the rate of environmental change C. a fossil D. studies of extinction 4. The author compares mammals and birds to__________. A. mollusks and insects B. phylum and class C. dinosaurs and reptiles D. ecologists and biologists 5. It can be inferred from the passage that a significant event of the Cretaceous Period was_____. A. the appearance of many taxa B. the dramatic effect of the dinosaur on the environment C. the extinction of birds D. the extinction of dinosaurs 6. It can be inferred from the passage that dinosaurs _________. A. included species that were mammals B. were better represented in the fossil record than other species C. possessed disadvantageous traits D. were not susceptible to extinction 7. The word “dramatically” means________. A. strongly B. inspiringly C. flimsily D. visually 8. From the passage it can be inferred that disadvantageous traits are________. Page 5 of 9

A. occurring at different rates B. a contributing cause of extinction C. adaptable D. earned by mathematical formulas 9. The expression “singled out” is closest in meaning to_________. A. isolated B. blamed C. seen D. divided 10. According to the passage, the likelihood of a population becoming extinct can be_______. A. lessened by the efforts of a few concerned specialists B. unaffected by environmental change C. determined by mathematical formulas D. almost impossible to ascertain Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Question 3: Read the passage and choose a suitable word to fill in each blank. (2 points) There can be no doubt at all that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. However, most parents worry that their children spend too much time browsing the Internet or playing computer games, hardly (1)__________doing anything else in their spare time. Naturally, parents want to know if these activities are harmful to their children. What should they do if their children spend hours (2) __________a computer screen? Obviously, if children spend too much time (3) __________ in some game instead of doing their homework, then something is wrong. It is a good idea if parents and children decide together how much use should be (4) __________of the Internet, and the child should (5) __________that it won’t interfere with homework. If the child does not (6) __________ to this arrangement, parents can take more drastic (7) __________. Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child’s behaviour should make an appointment to (8) __________the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of a computer screen does not (9) __________affect a child’s performance at school. Even if a youngster seems obsessed with the computer, he or she is probably just (10) __________through a phrase, and in a few months parents will have something else to worry about. 1. A. always 2. A. staring at 3. A. concentrated 4. A. done 5. A. assure 6. A. stick 7. A. rules 8. A. speak 9. A. possibly 10. A. going Your answers:

B. rarely B. glancing at B. occupied B. had B. promise B. hold B. procedures B. discuss B. necessarily B. passing

C. never C. hurting C. concerned C. made C. secure C. follow C. regulations C. talk C. probably C. travelling

D. ever D. hurtful D. absorbed D. taken D. claim D. accept D. steps D. debate D. consequently D. walking

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

PART V: WRITING (6 points) Question 1: Rewrite the sentences beginning with the given words so that their meanings stay the same. (1 point) 1. The teacher advised Jack not to play truant frequently as he could be suspended. The teacher said “You’d_____________________________________________________.” 2. The interview panel thought that the last candidate was impressive. Page 6 of 9

The last candidate made______________________________________________________ 3. How has the temporary shutdown of the American government had an effect on the national economy? How_____________________________________________________________________ 4. Reading instructions carefully is the secret of passing your exam with flying colours. As long as_________________________________________________________________ 5. Immediately after his disappearance, everything went wrong. No sooner_________________________________________________________________ Question 2: Rewrite the sentences with the given words so that their meanings stay the same. (1 point) 1. Why didn’t you tell me I was wrong? (TOLD) You_______________________________________________________________________ 2. You mustn’t miss this opportunity to visit the Statue of Liberty. (ADVANTAGE) ___________________________________________________________________________ 3. I am not in the mood for going out this afternoon. (RATHER) ___________________________________________________________________________ 4. My best friend is someone I can really trust. (CONFIDENCE) ___________________________________________________________________________ 5. My friends are not keen on taking part in outdoor activities. (PLEASURE) ___________________________________________________________________________ Question 3: (1.5 points) The graph below shows the grams of fast food eaten per person per week in the UK between 1970 and 1990. Write a report describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………...… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...…… …………………………………………………………………………………………………...……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………...………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………...…………… …………………………………………………………………………………………...……………… ………………………………………………………………………………………...………………… Page 7 of 9

……………………………………………………………………………………...…………………… …………………………………………………………………………………...……………………… ………………………………………………………………………………...………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………...…………………………… …………………………………………………………………………...……………………………… ………………………………………………………………………...………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………...…………………………………… …………………………………………………………………...……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………...………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………...…………………………………………… …………………………………………………………...……………………………………………… ……………………………………………………...…………………………………………………… …………………………………………………...……………………………………………………… ………………………………………………...………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………...…………………………………………………………… …………………………………………...……………………………………………………………… ………………………………………...………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………...…………………………………………………………………… …………………………………...… Question 4: (2.5 points) Nowadays high school students study a large number of compulsory subjects. Some educators argue that they should study a smaller number of subjects and have the right to choose the subjects they want to learn. Do you agree or not? Write an essay of at least 250 words to express your viewpoint. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...…… …………………………………………………………………………………………………...……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………...………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………...…………… …………………………………………………………………………………………...……………… ………………………………………………………………………………………...………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………...…………………… …………………………………………………………………………………...……………………… ………………………………………………………………………………...………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………...…………………………… …………………………………………………………………………...……………………………… ………………………………………………………………………...………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………...…………………………………… …………………………………………………………………...……………………………………… Page 8 of 9

………………………………………………………………...………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………...…………………………………………… …………………………………………………………...……………………………………………… ……………………………………………………...…………………………………………………… …………………………………………………...……………………………………………………… ………………………………………………...………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………...…………………………………………………………… …………………………………………...……………………………………………………………… ………………………………………...………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………...…………………………………………………………………… …………………………………...……………………………………………………………………… ………………………………...… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...…… …………………………………………………………………………………………………...……… ………………………………………………………………………………………………...………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………...…………… …………………………………………………………………………………………...……………… ………………………………………………………………………………………...………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………...…………………… …………………………………………………………………………………...……………………… ………………………………………………………………………………...………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………...…………………………… …………………………………………………………………………...……………………………… ………………………………………………………………………...………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………...…………………………………… …………………………………………………………………...……………………………………… ………………………………………………………………...………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………...…………………………………………… …………………………………………………………...……………………………………………… ……………………………………………………...…………………………………………………… …………………………………………………...……………………………………………………… ………………………………………………...………………………………………………………… _________THE END________

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 12

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể giao đề) Ngày thi: 08/10/2013

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang) PART I: LISTENING (3 points) Question 1: Complete the notes below. (2 points) 1. answering the phone 2. 12 hours 3. (the) library 4. 4.45 6. after 11 (o’clock) 7. clear voice 8. think quickly 9. 22rd October Question 2: Listen and choose the most suitable answer. (1 point) 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C PART II: PHONETICS (2 points)

5. national holidays 10. Manuja 5. A

Question 1: Choose the word with the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (1 point) 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C Question 2: Pick out the word that has different stress pattern from the rest. (1 point) 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C PART III: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (4 points) Question 1: Choose the best option to complete the following sentences. (1 point) 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. B Question 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point) 1. was once believed 6. is controlled 2. was

7. to deal

3. subscribe

8. asked

4. are fighting

9. reacted

5. to reduce 10. is not Question 3: Fill in each blank with the correct form of the words. (1 point) 1. applicant 2. preferably 3. increasingly 4. motivated

10. B

5. leadership

6. development 7. achievable 8. maintenance 9. accompanied 10. additional Question 4: Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided. (1 point) Robots can work in places to which humans can’t easily get. These including deep oceans, on distant planets or on sites with bad pollution. Robots are also used in factories although they can work much quickly and accurately than a human, and with needing to rest. Improvements in technology over the past fifty years have meant that scientists are now able to create very clever robots. The most complicate of these can make decisions for themselves, learn new things, and deal for problems. However, while robots that look as people are common in science fiction films, they are very rarely in the real life. Making a machine that can balance and move on two legs is a real challenge and is unnecessary for most of the jobs we need robots to 1

make for us. However, a Japanese robot called as Asimo does walk on two legs and can even climb up and down stairs. 1. include 6. with 2. because 7. like 3. more 8. rare 4. without 9. do 5.complicated 10. called/ known as PART IV: READING (5 points) Question 1: Read the following passage and use ONE word to fill in each gap. (1 point) 1. without 2. to 3. as 4. so 5. It 6. are 7. has 8. Due/ Owing 9. of 10. be Question 2: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answers. (2 points) 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C Question 3: Read the passage and choose a suitable word to fill in each blank. (2 points) 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. A

7. D 8. B 9. B 10. A PART V: WRITING (6 points) Question 1: Rewrite the sentences beginning with the given words so that their meanings stay the same. (1 point) 1. The teacher said ”You’d better not play truant frequently as you can be suspended, Jack” 2. The last candidate made an impression on the interview panel. 3. How has the temporary shutdown of the American government affected the national economy? 4. As long as you read instructions carefully, you will pass your exam with flying colours. 5. No sooner had he disappeared than everything went wrong. Question 2: Rewrite the sentences with the given words so that their meanings stay the same. (1 point) 1.

You should have told me I was wrong.

2.

You must take advantage of this opportunity to visit the Statue of Liberty.

3.

I’d rather not go out this afternoon.

4.

I can (really) have confidence in my best friend.

5.

My friends take no pleasure in taking part in outdoor activities.

Question 3: (1.5 points) Organisation: 0.4 Content: 0.4 Language use: 0.4 Spelling and grammar: 0.3 Question 4: (2.5 points) Organisation: 0.7 Content: 0.7 Language use: 0.7 Spelling and grammar: 0.4 2

UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2012 – 2013 MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 12 - THPT

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi 29 tháng 3 năm 2013 ================

Điểm bài thi Bằng số:

Giám khảo 1 Họ tên:

Giám khảo 2 Họ tên:

Bằng chữ:

Chữ ký:

Chữ ký:

Số phách

* Ghi chú: Đề thi gồm 07 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. PART I: PHONETICS (1 point) I: Find a word in each line whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p) 1 A allegedly B confusedly C supposedly D wickedly 2 A youths B maps C cigarettes D months 3 A equation B television C mention D decision 4 A rise rinse browse B C D bruise 5 A substitute B muddled C shutter D substantial II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p) 1 A academic B amphibian C apartheid D aquarium 2 A tuberculosis B mathematician C inheritance D communication 3 A casualty B habitual C characterize D ignorance 4 A magnificent B memorial C tobacconist D humanism 5 A trigonometry B explanatory C immediately D democracy PART II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7 points) I: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the correct word or phrase. (2 p) 1. …… every industry in our modern world requires the work of engineers. A. Wholly B. Hardly C. Most D. Virtually 2. Jane had a problem with her finances, so we talked …… and now it's fine. A. over B. it over C. over it D. over and over 3. When the electricity failed, he …… a match to find the candles. A. rubbed B. scratched C. struck D. started 4. I usually buy my clothes …… . It’s cheaper than going to the dressmaker. A. on the house B. off the peg C. in public D. on the shelf 5. My father …… when he found out that I had damaged his car. A. hit the roof B. saw pink elephants C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down 6. According to the captain, his special units can take an immediate action against terrorists should such a need ........... . A. arise B. originate C. evoke D. experience 7. We were ........... by the officers' decision to divert the whole traffic from the main route. A. rambled B. baffled C. stumbled D. shuffled 8. The book says that the revolution was ............. off by the assassination of the state governor. A. launched B. cropped C. triggered D. prompted 9. The hijackers have demanded a ........... to be paid for releasing the civilian hostages from the plane. A. currency B. revenue C. deposit D. ransom 10. He’s .............................. work and cannot possibly see you now. A. up to his ears in B. very interested in C. not involved with D. concerned with Page 1/7

11. He suddenly saw Sue ..................... the room. He pushed his way ..................... the crowd of people to get to her. A. across/through B. over/through C. over/along D. across/across 12. She tried to ....................... A. talk out of me the plan B. talk me the plan out of C. talk me out of the plan D. talk out me of the plan. 13. My cousin obviously didn’t ………… much of an impression on you if you can’t remember meeting her. A. create B. do C. make D. build 14. She was kept awake for most of the night by the………… of a mosquito in her car. A. whine B. moan C. groan D. screech 15. Her business must be going rather well, ……….by the car she drives. A. deducing B. deciding C. inferring D. judging 16. He looks very aggressive and threatening, and so his soft, gentle voice is rather…………. A. disembodied B. disconcerting C. dismissive D. discordant 17. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable…………., because it seems too good to be true. A. suspicion B. doubt C. reservation D. disbelief 18. My sister’s confidence in her ability to play the piano was badly……….. by her last music teacher. A. subsided B. weakened C. undermined D. loosened 19. Your grandfather is rather tired so do not………….your visit. Let him have a rest. A. prolong B. lengthen C. delay D. shorten 20. Their eventual choice of the house was……….by the time Peter would take to get to the office. A. related B. consequent C. determined D. dependent II. Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form (1p) In 1764 Dr. Johnson accepted the contract (1. produce) a dictionary. (2. rent) a garret, he took on a number of copying clerks, who (3. stand) at a long central desk. Johnson (4. not have) a library available to him, but eventually produced definitions of 40,000 words ( 5. write) down in 80 large notebooks. On publication, the Dictionary immediately (6. hail) in many European countries as a landmark. According to his biographer, James Boswell, Johnson’s principal achievement was (7. bring) stability to the English language: “It (8. be) the cornerstone of Standard English, an achievement which (9. confer) stability on the language of his country”. As a reward for his hard work, he (10. grant) a pension by the king. Your answers: 1 ………..………...

2…………...………..

3…………..………

4 ………..…………

5………..……………

6.……..……………

7. ………..………...

8. ………..……………

9. ………..………… 10. ........................

III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (1 p) 1. Please (know) .................................. our letter of the 25th. We have not had a reply. 2. Eating fish and lots of vegetables greatly increases your life (expect) ...................... 3. It is very rude to interrupt someone in ……………………... (sentence) 4. Wow, I'm afraid I am not very (photo).......................... 5. The (forest) ..................................... has caused many so-called man-made disasters. 6. All the ............... from the last lecture were not allowed to attend the interview for the coming project. (absence) 7. The road was (pass) ............................... because of the snow. 8. She spent hours getting the house (spot) ...........................clean. 9. Paul is a good employee, and is very …………. (conscience). 10. …………………….. children will not be allowed to cross busy roads. (accompany) Page 2/7

Your answers: 1 ………..………...

2…………...………..

3…………..………

4 ………..…………

5………..……………

6.……..……………

7. ………..………...

8. ………..……………

9. ………..………… 10. ........................

IV. The passage below contains 11 mistakes. (0) has been done for you as an example. IDENTIFY and CORRECT the other ten. (1 p) 0. all complete --> completely Things started to go wrong as soon as we got to the hotel. We were all complete exhausted after our long journey and looking forward to shower and a rest. However, we found that our room has not ready, which was very annoy, although the manager was extremely apologetic. While we were waiting, we asked about the excursions to places of an interest which we had read about in brochure. Imagine how we felt when we were told they had all cancelled! Apparently, the person responsible for organise them had left suddenly and had not been replaced. Then Sally saw a notice pinning to the door of the restaurant, saying it has closed for redecoration, and Peter discovered that the swimming pool was empty. When we eventually got to our room we were horrified find that it was at the back of the hotel, and we had a view of a car park, which seemed to be used as a rubbish dump. We seriously began to wonder whether or not to stay. Your answers: 1…………...……… --> . ………………........

2. ………………… -->. ……....……………

3. ……..…………..... --> . ………….…........

4. . ……………….. -->. ……………...…....

5. ……………..…..

--> . . ………….…........

6.………...……… --> . ………………........

7. ……………..….… -->. …….....……………

8. ……..………….. --> . ……….….…........

9. . ……………...….. -->. …………….....…....

10. ……………..…. --> . . ………….…........

V. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition or particle (1 p). 1. Dishonesty is foreign ……………. his nature. 2.Yuri Gagarin lifted …………… into space aboard the Vostok 1 at 9.07 a.m. Moscow time …………… 12th April, 1961. 3. She was free to indulge …………… leisure activity like reading. 4. Is it OK if I write …………… pencil? 5. If we leave ………… the station ……… once, we arrive ………… ten minutes ………… hand. 6. Her bright red hair made her stand …..……from the others. Your answers: 1 ………..……

2…………...… - …………..…

3. ………..……

5………….….. -…………..… - ………..…… -………..……

4.………..……

6.. ...................

VI. Insert the, a(n) or X (no article) where necessary (1 p). I had long since prepared my mixture; I purchased at once, from (1)………… firm of wholesale chemists, (2)……….. large quantity of (3)……….. particular salt, which I knew, from my experiments, to be (4)...………. last ingredients required, and late one night, I mixed (5)………….. elements, watched them boil and smoke together in (6)…………. glass, and when (7)………….. liquid had cooled, with (8)………… strong glow of (9)……….. courage, drank off (10)………… potion. Your answers: 1 ………..……

2…………...…

3…………..…

4 ………..……

5………..……

6………….…..

7…………..…

8 ………..……

9………..……

10. ...................

PART III: READING (6 points) I: Read the passage and use ONLY ONE suitable word to fill in each gap (2 p). In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting for news. Two of fishing-boats had been caught in the storm which had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the harbor Page 3/7

people stood by their doors (1)______ worried to talk. The rest of the fishing fleet had (2)______ the harbor before dark, and the men from these ships waited and watched with the wives and families of the missing men. Some had (3)______ thick blankets and some flasks of hot drinks, knowing that the men (4)______ be cold and tired. When dawn began to break over in the east, a small point of light was (5) ______ in the darkness of the water and a few minutes later, (6) ______ was a shout. (7) ________ long, the two boats were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbor. The men (8)______ helped out of their boats, and (9) ___ they were stiff (10)______ cold and tiredness, they were all safe. Your answers: 1………..

2………….

3…………

4…………

5……………

6………..

7………….

8…………

9…………

10…………..

II: Read the passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each sentence by circling A, B, C or D (1.5p) While many nineteenth–century reformers hoped to bring about reform through education or by eliminating specific social evils, some thinkers wanted to start over and remark society by founding ideal, cooperative communities. The United States seemed to them a spacious and unencumbered country where models of a perfect society could succeed. These communitarian thinkers hoped their success would lead to imitation, until communities free of crime, poverty, and other social ills would cover the land. A number of religious groups, notably the Shakers, practiced communal living, but the main impetus to found model communities came from nonreligious, rationalistic thinkers. Among the communitarian philosophers, three of the most influential were Robert Owen, Charles Fourier, and John Humphrey Noyes. Owen, famous for his humanitarian policies as owner of several thriving textile mills in Scotland, believed that faulty environment was to blame for human problems and that these problems could be eliminated in a rationally planned society. In 1825, he put his principles into practice at New Harmony, Indiana. The community failed economically after a few years but not before achieving a number of social successes. Fourier, a commercial employee in France, never visited the United States. However, his theories of cooperative living influenced many American through the writings of Albert Brisbane, whose Social Destiny of Man explained Fourierism and its self-sufficient associations or “phalanxes”. One or more of these phalanxes was organized in very Northern state. The most famous were Red Bank, New Jersey, and Brook Farm, Massachusetts. An early member of the latter was the author Nathaniel Hawthorne. Noyes founded the most enduring and probably the oddest of the utopian communities, the Oneida Community of upstate New York. Needless to say, none of these experiments had any lasting effects on the patterns of American society. 1. The main topic of the passage is…….. A. nineteen-century schools. B. American reformers C. the philosophy of Fourierism D. model communities in the nineteenth. 2. Which of the following is not given in the passage as one of the general goals of communitarian philosophers? A. To remake society B. To spread their ideas throughout the United State C. To establish ideal communities D. To create opportunities through education. 3. The Shakers are mentioned in paragraph 1 as an example of……. A. a communal religious group B. radical reformers C. rationalistic thinkers D. an influential group of writers. 4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word impetus in paragraph 1? A. Stimulus B. commitment C. Drawback D. Foundation. 5. The “phalanxes” described in paragraph 2 were an idea originally conceived by…. A. Albert Brisbane B. Robert Owen C. Charles Fourier D. John Humphrey Noyes Page 4/7

6. Why does the author mention Nathaniel Hawthorne in paragraph two? A. He founded Brook Farm in Massachusetts. B. He was a critic of Charles Fourier. C. He wrote a book that led to the establishment of model communities. D. He was at one time a member of the Brook Farm community. 7. Which of the following communities lasted longest? A. New Harmony B. The Oneida Community C. Red Bank D. Brook Farm 8. The word oddest in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to which of the following? A. Earliest B. Most independent C. Largest D. Most unusual 9. The author implies that, for readers, the conclusion of the paragraph is.......... A. obvious B. surprising C. absurd D. practical 10. Why did the author probably divide the passage into two paragraphs? A. To compare nineteenth-century reforms with twentieth-century reforms. B. To present an overview of a concept in the first paragraph and specific examples in the second. C. To contrast the work of utopian thinkers with that of practical reforms. D. To give the causes for a phenomenon in the first paragraph and its consequences in the second III: Read the text and decide which word best fits each blank by circling the letter A, B, C or D (1.5p). United Parcel Service (UPS) believes that its employees should give the firm a fair day’s work for a fair’s day pay. The package delivery firm seems willing to give more than a fair’s day pay. But in (1) ____, UPS expects maximum output from its employees. Since 1920s, the firm’s industrial engineers have been studying every detail of every task (2) ____ by most UPS employees. From their studies have come time and motion standards that (3) ____ how those tasks are performed and how long they should take. Drivers, for example, are expected to walk to a customer’s door at a speed of exactly three feet per second. They are told to knock as soon as they get there, rather than (4) ____ time looking for a doorbell. Work engineers are (5) ____ riding with drivers, timing everything from stops at traffic lights, to wait at customers’ doorway, to stairway climbs, to coffee break. And they are not (6) ____ to pointing out the occasional inefficiency. Additionally, supervisors ride with the least good drivers, noting how they work and constantly (7) ____ them until their work is up to standard. The (8) ____of all this work engineering is efficiency, and UPS has been called one of the most efficient companies anywhere. It's also a highly profitable company. Most drivers take the regimentation in stride: many show (9) ____ in meeting the UPS standards each day. Others, however, feel that they are constantly being pushed, that it is impossible for them to (10) ____ at work. UPS officials claim that the standards provide accountability. And, they say, employees who work according to UPS standards should feel less tired at the end of the day. 1: A. fact B. exchange C. return D. short 2: A. hold B. performed C. accepted D. under 3: A. indicate B. govern C. demonstrate D. tell 4: A. wasting B. spend C. spending D. waste 5: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically 6: A. impolite B. brave C. intimate D. averse 7: A. scolding B. criticizing C. encouraging D. correcting 8: A. task B. reason C. object D. target 9: A. pride B. passion C. interest D. pleasure 10: A. rest B. relieve C. relax D. restrain IV. Read through the following text and then choose the best phrase given below, to fill each of the gaps. Write one letter (A-I) in each of the numbered gaps. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all. (0) has been done for you (1p). Every teacher knows that not all students are good examinees. Some are too tense, become overanxious or too stressed and then perform below expectations just when it matters most. Teachers try to help by compensating, believing that if they boost a student’s academic Page 5/7

knowledge they will cure his fear of exams. So, last year, (0) ____I____, I completely rewrote the Business Studies Revision Course at this secondary school. The central idea of the course is to treat the examination as an event, a challenge, a performance, much like a sports match, a drama production, or perhaps a major music concert, (1) ________ and very definitely on the public stage. The idea is to show that the exam is not a test, but an opportunity to show how good the candidate is. The objective is to improve students’ final performance (2) ________, control and ability to cope. The theme of ‘total preparation for performance’ teaches them that (3) ________ are obviously important, they are only two of the five skills required, the others being coping strategies, mental skills and management skills. These additions give a new dimension (4) ________, increasing enjoyment and motivation. They widen a student’s focus and help to convince some of the less confident students that there are many ways in which they can actively contribute towards their (5) ________. A C E G I

those not mattering so much B self-confidence and self-esteem by increasing self-confidence D relying on my expertise alone to a student’s revision F but a real desire while knowledge and examination techniques H but bigger and more important drawing on my teaching experience and sports psychology skills

PART FIVE: WRITING (6 points) I. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one (2p) 1. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness. --> Urgent ............................................................................................................... 2. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease. --> Enormous .......................................................................................................... 3. Just thinking about his face at the moment makes me laugh. --> The very………………………………………………....……………...…….... 4. The teachers agreed to introduce the new methods. --> There was an ........................................................................................................ 5. The boy does whatever his father wants in an obedient way. --> The boy dances ................................................................................................ 6. I simply fail to understand some of my colleague’s attitudes to work. -->I have some colleagues ........................................................................................ 7. I did not realize how much he was influenced by his brother. -->I did not realize the extent .................................................................................. 8. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the environmental problems. -->Mass tourism is .................................................................................................... 9. It was six months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. -->I cancelled ............................................................................................................. 10. These books are on loan from the British Council library. -->These books have ..................................................................................................... II: Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets (2p) 1. I can’t find the answer without a calculator. (out) ...................................................................................................................................................... Page 6/7

2. My friend took no notice of my advice. (deaf ) ..................................................................................................................................................... 3. These two makes of computer are practically the same. (hardly) ...................................................................................................................................................... 4. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us. (taken) ...................................................................................................................................................... 5. Everyone who spoke to the victim is a suspect. (under) ...................................................................................................................................................... 6. There’s nothing new about crimes of passion (hills) ...................................................................................................................................................... 7. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast. (annual) ...................................................................................................................................................... 8. From the educational point of view his childhood years had been well spent. (terms) ...................................................................................................................................................... 9. Make yourself at home. (ceremony) ...................................................................................................................................................... 10. She will probably be elected. (stands) ...................................................................................................................................................... III: Make all the changes and additions necessary to produce, from the cues given below, a complete letter (2p) Dear Rob and Randy, 1. all these weeks/ hospital/ I just/ receive two pieces/ good news. ...................................................................................................................................................... 2. The doctor/ say/I / can / home / few days. ...................................................................................................................................................... 3. My wife tell/ me / how you two/ been clearing/ snow / from our driveway and sidewalk. ...................................................................................................................................................... 4. Have/ such/ good neighbours/ make / very happy. ...................................................................................................................................................... 5. My wife/ tell/ you/ refuse / take / money /for your efforts. ...................................................................................................................................................... 6. But I/ think/ I find / way round that. ...................................................................................................................................................... 7. Please accept / enclosed check. ...................................................................................................................................................... 8. I/ would/ never think/ as payment/ the snow shoveling. ...................................................................................................................................................... 9. but as a sincere token/ appreciation/ your thoughtfulness. ...................................................................................................................................................... 10. Thank/ again / see/ soon. ...................................................................................................................................................... Best regards, Page 7/7

- THE END -

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHON HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HOC: 2012 – 2013 – MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12 - THPT Total marks: 20 PART I: PHONETICS (1 point) I: Find a word in each line whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p) 1B 2A 3C 4B 5D II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p) 1A 2C 3B 4D 5A PART II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7 points) I: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the correct word or phrase. (2 p) 1D 2B 3C 4B 5A 6A 7B 8C 9D 10A 11A 12C 13C 14A 15D 16B 17C 18C 19A 20C II. Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form (1p) 1. to produce 2. Having rented 3. stood 4. did not have 6. was hailed 7. to bring 8. is 9. conferred III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (1 p) 1. acknowledge 2. expectancy 3. mid-sentence 6. absentees 7. impassable 8. spotlessly

4. photogenic 9. conscientious

5. written 10. was granted

5. deforestation 10. Unaccompanied

IV. The passage below contains 11 mistakes. (0) has been done for you as an example. IDENTIFY and CORRECT the other ten. (1 p) [0.1 p for each both identified and corrected mistake] 1. all complete--> completely 1. shower a shower 2. has was 4. an interest interest 5. in brochure the brochure 7. organise organising 8. pinning pinned 10. horrified find horrified to find

3. annoy annoying 6. cancelled been cancelled 9. has closed was closed

V. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition or particle (1 p). 1. to 2. off - on 3. in 4. in 5. for - at - with - in

6. out

VI. Insert the, a(n) or X (no article) where necessary (1 p). 1. a 2. a 3. a 4. the 5. the 6. the/a

9. 0

7. the

8. a

10. the

PART III: READING (6 points) I: Read the passage and use ONLY ONE suitable word to fill in each gap (2 p). 1. too 2. reached/entered 3. brought/got 4. would 5. seen/ visible 6. there 7. Before 8. were 9. although/ though 10. with/ from II: Read the passage carefully and then choose the best answer to each sentence by circling A, B, C or D (1.5p) 1.D 2C 3A 4A 5C 6D 7B 8D 9A 10B III: Read the following text and decide which word best fits each blank by circling the letter A, B, C or D (1.5 p). Page 8/7

1C 2B

3B

4D

5B

6D

7D

8C

9A

10C

IV. Read through the following text and then choose the best phrase given below, to fill each of the gaps. Write one letter (A-I) in each of the numbered gaps. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all. (0) has been done for you (1p). 0. I

1. H

2. C

3. G

4. E

5. B

PART FIVE: WRITING (6 points) I: Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one (2p) 1. Urgent action must be taken to solve the problem of homelessness. 2. Enormous efforts have been made by scientists to find a cure for this disease. 3. The very thought of his face at the moment makes me laugh. 4. There was an agreement among the teachers to introduce the new methods. 5. The boy dances attendance on/upon his father. 6. I have some colleagues whose attitudes to work I simply fail to understand. 7. I did not realize the extent to which he was influenced by his brother. 8. Mass tourism is partly responsible/ to blame for the environmental problems. 9. I cancelled my subscription/subscribing to that newspaper six months ago. 10. These books have been lent by the British Council library. II: Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the word in brackets (2p) 1. I can’t work out the answer without calculator. 2. My friend turned a deaf ear to my advice. 3. There is/are hardly any difference(s) between these two makes of computer. 4. We were not taken in by his smooth manner. 5. Everyone who spoke to the victim is under suspicion.

6. Crimes of passion are as old as the hills 7. The annual rainfall in/for the northeast of Britain is higher than that in/for the southeast. 8. In terms of education, his childhood years had been well spent. 9. Don’t stand on ceremony 10. She stands a (good) chance of being elected. III: Make all the changes and additions necessary to produce, from the cues given below, a complete letter (2p) Dear Rob and Randy, 1. After all these weeks in (the) hospital I (have) just received two pieces of good news. 2. The doctor said/says that I could/can go home in a few days. 3. My wife told me how you two have been clearing the snow from our driveway and sidewalk 4. Having such good neighbours like you makes me very happy. 5. My wife told me you refused to take any money for your efforts. 6. But I think I've found a way round that. 7. Please accept this/ the/my/our enclosed check. 8. I would never think it as payment for the snow shovelling 9. but as a sincere token of our appreciation for your thoughtfulness. 10. Thanks again/Thank you again and see you soon. Best regards,

Page 9/7

Së GD&§T Qu¶ng Ninh

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2010-2011

§Ò thi chÝnh thøc

(Đề thi có 12 trang) Họ, tên và chữ ký của hai giám thị

M«n: TiÕng Anh Thêi gian lµm bµi: 180 phót, kh«ng kÓ thêi gian giao ®Ò SBD:

1:

2:

Ngµy thi: 15/11/2010 Hä, tªn thÝ sinh: Ngµy sinh: N¬i sinh: Häc sinh trường:

Sè ph¸ch:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Sè ph¸ch: §iÓm bµi thi: B»ng sè: ……..…. (B»ng ch÷: ………..…........………… ) Họ, tên và chữ ký của hai giám khảo: 1: ………………………

2: ………....…….……….

Ghi chó: ThÝ sinh tr¶ lêi ngay vµo bài thi nµy. NÕu viÕt sai ph¶i g¹ch bá råi viÕt l¹i. I. LISTENING (3,0 points) Activity 1: Listen to the director of the college talking about the school then answer the questions by circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right answer and complete the statements below. Use no more than THREE WORDS for each space. 1. The college’s firm aim is to be a __________________________ institution. 2. The college judges people on their __________________________ and commitment to study as much as __________________________. 3. Which statement about the students that the director has mentioned? A. Some students are seeking specific skills. B. Some are learning about the latest scientific knowledge. C. Some are seeking to develop their artistic abilities. D. Some are stretching their bodies. 4. How many teachers and staff are there at the college? A. 500 B. 800 C. 1,000 D. 1,500 5. Which word best describes the director’s speech? A. Informative B. Depressing C. Inspiring D. Amusing 6. Is it a congratulation speech? ............................................................ Indicate whether the following statements are accurate or not by writing "A" for the accurate statement; write "I" for inaccurate one and write "N" for no information. ____ 7. You may find a suitable course at the polytechnic college. ____ 8. The college specializes in a narrow range of subject areas. ____ 9. The college has a homogeneous student body. ____ 10. The college has the longest history of any school.

1

Activity 2: You are going to hear four people asking for or giving information about flying. Listen and write "T" next to the sentence bellow if it is true and write "F" if it is false. ____ 1. The first speaker wants to spend a week in Canada. ____ 2. The charter flight to Toronto costs £450. ____ 3. The second speaker is extremely worried about possible delays. ____ 4. Her flight leaves Corfu at 3.23 on Saturday 25th. ____ 5. The third speaker has only got hand luggage. ____ 6. He'd prefer a no-smoking seat. ____ 7. The fourth speaker plans to travel alone. ____ 8. She is booking only just in time. Activity 3: You are going to hear two friends, Scott and Melissa, discussing fitness centre in their area. Listen and complete the information in the table below. Name 1. Sweatshop

What's available (1) ................................. weights

2. (4) ..................... gym, (5)............................, yoga (8) ........................, sauna 3. (7) .................... (9)....................., aerobics free car park

Price

Where

Phone number

(2)....................

Town centre

(3)..................

£180 a year

Near station

(6)..................

(10).....................

Out of town

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5,0 points)

Activity 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the sentences below. 1. General Custer was confident of victory despite being vastly _______ by the enemy. A. outnumbered B. outclassed C. overcome D. overtaken 2. The ministry refused to ________ the figures to the press. A. release B. leak C. show D. add 3. Steve _______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question. A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away D. threw in 4. Mr. Jones gave his sons some money to _______ them up in business. A. get B. set C. put D. make 5. _______ comes a time when you have to make a decision and stick to it. A. It B. Therefore C. There D. That 6. James had, _______, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house. A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least 7. Mr Nixon refused to answer the questions on the __________ that the manner was confidential. A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations 8. The lawyer insisted that his client _______ never have been arrested in the first place. A. should B. must C. ought D. would 9. As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to _______. A. fall away B. fall back C. fall over D. fall out 2

10. Can you take ______ of the shop while Mr. Bentall is away? A. management B. running C. charge D. operation 11. Jack and Christine wondered how the rumours had begun to _______. A. disseminate B. spread C. run D. develop 12. The forecasters take a glommy ________ of the economic future. A. regard B. aspect C. view D. outlook 13. I wish the neighbours _______ making so much noise. A. would stop B. will stop C. stopping D. stopped 14. Every worker gets an extra month’s salary as an end-of-year _______. A. bonus B. addition C. reward D. donation 15. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the _______ relatives. A. lamenting B. wailing C. complaining D. grieving Activity 2. Write the correct form of each word in capital letters on the right in the numbered spaces provided. (0) has been done as an example. ANCIENT PARK UNDER THREAT Pontefract Heritage Group is so concerned with the level of (0) vandalism at their ancient park that it has written to Council Leader Peter Box asking him to tackle the (1) ________________ worrying problem. In one of the most recent incidents, eight birch, ash and maple trees were sawn down. Pontefract’s bowling’s club is planning to create an (2) _________________ zone by fencing off the greens to prevent further (3) ________________ damage to them. These attacks come hot on the heels of damage inflicted on Pontefract Castle by gangs of youths who have ripped masonry (4) ___________________ from the ruins. Michael Holdsworth, Chairman of the Heritage group, yesterday commented: "(5) __________________ damage has occurred over several years in the gardens and action taken to stop the culprits entering at night has so far been (6) __________________. And it’s not just the bad (7) __________________ of teenagers which is wreaking havoc with the gardens. Adults misuse them too in the daytime by parking on the grass and flower-beds." Earlier this year, English Heritage gave the gardens Grade II status a site of (8) __________________ interest in a national register of parks and gardens. The gardens date back to the thirteenth century, when the land formed part of the monastery gardens of Pontefract’s Dominican Friary. Earning a place in the register means that the local council is required to make (9) ____________________ for the protection of the gardens. (10) _____________________, this means that more instrument is now needed to tackle the problems facing the gardens and provide much-needed facilities.

0. VANDAL 1. INCREASE 2. EXCLUDE 3. EXTEND 4. DISCRIMINATE 5. NOTICE 6. EFFECT 7. BEHAVE

8. HISTORY

9. PROVIDE 10. UNDERSTAND

Activity 3. In the following passage, there are 15 mistakes left. Read the passage carefully then underline them and correct all the words in the spaces. Line 2 is an example. 3

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Lies, damned lies and awkward statistics temper the mood of the week as we listen the lastest snapshot of the country with the publication of Social Trends 22. For as their statistics chronicle when are probably the most rapid social changes in British history, we are surrounded by forces which will say black is white, if necessary, in order to deny the evidence through the figures. Basically what the survey tells them is this: marriage is in steep decline, divorce the highest outside Europe, marriage declining further still. Single persons living alone now account of more than a quarter of all households, lone-parent households are on the rise, and although the majority of parents stay still married, an astonishing 28 % of babies are now born without wedlock. Put all these in and you may be shaken, if not stirred. But then consider the more extraodinary figure of all. The percentage of households now living Kelloggs Comflakes style, with a married husband and stay-at-home-with-the-kids wife, is actually just a fraction over seven percent, but around 1,4m of our 19,5m households. In 1979, when the first statistics became available, the figure stood at nearly 12%, and since to there has been a persistent downward trend. It means, in other words, the dear little nuclear reactor, which was born of-and for-the industrial revolution, had gone. It did not even last 200 years. RIP.

Your answers: Line 1. 2. Example: listen – see 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Line 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

Activity 4. Fill in each of the sentences below with one phrasal verb by combining the verb “GO” or “TAKE” with one preposition in the box. Pay attention to the form of the verb in each sentence. Write your answers in the spaces provided. down

apart

in

down

off

off

up

ahead

for

away

1. I had to wait for permission from the town Council before I could ………………..….. with my plans. 2. The alarm ……………….…. when the burglars tried to open the door. 3. He really ……………………. her when she dared to criticize him. 4. The price of tomatoes usually …………….…..….. in summer in England. 5. I’m not very fit, so I’ve decided .……………………. an active hobby such as squash or jogging. 6. Why have you …………..…….….. all the pictures in the sitting room? Because I’m going to decorate it. 4

7. The new pizza restaurant is a great success. It’s really ……………………... . 8. This skirt is very loose. I think I’ll have to ………….. it …………. at the waist. 9. I ………..…. the camera ………….….. from my eye and gazed unbelievingly. 10. Most of these machines have to be …………………….. to be cleaned. III. READING (6,0 points) Activity 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the passage below. Julie always thought of herself as an easy going and (1) ….…. person, who put up with people’s differences. She hardly ever became (2) ….…. about anything, and believed that if you treated people well, they would (3) …….. with you. That is, until Alex and Harry moved in next door. At first, when their music woke her in the night, she was just a bit (4) …….., but didn’t feel (5) …….. . She shrugged her (6) …….. and said to herself, “Never mind, I make a lot of noise sometimes. I’ll go round and (7) …….. in a way as nice as possible.” When she knocked at Alex and Harry’s door she said, “I’m not very (8) …….. on very loud music, to be (9) …….. . Do you think you could turn it down a bit?” They just (10) …….., and then Alex said, “You can think whatever you like, as far as we’re (11) ……..” then they shut the door in Julie’s face. By the end of the week, Julie felt angry, but was determined not to (12) …….. her temper. She had hardly slept, and kept (13) …….. all the time, but she kept busy. The next time she called next door, she gave Harry and Alex a present. “It’s just a cake I made for you. Please (14) …….. my apologies for the last time.” And that day the noise stopped. “What a (15) ……..”, thought Julie. “Now there’s some please and quiet and I can read my favourite book” “The history of poison”. 1. A. dull B. glad C. quarrelsome D. tolerant 2. A. upset B. helpful C. fascinating D. careless 3. A. scream B. like C. co-operate D. mind 4. A. furious B. irritated C. annoying D. thrilled 5. A. realistic B. guilty C. conscience D. offended 6. A. shoulders B. arms C. hands D. head 7. A. cry B. quarrel C. complain D. fall out 8. A. interested B. like C. happy D. keen 9. A. loud B. honest C. upset D. nervous 10. A. whispered B. cried C. waved D. grinned 11. A. concerned B. determined C. decided D. embarrassed 12. A. have B. lose C. shout D. break 13. A. blushing B. snoring C. yawning D. growling 14. A. accept B. take C. attempt D. invite 15. A. believe B. naughty C. shame D. relief Activity 2. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. For over two hundred years, scholars have shown an interest in the way children learn to speak and understand _______________ (1) first language. Several small-scale studies were ________________ (2) out, especially towards the end of the nineteenth century, using data recorded in parental diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin _________________ (3) the middle decades of the twentieth century, when the tape recorder ________________(4) into routine use. This made ________________ (5) possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts ________________(6) listen repeatedly to obscure sounds _________________ (7) thus produce a detailed and accurate description. 5

The problems _________________ (8) have to be solved when investigating child speech are quite different from _________________ (9) encountered when working with adults. It is not possible to carry out some kinds of experiments, because aspects of children's cognitive development, _______________ (10) as their ability to _________________ (11) attention or to remember instructions, may not be very advanced. Nor is it easy to get children to _________________ (12) systematic judgements about language - a _______________ (13) that is virtually impossible below the age of three. Moreover, ________________ (14) who has tried to make a tape recording of a representative sample of a child's speech knows _________________ (15) frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed to _________________ (16) off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on. Activity 3. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write the name of the country next to each question. THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITY A. Denmark. “Although foreigners living in Denmark often complain of nine months of winter and 12 months of high taxation, a survey of 124 nations conducted by Pennsylvania University ranks the country first in the world for quality of life. This has come as something of a surprise to most of Denmark's five million inhabitants who see their country's liberal image threatened by rising economic problems, racial tension caused by the arrival of Middle Eastern refugees and social unrest. But recent EEC polls also show the Danes as the most happy of all people in the Community, even if they do not wish to become too closely involved in it.” B. France. France, it would appear, is a nation that lives and dies for its automobile. "France has the most deadly roads in Europe. 11,000 are killed every year, and nearly 200,000 injured. It also has the rudest and most aggressive drivers. One third of drivers admitted that they sometimes shouted insults at other drivers. The worst offenders were drivers in the professional and senior white-collar classes and drivers aged from 18 to 34. Another major hazard on French roads are traffic jams, and they are getting worse. Three-quarters of French families own at least one car, and one in four owns two or more cars. Returning to Paris after a weekend in the country has become a nightmare with regular traffic jams of more than 30 kilometres." C. Italy. Italy is pictured as a place where public money always ends up in private pockets. “At a hospital in Sicily the windows are broken, the beds have no sheets and the patients ragged and barefoot. Yet according to the hospital's accounts, the patients gobble kilos of Parmesan cheese and consume litres of olive oil every day. Meanwhile Italy's railways have added up huge expenses on luxury travel and hotel suites for hundreds of employees to attend a transport exhibition in Vancouver. The delegation included wives, girlfriends, secretaries and executives who never set foot in Canada but went directly to Florida or the Bahamas.” D. Spain. In Spain, “...the preferred form of exercise is `Iberian yoga'. It involves stretching your stomach muscles to the maximum round a four-course meal and a bottle of wine. The exercise is difficult without wine as the sportsman is afterwards required to lie flat on his back and empty his mind of all useful thought. It takes about two hours to perform this, and at the end, a Spaniard may or may not feel the urge to return to his job that afternoon. The most beneficial effect of the yoga is that once rested, the Spaniard is strong enough to stay out until two in the morning, eating fried squid and gossiping with his friends.” 6

E. Germany. The Germans are presented not just as nationalists, but as a bunch of nationalist beer-drinkers. “We are not going to drink that imported stuff. The beer has got to be pure. I have been a regular in this pub for 35 years and I don't know a single person who would drink it. It's all chemicals. The beer-drinkers of West Germany are agreed. The European Court can force them to let that nasty foreign beer into their country, but it cannot make them drink it. Beer makes up a quarter of the average German man's diet. Therefore the additives used in other countries could endanger his health. At least, so runs the argument put forward by the Bavarian brewers.” Of which country is it said that people...............? 1. shout insults at each other 2. go to bed late 3. are contented 4. confuse public and private money 5. have a liquid diet 6. complain about the weather 7. take a long time getting home at the weekend 8. don't want additives 9. have a high quality of life 10. like to rest in the afternoon 11. rob the government Activity 4. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answers. The United States Constitution established a political system comprising a national and federal government. The new federal system accommodated the thirteen original state governments while establishing new bodies and powers designed to address national concerns. The national government created by the union of states stood above the state governments in specific national matters while acknowledging the role of the states or sharing power with them in other areas. State officials were required to take an oath to support the Constitution and the laws and treaties made under it as the supreme law. The constitution, a veritable work of genius, greatly enhanced the power of central government but carefully divided its functions into three distinct branchesexecutive, legislative, and judicial. The principle of separation of powers was applied throughout the document. Carefully measured checks and balances were inserted to prevent the acquisition or concentration of power in any one branch and also for the purpose of protecting minority nights from the potential rule of the majority. In their powers to amend the constitution and to elect the president and members of the Senate, the states also gained a role in applying checks and balances. 1. In line 6, the word “them” refers to A. national matters C. state officials B. the states D. national and federal government 2. According to the passage, state officials were required to take an oath to A. recognize the Constitution as a work of genius B. share power with the federal government C. support the Constitution D. protect minority rights 3. The word “amend” in line 14 could best be replaced by A. change B. balance C. enhance D. construct 4. The author of the passage is probably an expert in A. social science B. minority issues C. public housing D. political science 7

5. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage? A. to discuss one of the principal elements of the Constitution B. to mention the roles of state officials in government C. to persuade the state legislators to support the Constitution D. to summarize the role of the Senate. Activity 5. Read the following passage and answer the questions. TEACHING IN UNIVERSITIES In the 19 century, an American academic, Newman, characterized a university as: “a place of teaching universal knowledge.... (a place for) the diffusion and extension of knowledge rather than its advertisement.” Newman argued that if universities were not for teaching but rather for scientific discovery, then they would not need students. Interestingly, during this century, while still teaching thousands of students each year, the resources of most universities have been steadily channeled away from teaching into research activities. Most recently, however, there have been strong moves in both North America and the United Kingdom to develop initiatives that would enhance the profile of the teaching institutions of higher education. In the near future, therefore, as well as the intrinsic rewards gained from working with students and the sense that they are contributing to their overall growth development, there should soon be extrinsic rewards in the form of job promotion, for those pursuing academic excellence in teaching in universities. In the future, there will be more focus in universities on the quality of their graduates and their progression rates. Current degree courses, whose assessment strategies require students to learn by rote and reiterate the course material, and which do not require the student to interact with the material, or construct a personal meaning about it or even to understand the discipline, are resulting in poor learning outcomes. This traditional teaching approach doesn’t take into account modern theories of education, the individual needs of the learner, nor his or her prior learning experience. In order for universities to raise both the quality and status of teaching, it is first necessary to have some kind of understanding of what constitutes good practice. A 1995 report, complied in Australia, lists, eight qualities that researches agree are essential to good teaching. Good teachers .... A. are themselves good learners - resulting in teaching that is dynamic, reflective and constantly evolving as they learn more and more about teaching; B. display enthusiasm for their subject and the desire to share it with their students; C. recognize the importance of context and adjust their teaching accordingly; D. encourage deep learning approaches and are concerned with developing their students’ critical thinking skills, problem-solving skills and problem-approach behaviors; E. demonstrate an ability to transform and extend knowledge, rather than merely transmit it; F. recognize individual differences in their students and take advantage of these; G. set clear goals, use valid assessment techniques and provide high-quality feedback to their students; H. show respect for, and interest in, their students and sustain high expectations of them. th

8

In addition to aiming to engage students in the learning process, there is also a need to address the changing needs of the market place. Because in many academic disciplines the body of relevant knowledge is growing at an exponential rate, it is no longer possible, or even desirable, for an individual to have a complete knowledge base. Rather, it is preferable that he or she should have an understanding of the concepts and the principles of the subject, have the ability to apply this understanding to new situations and have the wherewithal to seek out the information that is needed. As the world continues to increase in complexity, university graduates will need to be equipped to cope with rapid changes in technology and to enter careers that may not yet be envisaged, with change of profession being commonplace. To produce graduates equipped for this workforce. It is essential that educators teach in ways that encourage learners to engage in deep learning which may be built upon in the late years of their course, and also be transferred to the workplace. The new role of the university teacher, then, is one that focuses on the students’ learning rather than the instructor's teaching. The syllabus is more likely to move from being a set of learning materials made up of lecture notes, to a set of learning materials made of print, cassettes, disks and computer programs. Class contact hours will cease to be the major determinant of an academic workload. The teacher will then be released from being the sole source of information transmission and will become instead more a learning manager, able to pay more attention to the development and delivery of education rather than content. Student-centered learning activities will also require innovative assessment strategies. Traditional assessment and reporting has aimed to produce a single mark or grade for each student. The mark is indented to indicate three things: the extent to which the learned material was mastered or understood; the level at which certain skills were performed and the degree to which certain attitudes were displayed. A deep learning approach would test a student's ability to identify and tackle new and unfamiliar: real world problems. A major assessment goal will be to increase the size and complexity of assignments and minimize what can be achieved by memorizing or reproducing content. Wherever possible, students will be involved in the assessment process to assist them to learn how to make judgments about themselves and their work. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? Write "T" next to the the statement if it agrees with the information; write "F" if it disagrees and write "N" if there is no information. _____ 1. Newman believed that the primary focus of universities was teaching. _____ 2. Job promotion is already used to reward outstanding teaching. _____ 3. Traditional approaches to assessment at degree level are having a negative effect on the learning process. _____4. University students have complained about bad teaching and poor results. Look at the eight qualities of “good teachers” in the passage. Write the letter A-H from the passage next to the quality statement with the same meaning. Good teachers _____ 5. can adapt their materials to different learning situations. _____ 6. assist students to understand the aims of the course. _____ 7. are interested in the developing the students as learners. _____ 8. treat their students with dignity and concern. _____ 9. continually improve their teaching by motoring their skills. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the best answer. 10. In the future, university courses will focus more on 9

A. developing students’ skills and concepts. B. expanding students’ knowledge. C. providing work experience for students. D. graduating large numbers of students. 11. According to the authors, university courses should prepare students to A. do a specific well. B. enter traditional professions. C. change jobs easily. D. create their own jobs. 12. The author believes that new learning materials in universities will result in A. more work for teachers. B. a new role for teachers. C. more expensive courses. D. more choices for students. 13. The author predicts that university assessment techniques will include more A. in-class group assignments. B. theoretical exams. C. problem-solving activities. D. student seminar presentations. IV. WRITING (6,0 points) Activity 1. Use the word in the brackets to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one. Don't change the form of the given words. 1. David went to see the bank manager about getting a loan. (view) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

2. She realized she had said something wrong. (conscious) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

3. I wish I know what to do about this problem. (solution) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

4. The storm resulted in the deaths of over 50 people. (caused) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

5. The station is within easy walking distance of the hotel. (easily) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

Activity 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the one printed before it. 1. I won't agree until Tom's apologised. Only when .................................................................................................................................................................................................. 2. The residents get very angry when bicycles are left in the hallway. The residents all wish bicycles ............................................................................................................................................... 3. “John shouldn't have behaved so badly”, said Janet. Janet objected ......................................................................................................................................................................................... 4. Anna failed to understand how serious her illness was until she spoke to the doctor. Not until ...................................................................................................................................................................................................... ...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................

5. They set off to climb the mountain in spite of the fog. Although ............................................................................................................................................................................... 10

Activity 3. Look at the chart below and write about the number of tourists and revenue from tourism in Viet Nam from 1991 to 2005 (about 150 words). 18

35 16

16

30.3

30

14

9.6

10

17 15

14

5.5

6

10

3.5

8

4

0

20

8.5

8

2

25

11.2

12

1.5

1.4

1.7

1.5

2.1

5

0.3 0.8 1991

10

0 1995

1997

1998

2000

2005

Domestic tourists (in million) International tourists (in million) Revenue from tourism (in thousand billion VND)

............................................................................................................................................................................................................................ ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

11

Activity 4. The world is facing a dramatic increase in the number of natural disasters. This is a challenge for all nations around the world. Describe some of the causes and consequences of natural disasters and suggest possible solutions. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant ideas from your own knowledge or experience. You should write at least 250 words. ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... 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......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

----------------- the end ----------------12

Së GD&§T Qu¶ng Ninh

--------------------§Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG CẤP TỈNH líp 12 THPT n¨m häc 2010 - 2011 ----------------------M«n: TiÕng Anh

I- Listening (3,0 điểm) Activity 1: (1,2 điểm). Câu 2 và câu 3 mỗi câu đúng 0,2 điểm. Mỗi câu còn lại 0,1 điểm. 1. student-centered/ centred 2. motivation/ formal qualification 3. A, B 4. C 5. A 6. No 7. A 8. I 9. I 10. N Activity 2: (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm. 1. T 2. F 3. F 4. F 5. F 6. T 7. F 8. T Activity 3: (1,0 điểm). Mỗi chỗ trống điền đúng 0,1 điểm. 1. (1) gym (2) £15 a month (3) 772438 2. (4) Body Matters (5) pool (6) 413992 (8) tennis courts, 3. (7) Fitness First (9) pool (10) £250 a year II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5,0 điểm) Activity 1. 1,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. D Activity 2. 1,0 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. increasingly 2. exclusive 3. extensive 4. indiscriminately 5. noticeable 6. ineffective 7. behaviour/behavor 8. historic/ historical 9. provision 10. Understandably Activity 3. 1,5 ®iÓm. Mçi từ ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. Line Line 1. 11. in – together 2. 12. more – most 3. when – what 13. married – working 4. which – who 14. but - or 5. through – of 15. 6. them – us 16. 7. outside – in 17. to – then 8. of more – for more; 18. reactor – family 9. stay – are 19. had - has 10. without – outside Activity 4. 1,0 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. go ahead 2. went off 3. went for 4. goes down 5. to take up 6. taken down 7. taken off 8. take .… in 9. took …. away 10. taken apart III. READING (6,0 ®iÓm) Activity 1. 1,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 13

Activity 2. 1,6 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. their/ the 2. carried 3. until 4. came 5. it 6. could 7. and 8. that 9. those 10. such 11. pay 12. make/express 13. task 14. anyone 15. how 16. switch/turn Activity 3. 1,1 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. B. France 2. D. Spain 3. A. Denmark 4. C. Italy 5. E. Germany 6. A. Denmark 7. B. France 8. E. Germany 9. A. Denmark 10. D. Spain 11. C. Italy Activity 4. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A Activity 5. 1,3 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. N 5. C 6. G 7. D 8. H 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. C IV. WRITING (6,0 ®iÓm) Activity 1. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. David went to see the manager with a view to getting a loan. 2. She was conscious of having said something wrong. 3. I wish I had the solution to this problem. 4. The deaths of over fifty people were caused by the storm/ The storm caused the deaths of over fifty people. 5. You can walk to the station easily from the hotel. Activity 2. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. Only when Tom’s apologized will I agree. 2. The residents all wish bicycles were not left in the hallway. 3. Janet objected to John’s bad behaviour/ to John behaving so badly. 4. Not until Ann spoke to the doctor did she understand how serious her illness was. 5. Although it was foggy, they (still) set off to climb the mountain. Activity 3. 2,0 ®iÓm. Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần: + Mở bài (nêu được biểu đồ nói về sự gia tăng khách du lịch nội địa, khách du lịch quốc tế và doanh thu từ du lịch ở Việt Nam từ năm 1991 đến năm 2005) – 0,25 điểm; + Thân bài (so sánh sự gia tăng khách du lịch nội địa và khách quốc tế với sự tăng doanh thu từ du lịch qua các năm 1991, 1995, 1997, 1998, 2000 và 2005) – 1,5 điểm; + Kết luận (tóm tắt nội dung chính của bài và dự đoán sự tăng doanh thu từ du lịch trong các năm tiếp theo) – 0,25 điểm. Nếu thí sinh viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn (khoảng 150 từ) mới cho điểm tối đa. Activity 4. 3,0 điểm. Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần: + Mở bài (nêu khái quát về sự gia tăng các thảm họa thiên nhiên trên thế giới) – 0,5 điểm; + Thân bài (nêu các hậu quả của thảm họa thiên nhiên, phân tích nguyên nhân gây ra thảm họa và gợi ý biện pháp nhằm hạn chế thảm họa thiên nhiên) – 2,0 điểm; + Kết luận (tóm tắt nội dung chính của bài và ý kiến của tác giả về vấn đề này) – 0,5 điểm. Nếu thí sinh viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn (khoảng 250 từ) mới cho điểm tối đa. TỔNG SỐ: 20 ĐIỂM 14

SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU

KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 VÒNG TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012

CHÍNH THỨC (Gồm 16 trang, không kể trang phách)

* Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (BẢNG B) * Ngày thi: 05/11/2011 * Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm Bằng số

Bằng chữ

Chữ ký GK 1

Chữ ký GK 2

Mã phách

ĐỀ (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp trên đề thi) Part A. LISTENING I. Listen to Diane talking to a friend about a trip to London. For each question, circle the best answer (A, B, C). You will hear the conversation twice. (0) is as an example. (1 point) Example: 0. Diane went to London yesterday A. morning. B. afternoon. C. evening. 1. Diane went to London by A. car. B. bus. C. underground. 2. Diane and her friends ate A. Mexican food. B. Chinese food. C. Spanish food. 3. Diane says the restaurant was A. full. B. expensive. C. quiet. 4. After the meal, Diane and her friends A. sat and talked. B. saw a film. C. walked by the water. 5. During Diane's trip to London, A. it rained. B. it snowed. C. it was windy. II. You will hear a woman being interviewed for a job. For questions 1 – 10, fill in the relevant information on the application form. You will hear twice. (2 points) PANDORA INTERNATIONAL GENERAL APPLICATION FORM APPLYING FOR POST OF: Head of advertising Name: (1) Irene …….………………………… Address:

(2) ………… Redwood Avenue Kingston

Tel no:

(3) ………………………………………

Page 1

Bảng B

Qualifications Graduated from:

(4) ………………………………………

Diploma in:

(5) ………………………………………

Current position:

(6) ………………………………………

Job description:

(7) ……………………………………… and (8) ………………………………………

Reason for leaving:

(9) limited ………………………………………

Reason for applying to Pandora International: (10) gaining ………………….. in an international market. PART B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each unfinished sentence. (1 point) 1. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a …………….. smile. A. childhood B. childish C. childless D. childlike 2. You’d better leave for the airport now ………….. there’s a lot of traffic on the way. A. in fact B. in time C. in order D. in case 3. I would like to thank you, …………… my colleagues, for the welcome you have given us. A. on account of B. on behalf of C. because of D. instead of 4. The poor child was in floods of …………………because his bicycle had been stolen. A. weeping B. tears C. crying D. unhappiness 5. The soldier was punished for ……………. to obey his commanding officer’s orders. A. refusing B. regretting C. objecting D. resisting 6. She ………… her husband’s job for his ill health. A. accused B. blamed C. caused D. claimed 7. It’s time we ………….. this old car and bought a new one. A. will B. had sold C. have sold D. sold 8. The project was rejected because of ………….. funds. A. unavailable B. inconsiderable C. incomplete D. insufficient 9. Please leave this space ………… on the enrolment form. A. absent B. blank C. missing D. undone 10. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ……….. of you. A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. insensible D. unconscious 11. Phone me before ten; ……………. I’ll be too busy to talk to you. A. unless B. whether C. otherwise D. if 12. According to the ………… of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they intend to leave. A. laws B. rules C. terms D. details 13. The injured man was taken to hospital and ………… for internal injuries. A. cured B. healed C. operated D. treated 14. The door hinges had all been oiled to stop them …………… A. squeaking B. screeching C. shrieking D. squealing 15. Mary attempted to …………… herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra work.

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A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend 16. You are under no obligation ………… to accept this offer. A. indeed B. eventually C. apart D. whatsoever 17. Wasn’t it you yourself ……….. the door open? A. to be left B. were left C. who left D. that should leave 18. If only motorists …………. drive more carefully! A. must B. shall C. would D. will 19. It is regretted that there can be no …………… to this rule. A. exclusion B. alternative C. exception D. deviation 20. Complete the form as …………… in the notes below. A. insisted B. specified C. implied D. devised II. In the passage below some lines are correct but some have a word that should not be there. Indicate the correct lines with a tick (√). For the incorrect lines, write the words that should not be there. (1 point) 1 .................. Many species of animals, birds and even that insects are in danger 2 ………….. of disappearing from the earth off. Every day construction in 3 ………….. the rainforests destroys the habitats of these creatures. They 4 ………….. cannot survive in other environments. They rely on about the food 5 ………….. and shelter being in their own habitats. Each time a habitat is 6 ………….. destroyed, the animals must have search for a new place. Luckily, 7 ………….. there are some people who they are doing something about this 8 ………….. situation. Animal protection societies are helping for the world 9 ………….. to learn more than about endangered species. When people know 10 ………… more, they can fight to protect and save the animals. III. Choose the right tenses to complete the following passage. (1 point) That afternoon we all got ready (1.go) ………….. to the pictures. We got a 63 bus to take us to the Elephant and Castle, because the pictures (2.be) ………….. just next door. There was a great big queue (3.wait) ………….. to go in and we were at the very back. Soon we (4. get) ………….. in. The picture (5. already start) ………….. and it was very dark in there. We had to go down some stairs (6.get) ………….. to our seats but instead of walking down them we fell down them. Soon we were in our seats. We (7. sit) ………….. there (8.watch) ………….. the film when something hit me on the head. It was an ice-cream tub. I (9.turn) …………..round to see who it was and a little boy who (10. sit) …………..two rows behind me said, “I am very sorry. I wasn’t meant to hit you. I was meant to hit the boy in front.” IV. Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. (1 point) Interviews are an imperfect method of choosing the best people for jobs, yet human (1) ………….. like to examine each other in this way. One of the many problems of (2) …………..as it is

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Bảng B

commonly practised is that the forms filled in by (3) …………..

APPLY

often fail to show people as they really are. This means that you can follow all the best (4) ………….. when completing your form and

ADVISE

still find that you are (5) ………….. at the next stage - the interview.

SUCCESS

(6) ………….., in the rare cases where interviewers are automatic, a

SIMILAR

candidate with an (7) …………..form may do surprisingly well.

ADEQUATE

Of course, your forms need to show that you have (8) …………..

CONFIDENT

in your (9) ………….. to do the job, but don’t try to turn yourself

ABLE

into someone else – a person you have to pretend to be at the interview. Realism and (10) ………….. are definitely the best HONEST approach. V. Choose the correct prepositional phrase from the box to complete the following sentences. You may not use one phrase. (1 point)

jealous of afraid of capable of

by heart in captivity

for a change similar to

content with in charge

in common good at

1. Gold is …………………….. brass in color. 2. I must speak to someone responsible. Who’s …………………….. here? 3. She is very …………………………. swimming. 4. Jane’s new friend is a Scorpio, and he likes cats, so they have a lot ……………………... 5. He was ………………………….. his brother’s success. 6. Zoos were very popular, but now many people think it’s wrong to keep animals …………………………….. 7. As there’s no cream, so we have to be ………………………… milk. 8. I’m tired of staying at home on Sundays. Let’s go out …………………………….. 9. I’m very ………………………….. snakes. I can’t go near them. 10. At school we used to have to learn bits of Shakespeare ……………………………. VI. Insert a, an or the if necessary. If there is no article, put ∅. (1 point) In (1) ……………… summer of 1907, I was living in (2) ………………little cottage in (3) ……………… country, at (4) ……………… small distance from (5) ……………… sea. Half (6) ……………… mile from my cottage there was (7) ……………… school, The Grables, where Harold Stackhurst, (8) ………………headmaster, and several other teachers taught students and prepared them for various professions. Stackhurst and I went on friendly terms and he was (9) ……………… only man in ……………… (10) neighbourhood who sometimes called at my cottage.

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PART C. READING I. Read the following passage. Circle the best answers (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage. (1 point) Smoking causes lung cancer, heart disease, and breathing problems. Worldwide, about three million people die every year because of smoking - that's about one .......(1)........ every ten seconds ! In fact, smoking is the .........(2)........ of almost 20 percent of all deaths in the developed countries of the world. Smoking doesn't just ........(3)…….... the smoker, it hurts other people, too. When a pregnant ....(4)...... smokes, she is hurting her developing……...(5)......... When a man .........(6)......... at home, his wife and children are also breathing in smoke and can become sick. Even though most people understand the ........(7)........... effects of smoking, they continue to smoke. The …......(8)........of women and teenagers who smoke is increasing. Cigarette companies make advertisements that……....(9)..........these groups of people so that they…....(10)…...to buy cigarettes. 1. A. death B. end C. loss D. decrease 2. A. origin B. reason C. cause D. basis 3. A. injure B. danger C. destroy D. hurt 4. A. child B. man C. woman D. wife 5. A. baby B. children C. love D. youth 6. A. relax B. enjoy C. cigarettes D. smokes 7. A. beneficial B. harmful C. harmed D. profitable 8. A. number B. amount C. quantity D. total 9. A. interest B. concern C. matter D. worry 10. A. retain B. maintain C. continue D. preserve II. Read the passage below. Then circle the best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each question. (1 point) Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology at college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imaginary and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printing sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poisoned the food supply of animals, killed birds and fish, and contaminated human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. 1.The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer 2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University ? A. oceanography B. history C. literature D. zoology 3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 35 4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind A. was outdated.

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Bảng B

B. became more popular than her other books. C. was praised by critics. D. sold many copies. 5. Which of the following was Not mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us ? A. printed matter B. talks with experts C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists 6. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us ? A. highly technical B. poetic C. fascinating D. well-researched 7.The word “reckless” is closest in meaning to A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible 8. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food. B. a discussion of the hazards insects posing to the food supply. C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides. D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry. 9. The word “flawed” is closest in meaning to A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive 10. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’ s Science Advisory Committee ? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. III. Read the text below carefully and then do the exercise below. (1 point) Lotte and Wytze Hellinga A. As a student at the University of Amsterdam after the second World War, Lotte found herself stimulated first by the teaching of Herman de la Fontain Verwey and then by that of the forceful personality of Wytze Hellinga, at that time Professor of Dutch Philology at the University. Wytze Hellinga’s teaching was grounded in the idea of situating what he taught in its context. Obliged to teach Gothic, for example, he tried to convey a sense of the language rooted in its own time and environment. B. Study of the book was becoming increasingly important at the University of Amsterdam at this period, as the work of de la Fontain Verwey and Gerrit Willem Ovink testifies. Wytze Hellinga’s interests, formerly largely in a socio-linguistic direction, were now learning more towards texts and to the book as the medium that carried written texts. C. Much of the Wytze’s teaching followed his own research interests, as he developed his ideas around the sense that texts should properly be understood in the context of their method of production and dissemination. He was at this time increasingly turning to codicology and to the classic Anglo- Saxon model of bibliography in the realization that the plan to produce a proper critical edition of the works of Pieter Corneliszoon Hooft, the seventeenth-century poet, dramatist and historian, depended on the application of the skills of analytical bibliography. D. Encouraged by his work, Lotte produced an undergraduate thesis on the printer’s copy of the Oria of Constantijn Huygens (the Hague, 1625). This work, incidentally, has never been published, although an article was regularly announced as forthcoming in Quaerendo during the early 1970s.

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E. On graduation in 1958, events took a turn that was to prove fateful. Lotte was awarded a postgraduate fellowship by the Nederlandse Organisatie voor Zuiver – Wetenschappelijk Onderzoek (or Z.W.O) to go to England to study the fifteenth- century printing, and Marie Kronenberg, the doyenne of Dutch bibliographers, arranged for her to be “taught in incunabulizing” (as she put it) by Victor Scholderer at the British Museum. F. As an honorary Assistant Keeper at the Museum, then, she came to England in 1959, assisting among other things with the preparation of BMC volume IX (concerning the production of Holland and Belgium) while studying the texts of the Gouda printer Gerard Leeu to see if the sources (and hopefully printer’s copy) for his editions could be identified. Although the subject proved difficult to define immediately so as to lead in a productive direction, most of this work was nonetheless to find its way into print in such collaborative publications as the Hellingas’ Fifteenth century printing types, the edition of the Bradshaw correspondence and the 1973 Brussels catalogue, to each of which we shall return. But during her time at the Museum, Lotte’s attention was also attracted by such things as English provenances on early-printed continental books, an interest which has stayed with her throughout her career. Questions 1 – 5: This reading passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number (1-6) next to the paragraph. One of the headings has been done for you. List of Headings 1. Lotte to go to England 2. Wytze’s interest in texts and books 3. Lotte unpublished 4. Lotte’s first influences at university 5. Lotte’s work in England 6. The development of Wytze’s research Your answer: Paragraph A ___4____ Paragraph D_________

Paragraph B _________ Paragraph E _________

Paragraph C _________ Paragraph F _________

Question 6- 10: Read the passage again and then decide whether the following statements agree with the information in the Reading or not. Write: Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage. No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage No Information if there is no information about the statement in the passage. Example: When Hellinga was obliged to teach Gothic, he tried to convey a sense of the language rooted in its own time and environment. Answer: Yes 6. Lotte studied at the University of Amsterdam after the Second World War. 7. Prior to his interests in the book, Wytze’s interest was mainly in socio-linguistic. 8. According to Wyzte Hellinga, the production and dissemination of books were not really matters of importance. 9. When Lotte moved to England, she found it difficult to settle in initially. 10. Lotte’s undergraduate thesis on the printer’s copy of the Oria of Constantijn Huygens was widely disseminated.

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Bảng B

Your answer: 6. ________ 7. ________

8. ________

9. ________

10. ________

IV. You are going to read an article about the galaxy. Ten sentences or phrases have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences or phrases A- J the one which fits each gap (1-10). (1 point) ………………………… (1) …………………………. A galaxy is a giant family of many millions of stars, and it is held together by its own gravitational field. ………………………… (2) …………………………. There are three main types of galaxy: ………………… (3) ………………. The Milky Way is a spiral galaxy: ………………………… (4) …………………………. About one-quarter of all galaxies have this shape. Spiral galaxies are well supplied with the interstellar gas in which new stars form; as the rotating spiral pattern sweeps around the galaxy it compresses gas and dust, triggering the formation of bright young stars in its arms. ………………………… (5) …………………………. Most of their member stars are very old and since ellipticals are devoid of interstellar gas, no new stars are forming in them. The biggest and brightest galaxies in the universe are ellipticals with masses of about 1013 times that of the Sun; these giants may frequently be sources of strong radio emission, ……………(6) ……………. About two-thirds of all galaxies are elliptical. Irregular galaxies comprise about one-tenth of all galaxies and they come in many subclasses. Measurement in space is quite different from measurement on Earth. Some terrestrial distances can be expressed as intervals of time: ………………………… (7) …………………………, for example. By comparison with these familiar yardsticks, the distances to the galaxies are incomprehensibly large, ………………… (8) …………………, in this case the distance that light travels in one year. On such a scale the nearest giant spiral galaxy……………………(9) ………………, is two million light years away. The most distant luminous objects seen by telescopes are probably ten thousand million light years away. ………………………… (10) …………………………. The light from the nearby Virgo galaxy set out when reptiles still dominated the animal world. A. the time to fly from one continent to another or the time it takes to drive to work B. a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging from its central nucleus. C. in which case they are called radio galaxies D. Most of the material universe is organized into galaxies of stars, together with gas and dust E. A galaxy is a giant family of many millions of stars F. spiral, elliptical, and irregular G. but they too are made more manageable by using a time calibration. H. the Andromeda galaxy. I. Their light was already halfway here before the Earth even formed J. The elliptical galaxies have a symmetrical elliptical or spheroidal shape with no obvious structure Your answer: 1. _____

2._____

3._____

4._____

5._____

6. _____

7._____

8._____

9._____

10._____

Part D. WRITING I. Rewrite the following sentences, keeping their meaning unchanged, beginning with the words given. (1 point)

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Bảng B

1. Everyone thinks I picked all the flowers in the garden. I am thought ………………………………………………………………. 2. I tried to persuade her. I didn’t succeed, however. Although ………………………………………………………………. 3. We decided to move to the countryside. We made a ………………………………………………………………. 4. The oceans are so vast that they can cope with the present levels of pollution. They are such ………………………………………………………………. 5. Does car exhaust fumes always pollute the air? Is ……………………………………………………………….? 6. The Colombian coffee cost less than the Kenyan coffee. The Colombian coffee was not ……………………………………………… 7. Let’s put our old newspapers and bottles in recycling bins. Why ……………………………………………………………….? 8. He said that he was sorry he hadn’t told me before. He apologized ………………………………………………………………. 9. Yesterday she got up too late to catch the bus. Yesterday she got up so …………………………………………………… 10. Because of her determination to overcome difficulties, she climbed to the top of her profession. Because she was ……………………………………………………………… II. The chart below gives information about global sales of games software, CDs and DVD or video. Write a report describing the information. You should write at least 150 words. (2 points) 40 35 30 25

Games software DVD/Video CDs

20 15 10 5 0 2000

2001

2002

2003

....................................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................................

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Bảng B

....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... III. Some people think that family is the most important influence on young adults. Other people think that friends are the most important influence on young adults. Which view do you agree with? Use examples to support your opinion. You should write at least 250 words. (3 points) ....................................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................................

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Bảng B

....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... ....................................................................................................................................................... --- HẾT ---

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SỞ GDĐT BẠC LIÊU CHÍNH THỨC (Gồm 02 trang)

KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 VÒNG TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012 * Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (BẢNG B) * Ngày thi: 05/11/2011 * Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Part A. LISTENING I. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.2p 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C II. 2.0ps. Each correct answer gets 0.2p 1. White 2. 62 3. 427681 4. Leeds University 5. advertising 6. advertising executive (at Priceline Supermarkets) 7. (responsibility for) advertising campaigns 8. (dealing with) the press / public relations 9. career prospects 10. experience Part B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR I. 2.0ps. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. D 11. C 2. D 12. C 3. B 13. D 4. B 14. A 5. A 15. C 6. B 16. D 7. D 17. C 8. D 18. C 9. B 19. C 10. B 20. B II. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. that 6. have 2. off 7. they 3. √ 8. for 4. about 9. than 5. being 10. √ III. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. to go 2. are 3. waiting 4. got 5. had already started 6. to get 7. were sitting 8. watching 9. turned 10. was sitting IV. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. beings 2. selection 3. applicants 4. advice 5. unsuccessful 6. Similarly 7. inadequate 8. confidence 9. ability 10. honesty V. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. similar to 2. in charge 3. good at 4. in common 5. jealous of 6. in captivity 7.content with 8. for a change 9. afraid of 10. by heart

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Bảng B

VI. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. the 2. a 3. the 4. a 5. the 6. a 7. a 8. the 9. the 10. the PART C. READING I. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1.A 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.A 10.C II. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1.D 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.A 10.B III. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p Paragraph B ____2_____ Paragraph C ____6_____ Paragraph D_____3____ Paragraph E ____1_____ Paragraph F ____5_____ 6. Yes 7. Yes 8. No 9. Not given 10. No IV. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. E (A galaxy is a giant family of many millions of stars). 2. D (Most of the material universe is organized into galaxies of stars, together with gas and dust). 3. F (spiral, elliptical, and irregular). 4. B (a flattish disc of stars with two spiral arms emerging from its central nucleus). 5. J (The elliptical galaxies have a symmetrical elliptical or spheroidal shape with no obvious structure) 6. C (in which case they are called radio galaxies) 7. A (the time to fly from one continent to another or the time it takes to drive to work) 8. G (but they too are made more manageable by using a time calibration). 9. H (the Andromeda galaxy). 10. I (Their light was already halfway here before the Earth even formed) PART D. WRITING I. 1.0p. Each correct answer gets 0.1p 1. I am thought to have picked all the flowers in the garden. 2. Although I tried to persuade her, I didn’t succeed. 3. We made a decision to move to the countryside. 4. They are such vast oceans that they can cope with the present levels of pollution. 5. Is the air always polluted by car exhaust fumes? 6. The Colombian coffee was not as expensive as the Kenyan coffee. 7. Why don’t we put our old newspapers and bottles in recycling bins? 8. He apologized for not telling me before. He apologized for not having told me before. 9. Yesterday she got up so late that she missed the bus. Yesterday she got up so late that she couldn’t catch the bus. 10. Because she was determined to overcome difficulties, she climbed to the top of her profession. II. (2 points) + III. (3 points) The mark given to parts 2 and 3 is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Organization and Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted uppersecondary school students. 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. ---Hết---

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Bảng B

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP THÀNH PHỐ THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ NĂM HỌC 2008 – 2009 ___________ KHÓA NGÀY: 06 / 11/2008 ____________________ ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH NGÀY THI THỨ NHẤT: 06/11/2008 Thời gian làm bài:180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề ĐIỂM

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 1

Họ tên và chữ ký giám khảo 2

Mã phách

A. LISTENING (3m) I. Listen to the conversations between the guests and the receptionist then choose the correct answer by circling A or B, C, D. You will hear the conversations twice. Number 1. The man wants her to ……………. A. tell him the way to the station. B. order a taxi for him C. tell the taxi to take him to the station D. take him to the station Number 2. The woman wants her to find out …………….. A. Mr Smith’s telephone number B. Mr Smith’s address C. what number Mr Smith lives at D. Mr Smith’s room number Number 3. The man wants ……………. A. a double room for one night B. two single rooms for one night C. two single rooms for three nights D. three rooms for three nights Number 4. The man wants ……………….. A. a table for two for tonight B. a table for two for tomorrow night C. two tables for two for tonight D. two tables for two for tomorrow night Number 5. The woman wants her to ……………. A. give her a registration form B. fill in her registration form C. borrow a pen from her D. give her a pen II . Listen to the conversations and fill in the numbered blanks of these messages. You will hear the conversations twice. 1. 2

Royal Hotel

Royal Hotel

To: Mr Sato - room (1) ________ From: (2) ____________________ Message: He’s arriving at (3) _____

To: Reception From: Al Saba Message: His flight is (4) _________ He’s arriving at (5) ______________

1

3

4

Royal Hotel

Royal Hotel

To: Reception From: Room (6) ______________ Message: Something wrong with (7) _________________________

To: Reception From: Room (8) ________________ Message: Room’s dirty (9) ____________ hasn’t been made (10)____________are full.

B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7m) I. Choose the best option to complete the sentences by circling A or B, C, D. 1. Science still _____________ a cure for cancer. A. doesn’t find B. haven’t found C. hasn’t found D. aren’t finding 2. Until the 16th century the earth ____________ to be flat. A.is believed B. has been believed C. believed D. was believed 3. My teacher advised me to ____________ the problem. A. look ahead B. look into C. look out of D. look down 4. Our teacher said: “It’s time you ____________ the lesson review.” A. began B. begin C. should begin D. are begining 5. It looks ___________ you’ve made a mistake. A. as B. as though C. if D. perhaps 6. You __________ include this part in your composition. It’s not necessary. A. must B. couldn’t C. don’t need D. don’t have to 7. __________way you do it, the answer is always the same. A. However B. Whichever C. Who ever D. why ever 8. She came to live here __________ a month ago. A. beyond B. quite C. already D. almost 9. The journey took so long that by the time we got there all the seats _________ A. have sold B. had sold C. had been sold D. have been sold 10. Could you wait for a few moments until the manager _________back? A. will get B. gets C. will be getting D. is getting 11. _________ you should do now is to take a long holiday. A. That B. How C. What D. As 12. They congratulated _________ passing my driving test. A. me B. for C. me for D. me on 13. I think you’d better __________ to work for a few days. A. not come B. come not C. not to come D. not coming 14. My friends gave me a surprise party, __________ was good of them. A. that B. this C. which D. what 15. It’s a long time___________ I last saw you. A. since B. for C. when D. while 16. The trouble with you is that you’re _________complaining. A. forever B. often C. still D. each time 2

17.Whatever happens, I _______ you here in a week’s time. A. will meet B. meet C. am going to meet 18. I supported you at the time because I ________ that you were right. A. have felt B. was feeling C. felt 19. He has been visiting some distant ___________ in the country. A. relatives B. parents C. family 20. We were just having a friendly __________ about football. A. report B. whisper C. gossip II. Fill in the passage with suitable prepositions.

D. am meeting D. had been felt D. relationships D. chat

“Before I came here,” one child said, “I thought swimming was running through an open fire hydrant.” “Here” is a summer camp that’s only an hour (1) ………… New York City – but a world away. This camp and four others nearby are run (2) …………. the Fresh Air Fund (3) ………….. 1877, the fund has helped poor children (4) .............. New York City spend summers (5) ……………the country. Each year, over ten thousands children, age 6 (6) ……………...18, participate (7) …………the program. Some stay (8)…………… a camp; others live (9)…………….a host family.The fund pays (10) ………….. all expenses. III. Fill in the passage with ONE suitable word in each blank. How do people live in Mali, West Africa, (1)…………………. the temperature is often 122oF? John Baxter, a journalist in Mali,(2) …………………. ,“People get up very early and they don’t move very much in the afternoon. Surprisingly, they (3) …………………a lot of clothes (usually cotton) as (4)…………………helps them not to get (5)………………... Houses are very hot and don’t have airconditioning – the best place to sleep is on the roof!” C. READING I. Read the passage and choose the correct word(s) to fill in the blanks. 1. A. thief B. chief C. chef 2. A. hardly B. hard C. always 3. A. hasn’t matter B. isn’t matter C. doesn’t matter 4. A. save time B. a waste of time C. saving time 5. A. prefer B. would like C. would love 6. A. knowledge B. able C. abilities 7. A. and B. so C. but 8. A. cooker B. cook C. cooking

D. chefs D. seriously D. can’t matter D. waste time D. wanted D. skill D. that D. cookery

Cooking in the US is now a spectator sport. We love watching famous (1) …………….cook on TV, and we buy their books. But we use them? Many young Americans can’t even boil an egg and many never or (2)……………….ever cook. One teenager said:“ I can’t cook – but it (3) ……………... You just go to the supermarket and buy a pizza and put it in the microwave.Cooking is (4) ……………...”. A lot of adults think the same, and don’t cook. They buy precooked meals from the supermarket or get take-out food. And if parents hate cooking, they dont’t teach their children to cook. Many schools don’t teach cooking – they (5) ………………to teach computer skills and foreign languages. I think all this is very sad. For me, cooking is a very important (6) …………….. Everybody loves having a delicious meal, (7) ………………restaurants are expensive. People who can cook well always have a lot of friends. Men love women who can cook – and women love men who can 3

cook.Who would you prefer as a husband or wife? Somebody who can use a competer or a good (8) …………………. II. Read the passage and write the following questions in the blanks. 1. Do soda and coffee make us dehydrated? 2. Why do we need to drink water? 3. Can we drink too much water? 4. Can we get the water we need from other drinks or food? 5. How much water do we need to drink a day? 6. Do people need less water when the weather’s cold?

Water – facts and myths A. _________________________________________ We all know that our bodies need water. Water cleans our body, controls our temperature, and helps to keep us healthy. About 70% of our body is water. B. __________________________________________ We often read that we need to drink at least eight glasses of water a day ( about two liters). The ideas probably came from bottled water companies! In fact, how much water we need depends on the weather and on what we’re doing. When we are hot, or if we play sports or exercise, we need to drink more. Some experts say that, in normal conditions, we only really need about one liter a day. C. __________________________________________ No. When temperatures are very low we also need to drink more than on a normal day. This is because we wear a lot of clothes, so we sweat a lot and lose water. D. Yes, of course. We get water from food, especially fruit and vegetables (an apple is 85% water, an onion is 87%). We can also get water from other drinks like fruit juice, coffee, and soda, which contain a lot of water. E. ___________________________________________ No. In experiments in the US some people drank only water and other people drank water, soda, and coffee. Their levels of hydration were more or less the same. F. ___________________________________________ Yes. It can be dangerous to drink a lot of water. Recently a British actor nearly died after drinking eight liters of water a day for several months. Read the passage again and find the words to match with these phrases : 1. how hot or cold it is : ………………………………… 2. scientists do this : ………………………………… 3. things people believe which are not true: ………………. 4. not long time ago : …………………………………. 5. have in it : …………………………………. 6. when water comes out of your body when you are hot : …………………… D. WRITING (6m) I. Rewrite these sentences with the words given without changing the meaning. 1. “I wouldn’t cook the fish for too long,Bill, if I were you,” said Mary. - Mary advised …………………………………………………………. 2. “Well, in the end I think I’ll take the brown pair,” said the customer. - The customer finally …………………………………………………… 4

3. The travel agent recommended our staying near the air port. - “You ……………………………………………………………………..” 4. It’s not necessary for you to wear a uniform. - You ………………………………………………………………………. 5. Tom smashed a window and damaged the television too. - Not only ………………………………………………………………….. 6. I wouldn’t wake her up now, if I were you. - You’d …………………………………………………………………….. 7. The police refused to do anything about my noisy neighbours. - The police would ………………………………………………………… 8. Our worrying so much was a waste of time. - We need …………………………………………………………………… 9. Mary was a talented violinist at the age of ten . - Mary could ………………………………………………………………… 10. Please turn off the light before leaving. - You …………………………………………………………………………. II. There are 5 mistakes in this short letter. Underline them and write the correct words in the numbered blanks.

Hi! My name is Tom Darrow, and I’m a college student in Santa Fe, New Mexico. Santa Fe isn’t very big – there are about 65,000 people here – but it’s a please place to live. When movie stars don’t want to live in California anytime , they sometimes move to Santa Fe! I’m taking a class call Comparative Studies, which we learn about life in other countries. This week we have to find out about relax activities so I need some informations about what people in your country do in their free time. Pleease write me back - I really need your help!.

1. ______________ 2. ____________ 3. _____________4. _____________ 5. _____________ III. Composition Write an article to YOUTH MAGAZINE to give your opinion of being young people.(about 180 words)

5

__________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________ ---------- THE END --------Ghi chú: Giám thị coi thi không được giải thích gì thêm. 6

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP THÀNH PHỐ THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ NĂM HỌC 2008 – 2009 ___________ KHÓA NGÀY: 06 / 11/2008 ____________________

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP THÀNH PHỐ MÔN : TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 1) A. LISTENING (3ms) I. Multiple choice ( 0.2 m x 5 ) 1 B

2 A

3 D

4 C

5 D

II. Gap-filling ( 0.2 m x10 ) (1) 433 (2) Smith (3) 7.30 (4) late (5) 10 p.m B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (7ms) I. Multiple choice ( 0.2 m x 20) 1 2 3 4 5

(6) (7) (8) (9) (10)

42 the TV 301 the bed the astrays

6

7

8

9

10

C

D

B

A

B

D

B

A

C

B

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

A

D

A

C

B

A

B

A

D

B

II. Prepositions (0.2 m x 10) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

from by since from in

III. Gap-filling (0.2m x 5) 1. where 2. says 3. wear C. READING (4ms) I. Cloze-text (0.2 m x 8) (1) D (chefs) (2) A (hardly) (3) C (doesn’t matter) (4) B ( a waste of time)

(6) (7) (8) (9) (10)

to in at with for

4. this (5) (6) (7) (8)

A D C B

5. dehydrated (prefer) (skill) (but) (cook)

II. Reading Task 1. Write the quetions A. 2 D. 4 B. 5 E. 1 C. 6 F. 3 Task 2. Find the words to match with these phrases. 1. how hot or cold it is : temperature 2. scientists do this : experiments 3. things people believe which are not true: myths 4. not long time ago : recently 5. have in it : contain 6. when water comes out of your body when you are hot : sweat D. WRITING (6ms) I. Rewriting (0.2 m x 10) 1. Mary advised Bill not to cook the fish for too long. Mary advised that Bill (should) not cook the fish for too long. Mary advised Bill against cooking the fish for too long. 2. The customer finally decided to take the brown pair. made a decision of taking the brown pair. took / chose the brown pair. 3. “ You’d better stay near the air port” said the travel agent. should 4. You don’t have to wear a uniform. need 5. Not only did Tom smash a window but also damaged the televison. but damaged the telvision too. 6. You’d better not wake her up now. 7. The police wouldn’t do anything about my noisy neighbours. 8. We needn’t have worried about that. 9. Mary could play the piano well at the age of ten. 10. You should turn off the light before leaving. II. Correction (0.2m x 5) 1. please pleasant, pleasing 4. which 2. anytime any more / any longer / at anytime 5. relax 3. call called III. Composition (3ms)

where / in which relaxing, leisure

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP THÀNH PHỐ THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ NĂM HỌC 2008 – 2009 ___________ KHÓA NGÀY: 06 / 11/2008 ____________________

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 CẤP THÀNH PHỐ MÔN : TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2) A. LISTENING (3ms) I. Multiple choice ( 0.2m x 5 ) 1 B

2 C

II. Gap-filling ( 0.2 m x 10) 1. biology department (0.4) 2. a new professor of biology (0.4) 3. 3 months ago 4. 75,000 dollars B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (6ms) I. Multiple choice ( 0.2 m x 20) 1 2 3 4 5

3 D

4 A

5 D

5. replacing old equipment (0.4) 6. celebrating 7. dinner

6

7

8

9

10

A

D

B

B

C

D

B

A

C

B

11

12

13

14

15

16

17

18

19

20

D

B

D

A

B

D

C

B

C

B

II. Word-form (0.2 m x 10) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

vegetation lunar imported amazed earlier

C. READING (4ms) I. Reading Task 1. True/ False statements (a) T (b) F (c) F Task 2. Answer the questions ( sts’answers)

(6) driest (7) cloudy (8) observatory (9) journalist (10) incredibly

(d) F (e) T (f) F

II. Cloze- text (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

provides relief aim abroad worldwide

(6) foreigner (7) receive (8) go (9) sensitive (10) better

D. WRITING (6ms) I. Rewriting (0.2 m x 10) 1. I doubt whether Paul knows the answer. 2. Getting to school on time means getting up at 5.30. 3. This is the first time that Cathy has been on holiday with her sister. 4. Mary had no idea of what she was going to do next. 5. I would rather you didn’t bring him to the party. 6. That brings to mind something that happened to me. 7. If you don’t pay the bill, the electricity will be cut off. 8. If children lack affection, it is harmful. 9. I really found that horror film terrifying. 10. I can’t understand the mentality of football hooligans. II. Phrasal verbs (0.2 m x 7) (1) (2) (3) (4)

came to something slipped out come out end up

(5) run off (6) make off (7) pay up

III. Writing a short paragraph describing their choice. (1,2ms) IV. Composition (2,4ms)

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 Khóa ngày: 15/10/2010

Đề chính thức MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

I. Listening ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe khoảng 20 phút gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài làm sau khi nghe hết 2 phần . Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear people talking in five different situations. Choose the best answer A, B or C. 1. You hear a woman talking to someone on the phone. What is the problem? A. The builder left early.

B. The water pipes have burst C. The lights aren't working

2. You hear a man talking to a colleague. What is he trying to explain? A. why he failed to finish a report B. why he was late for the meeting C. why he lost a client. 3. You hear a conversation between a man called Sam and his boss. Why does Sam want to leave early? A. He has to go to the bank

B. He has to collect his children from school C. He has a dental

appointment. 4. You overhear a hotel guest complaining to the manager. What is she complaining about? A. an uncomfortable bed

B. noise in the hotel

C. a lack of heating.

5. You hear a man talking about a job he has been offered. What is he unsure about? A. working far away from his family B. moving to a new area C. having to work very hard.

Part 2: You will hear a schoolgirl interviewing another student as part of a surveyfor the school newspaper. For question 6-15, complete the sentences.

Page 1 of 10

STUDENT OPINION SURVEY 6. The girl is doing a survey to find out how students think the _______________________may be made better. 7. The boy is almost_______________________ years old. 8. He started at this school _____________________ago. 9. He says that he has no ____________________________about his new school. 10. He would prefer more__________________________ related to computing. 11. The boy isn't tall enough to play_______________________. 12. He thinks that the weather in England is unsuitable for_________________________ tennis courts. 13. According to the boy, younger children who misbehave in the library need more______________________. 14. The school's computer centre has _________________________computers. 15. The boys think the _________________________________ are better at this school than at his previous school. II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) PART 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 16. Turn off this radio, please. The harsh sound really _______ me crazy. A. takes

B. worries

C. bothers

D. drives

17. The Martins have confirmed their strong______ to charity by donating a lump sum of money again. A. compliance

B. commitment

C. assignment

D. reliance

18. His ______ of the safety regulations really cannot be ignored any longer. A. disregard

B. unfamiliarity

C. carelessness

D. inattention

19. Mrs. Jones was in deep______ after her husband's unexpected death. A. regret

B. grief

C. lament

D. disturbance

20. She _______ fainted when she saw a cobra at her foot. A. utmost

B. most all

C. all most

D. almost

21. The other party has raised the number of _______ to the reforms in the tax system. A. problems

B. objections

C. difficulties

D. complaints.

22. My older brother is extremely fond of astronomy. He seems to _____ a lot of pleasure from observing the stars. A. derive

B. possess

C. seize

D. reach

23. Several secretaries were brought in ______ the signing of the contract. A. as witness

B. to witness

C. witnessing

Page 2 of 10

D. having witnessed

24. " Don't get so nervous about his coming late. When you get to know him better, you'll learn to take it________." A. easy

B. loose

C. nice

D. fine

25. "Just _______ these proofs for me as I'm in a hurry." A. run into

B. run off

C. run over

D. run out

26. Their eventual choice of the house was _____ by the time Peter would take to get to the office. A. related

B. dependent

C. determined

D. consequent

27. Her business must be going rather well, _____ by the car she drives. A. deducing

B. deciding

C. inferring

D. judging

28. My cousin obviously didn't _____ much of an impression on you if you can't remember meeting her. A. create

B. do

C. make

D. build

29. She was kept awake for most of the night by the _____ of a mosquito in her ear. A. whine

B. moan

C. groan

D. screech

30. If you would like to wait a moment, sir, I will just _____ your file on the computer screen. A. call up

B. pull down

C. bring in

D. pick up

Part 2 . Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space on the same line. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. Example: 0- Competitive THE SPORT OF KINGS The (0) ... racing of horses is one of humankind's most ancient sports. Horse racing was an organised sport in all major (31) ... from Central Asia to the Mediterranean and became an (32) ...... with the public in the Roman Empire. The sport has (33) ........... been associated with royalty and the nobility. It became a (34) ............ sport at the beginning of the eighteenth century. It is the second most (35) .......... attended spectator sport in the US, after baseball. In the UK the Jockey Club, founded in 1750, has complete (36) ... for horse racing. It is also responsible for the (37) ..... regarding the breeding of racehorses. Although science has been (38) ...... to find a breeding system that guarantees the birth of a champion, it is possible to produce horses that are (39) .... on the racetrack. Commercial breeding is a very (40) .... business, and racehorses can be worth millions of pounds.

Page 3 of 10

(0) COMPETE

(31) CIVILISE (32) OBSESS (33) TRADITION (34) PROFESSION (35) WIDE (36) RESPONSIBLE (37) REGULATE (38) ABLE (39) SUCCESS (40) PROFIT

III. READING : (30 points) PART 1 : Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.

Smart shoes Smart shoes that (0) ………their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype of such a shoe has already been produced and a commercial (41) ...may be in production within a few years. The shoe contains sensors that constantly (42).........the amount of (43) ...........left in it. If the foot has become too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe (44)……….slightly. The entire control system is about 5mm square and is (45) ....... .......

inside the shoe. This radical shoe(46)

a need because the volume of the (47) .......foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of

the day. The system is able to learn about the wearer's feet and (48) ..........up a picture of the size of his or her feet throughout the day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to

8% so that they always

fit (49)……..They are obviously more comfortable and less likely to (50)………..blisters. From an athlete's point of view, they can help improve (51) ..........

a little, and that is why the first (52)……..for the

system is likely to be in a sports shoe. Eventually, this system will find a …………(53) in other household items, from beds that automatically change to fit the person sleeping in them, to power tools that ……….(54) themselves to the user's hand for better grip. There is no reason why the system couldn't be adapted for use in hundreds of consumer (55) ........... 0.

A. adjust

B. fit

C. reform

D. move

41.

A.assortment

B.version

C. style

D. variety

42.

A. prove

B. confirm

C. inspect

D. check

43.

A. room

B. gap

C. area

D. emptiness

44.

A. amplifies

B. develops

C. expands

D. increases

45.

A. located

B. sited

C. established

D. laid

46.

A. detects

B. finds

C. meets

D. faces

47.

A. average

B. general

C. usual

D. medium

48.

A. build

B. pick

C. grow

D. set

49.

A. exactly

B. absolutely

C. completely

D. totally

50.

A. provoke

B. form

C. initiate

D. cause

51.

A. achievement

B. performance

C. success

D. winning

52.

A. purpose

B. exercise

C. use

D. operation

53.

A. function

B. part

C. way

D. place

Page 4 of 10

54.

A. shape

B. change

C. respond

D. convert

55.

A. commodities

B. possessions

C. goods

D. objects

PART 2: You are going to read an article about robot shops. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (9-15). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered box

The Robot Shop Like most ideas that seem absolutely revolutionary, the concept behind the robot shop is actually very simple. In fact, it has already been around for many years in the form of vending machines, selling bars of chocolate or drinks. This idea has been further developed to create the first robot shop, which may eventually change the future of shopping. The prototype robot shop in a suburb of London looks like a giant vending machine.

56.

The

display on the right is refrigerated and holds items such as milk, yoghurt and cheese, while the display on the left has an impressive selection of biscuits, coffee cakes and crisps. It does not have the variety of conventional shops, but it can cope with a late night request for bread or painkillers. 57.

You key in the code numbers of the goods you want, which are displayed just underneath each

item in the window, and a huge robot arm reaches out and picks up each item, bringing it over to the console inside the shop. An electronic display shows you the total you have to pay.

58.

Unlike supermarkets, in robot

shops you can only collect the goods after you've paid. When the robot arm i f nds the things you want, it drops them into a hatch and you reach inside to take them out. If this happened before you paid, you could easily walk off with the goods without having paid for them. The system couldn't yet be described as entirely efficient. There's a lot of room for improvement. The robot arm represents one of the biggest problems.

59

The arm has to be very accurate in order to

pick up the item it has reached for, carry it to the hatch and safely drop it into it. The difficulty of judging customer attitudes is another reason why the robot shop has to be tested. Customers are still cautious about doing most of their shopping in a robot shop, but this is only to be 60. Page 5 of 10

expected; every new invention has been regarded with some suspicion at first.

The

manufacturers of robot shops suggest that the small shopkeeper in inner-city areas represents their biggest potential client. 61.

People in the area value the convenience of being able to pop out virtually

all hours of the day and night for some item they have forgotten or suddenly feet like buying. Small shopkeepers are likely to invest in robot shop equipment, rather than employ part-time staff to work twenty-four hours a day. The question is whether customers will prefer the impersonal service of a robot shop to the conventional type of shopping where there's human contact. 62.

Machines do not take lunch breaks, they

hardly ever make mistakes and they are never rude to customers. Isn't this the sort of efficiency people want from a shop these days? A . A central console between the windows is where you actually do your shopping. B. The first thing you notice are the two large display windows which are absolutely packed with goods. C. Older customers in particular may find the experience cold and impersonal, but a younger generation may respond more positively. D. The real question is whether, over the three-month testing period, enough people will overcome their doubts and start shopping here in significant numbers. E. For security reasons, you have to do this before the robot arm starts gathering your goods. F. Many shops like these only survive because they stay open late, or even round the clock in some cases. G. Experience with similar mechanised service equipment, such as cash dispensers, suggest that there are considerable advantages for both customers and shop owners. H. The challenge is to create a piece of machinery which will be delicate enough to pick up eggs but at the same time strong enough to pick up bottles of mineral water and baked bean cans. PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. It is commonly believed that in the United States that school is where people to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark Line is important. (5)

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal leaning that takes place in school sand the whole universe of informal leaning. The agents of education can range form a revered grandparent o the people debating politics on the radio, from a Page 6 of 10

(10) child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that (15) should be an integral part of one's entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that (20) are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high schools students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the (25) formalized process of schooling. 63. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The best schools teach a wide variety of subjects. B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences. C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework. D. The more years students go to school the better their education is. 64. What does the author probably mean by using the expression "Children interrupt their education to go to school" (lines 2-3)? A.Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial. B.School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year. C.Summer school makes the school year too long. D.All of life is an education. 65. The word "bounds" in line 6 is closest in meaning to A.rules

B.experiences

C.limits

D.exceptions

66. The word "chance" in line 11 is closest in meaning to A.unplanned

B.unusual

C.lengthy

D.lively

67. The word "integral" in line 15 is closest in meaning to A.an equitable

B.a profitable

C.a pleasant

D.an essential

C.boundaries

D.seats

68. The word "they" in line 20 refers to A.slices of reality

B.similar textbooks

69. The phrase "For example", line 22, introduces a sentence that gives example of Page 7 of 10

A.similar textbooks

B.the results of schooling

C.the working of a government

D.the boundaries of classroom subject

70. The passage supports which of the following conclusions? A.Without formal education, people would remain ignorant. B.Education systems need to be radically reformed. C.Going to school is only part of how people become educated. D.Education involves many years of professional training.

III/ WRITING : (30 points) PART 1: (10pts) For questions 71-80, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Here is an example: Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? objection Do you have any objections to my watching you while you paint? 71. Our teacher always makes us do our homework before we leave the class. ALLOWS Our teacher ..................................................... leave the class until we've done our homework. 72. It was almost dark when we got home. UNTIL We .................................................................................................... it was almost dark. 73. Peter woke up early because he didn't want to miss his flight. THAT Peter woke up early .................................................................. not miss his flight. 74. Since we've run out of tea, I'd better go and buy some. LEFT There ......................................................................... so I'd better go and buy some. 75. 'You'd better not go for a walk,' said my father. ADVISED My father ........................................................................................... for a walk. 76. The police asked the woman to describe the thief to them in detail. FULL Page 8 of 10

The police asked the woman to give them ……………………………………………................ the thief. 77. I wish I hadn't left the window open. SHOULD I……………………………………………………………………….. the window open. 78. All the guests enjoyed themselves at the party apart from George. WHO George was the ……………………………………………. enjoy himself at the party. 79. The man said that he hadn't been involved in the robbery. DENIED The man ..........................................................................................involved in the robbery. 80. They're identical twins, so they look exactly the same. TELL You can't…………………………………………………………………… they're identical twins. PART 2: Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic:(20 pts) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? It is more important for students to study history and literature than it is for them to study science and mathematics. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………….

--- The End --Page 10 of 10

UBND TP CẦN THƠ SỞ GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO ------------

CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM Độc lập - Tự do - Hạnh phúc --------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN ANH VĂN NGÀY 15 /10/2010 I/ LISTENING: (15 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 15 = 15 points Part 1: 1 C

2 A

3 B

4 C

5 B

Part 2:

6. SCHOOL 7. 15 8. ONE YEAR 9. COMPLAINTS 10. COURSES

11. BASKETBALL 12. GRASS 13. DISCIPLINE 14. 12 15. TEACHERS

II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 25 = 25 points PART 1: 16 D

17 B

18 A

19 B

20 D

21 B

22 A

23 B

24 A

25 C

26 C

27 D

28 C

29 D

30 A

PART 2: 31 civilizations

32 obsession

33 traditionally

34 professional

35 widely

36 responsibility

37 regulations

38 unable

39 successful

40 profitable

III/ READING: (30 pts) 1p for 1 correct answer x 30 = 30 points

Part 1: (15 pts) 41 B

42 D

43 A

44 C

45 A

46 C

Part 2: (6 points) 56 57 B A Part 3: ( 9 points) 63 64 65 B D C

47 A

58 E

66 A

48 A

49 A

50 D

59 H

67 D

68 A

51 B

52 C

53 D

60 D

69 D

54 A

55 C

61 F

70 C

III/ WRITING: ( 30 POINTS) Part 1: Sentence transformation (10 points) 71. Our teacher always makes us do our homework before we leave the class. ALLOWS Our teacher NEVER ALLOWS US TO leave the class until we've done our homework. 72. It was almost dark when we got home. UNTIL We DIDN’T GET HOME UNTIL it was almost dark. 73. Peter woke up early because he didn't want to miss his flight. THAT Peter woke up early SO THAT HE WOULD not miss his flight. 74. Since we've run out of tea, I'd better go and buy some. LEFT There ISN’T ANY TEA/ IS NO TEA LEFT so I'd better go and buy some. 75. 'You'd better not go for a walk,' said my father. ADVISED My father ADVISED ME NOT TO GO for a walk. 76. The police asked the woman to describe the thief to them in detail. FULL The police asked the woman to give them A FULL DESCRIPTION OF the thief. 77. I wish I hadn't left the window open. SHOULD I SHOULD NOT HAVE LEFT the window open.

62 G

78. All the guests enjoyed themselves at the party apart from George. WHO George was the ONLY GUEST WHO DIDN’T enjoy himself at the party. 79. The man said that he hadn't been involved in the robbery. DENIED The man DENIED HAVING BEEN / DENIED THAT HE HAD BEEN involved in the robbery. 80. They're identical twins, so they look exactly the same. TELL You can't TELL THEM APART BECAUSE they're identical twins.

Part 2: Composition (20 points) - Organization (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (1pts) - Discourse (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (7pts) - Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2pts ) - Ideas (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (9pts) (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá - Length ngắn. (1p) TOTAL:

100 / 5 = 20

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ Đề chính thức (Đề thi gồm 10 trang)

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 Khóa ngày: ngày 09 tháng 03 năm 2011 MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

I. Listening ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe khoảng 16 phút gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài làm sau khi nghe hết 2 phần . Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear people talking in five different situations. Choose the best answer A, B or C. 1. You hear a man telling a police officer about a robbery he saw. What was stolen? A. watches

B. silver vases

C. jewellery

2. You hear a doctor examining a patient. What is wrong with the patient? A. a sore throat

B. a swollen eye

C. a bad cut

3. You hear a man talking to a colleague. What does he want her to do for him? A. send a fax

B. attend a meeting

C. make some photocopies

4. You hear a husband and wife talking about their plans for a trip. When are they going to leave? A. Wednesday

B. Friday

C. Saturday

5. You hear two co-workers discussing plans for something. What are they trying to arrange? A. a meeting

B. a parry

C. lunch.

Part 2: You will hear someone giving a lecture to a group of parents about keeping children safe in water. . For question 6-15, complete the sentences. CHILDREN AND WATER SAFETY 6.__________________________may be dangerous for small children. 7._________________________of the Royal Lifesaving Society website can be found on the fact sheet. Page 1 of 10

8. A child can start swimming lessons when it is __________________ old. 9. During swimming lessons, very young children learn to roll onto their_______________. 10. At a private pool, there should be one supervisor for every _______________children. 11. Children must learn not to go close to the ____________________unless an adult is supervising them. 12. There are many more _________________in private swimming pools than public pools. 13. At home, put an alarm on the rear __________________so you hear a noise if your child has gone into the garden. 14. Apart from public and private pools, the _______________________ can also be dangerous for children. 15. At the beach, a

________________________ flying is a sign which means you must not swim.

II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) PART 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 16. The bank won’t lend you the money without ………… that you will pay it back. A. profit B. interest C. charge D. guarantee 17. ………… of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement. A. Instead B. In place C. On behalf D. On account 18. Since the accident he has walked with a ………… A. slope B. limp C. lame D. strain 19. Just keep ………………. On the baby while I cook the supper, will you? A. a look B. a glance C. an eye D. a care 20. He …………. his friend to go camping with him. A. attracted B. suggested C. appealed D. persuaded 21. Don’t invite John to dinner; I can’t stand his bad………… A. mood B. mind C. character D. temper 22. I’m sorry I haven’t got any money – I’ve ………….my wallet at home. A. missed B. left C. let D. forgotten 23. He was unable to …………….. his niece’s wedding as he was ill. A. be present B. visit C. attend D. assist 24. There is always ……….. traffic in the city centre at rush hour. A. strong B. full C. heavy D. many 25. The stolen jewels were ………….a lot of money. A. valued B. cost C. priced D. worth 26. You will have to ………..your holiday if you are too ill to travel. A. call off B. cut down C. back out D. put aside 27. I couldn’t resist having another slice of cake even ……….I was supposed to be losing weight. A. although B. however C. otherwise D. though 28. She …………him of wanting to marry her for her money. A. cursed B. accused C. blamed D. warned 29. She never says a word: she’s as ……….as a mouse. A. quiet B. small C. slight D. noiseless 30. I am sorry I opened your handbag but I …………..it for mine. A. mistook B. confused C. recognized D. imagined

Page 2 of 10

Part 2 . Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space on the same line. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. Example: 0 - TEENAGER

Music and maths When I was a (0) ...

I used to play the flute in my high

TEEN

school orchestra. (31) .........in much of the music that we

FORTUNATELY

played, the sound of the flute was needed only (32) .........

OCCASION

Therefore, I spent a lot of my time during the (33) .........counting

PERFORM

the beats which the conductor indicated with each (34) …….

MOVE

of his baton. Those minutes spent reciting one, two, three, four' under my breath while the rest of the orchestra played seemed (35) ...... to me. But they planted in my young brain the idea

END

that there must be a (36) ...

CONNECT

between music and numbers

and I decided to do a bit of research in the school library. I soon learnt that history is full of (37) ……. to this idea, which

REFER

had been a source of (38) ........... for thinkers ever since the time

FASCINATE

of Pythagoras. Indeed, an early book on music by the Ancient Roman philosopher Boethius is largely filled with diagrams and explanations about the (39) ..... between music and mathematics.

RELATION

For me, out of the (40) ........ of orchestra practice, a new passion was born.

BORE

III. READING : (30 points) PART 1 : Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.

Page 3 of 10

Sudoku Are you a fan of the popular logical puzzle that (0) .......by the name Sudoku? (41)…….. you're not, the chances are you know somebody who is. Once (42) .........known outside Japan, this addictive brain teaser has become a common feature of newspaper puzzle pages all (43)…….. the world. Sudoku's great success (44) …....much to its simplicity. The game (45)….... for neither mathematical ability nor (46) ……..knowledge and there are just a few sentences of straightforward instructions to read before you can play. The only skill required is the ability to (47)……….. the difference between nine different symbols, and these don't ever have to be numbers. Some clever marketing has helped the game. Western newspapers worked (48)……. at promoting the game. Without this, it is unlikely that it would have (49) ……. off and become quite such a runaway success. The game also (50)………. from its Japanese name that made people in many parts of the world (51)…… ...it as a superior kind of puzzle compared (52)……. those you usually find in newspapers and magazines. But the popularity of Sudoku (53)……..a peak in 2006, if the number of (54) ........on one leading website is anything to go by. Newspapers responded by (55) …....up with new kinds of logical puzzles, all with simple rules and Japanese names. But for true Sudoku fans, only the real thing will do. 0

A. goes

B. calls

C. passes

D. titles

41.

A. Apart from

B. Even if

C. In spite of

D. Regardless

42.

A. thinly

B. rarely

C .hardly

D. briefly

43.

A. throughout

B. in

C. over

D. whole

44.

A. results

B. thanks

C. owes

D. lends

45.

A. expects

B. demands

C. requests

D. calls

46.

A .general

B. normal

C. usual

D. ordinary

47.

A. copy

B. match

C. notice

D. recognise

48.

A .tough

B. hard

C. strong

D. heavy

49.

A got

B taken

C. given

D. passed

50.

A .promoted

B. improved

C. benefited

D. increased

51.

A. believe

B. regard

C. think

D. consider

52.

A. to

B. of

C. on

D. in

53.

A. increased

B. took

C. reached

D. went

54.

A. hits

B. clicks

C. strikes

D. shots

55.

A .setting

B. putting

C. making

D. coming

Page 4 of 10

PART 2: You are going to read a text about shopping malls. Choose the most suitable heading from the list A I for each part (1-7) of the text. There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answer in the numbered box A. Good family places

F. A controlled environment

B. A choice of shopping

G. Escaping from the real world

C. They will soon be everywhere

H. Essential services

D. It's all so easy

I. Not just a one-day experience

E. Relaxing from shopping

O. C

59.

Originally an American concept, shopping malls.

It is a fact of life that children hate being dragged

with their combination of entertainment and

round shops, and here surely is another reason for the

shopping, have proven to he irresistible to

increasing popularity of malls. Their designers make

European consumers, who are as eager to spend

sure that children are certainly not forgotten.

their cash in them as their American cousins are.

Adventure rides, water parks, animal exhibits,

With malls now springing up in various parts of

historical displays and live performances by clowns

south-east Asia and in other areas of the world as

are just a sample of the entertainment provided by

well, it is hard to imagine that anything can stop

malls to enable parents to take time out from

them from spreading to all parts of the globe

shopping with their children when the kids have had

before long.

enough. 60.

56.

From the moment shoppers step out of their cars or

Some of the larger malls even have hotels in them.

off the bus that has brought them to the mall, they

Mall fanatics hook in to give themselves enough

are encouraged to feel relaxed. Soft piped music is

time to have the complete mall experience. It is not

everywhere, in some cases even in the car parks.

only the restaurants and bars that are there to make

Security cameras monitor every inch of the mall.

an evening go with a swing, but there are cinema

Many malls employ a small army of security staff to

complexes and even nightclubs too in some malls, all

guarantee their customers' safety. And everything

within easy walking distance of each other.

seems so clean, including the air within the giant buildings which is continuously renewed by tireless

61.

air-conditioning systems. Sonic malls permit

Of course, these synthetic paradises exist for one

smoking but only in specially-designated areas.

basic reason: to part the consumer from his or her Page 5 of 10

hard-earned money, so it's not surprising that all 57.

malls contain banks. Shoppers may need some extra

One of the basic reasons for the popularity of malls

cash for a few items that they had conic to the mall

is the enormous variety of shops that are all to be

with no intention of buying, or they might run out of

found under one vast roof. There are sure to be

small change for the entertainment on offer. For

several major department stores, not to mention

larger purchases, most credit cards are readily

supermarkets, all an air-conditioned stroll away

accepted inside the mall. Some malls have post

from each other. An equally important part of the

offices and even sell postcards featuring the mall.

mall experience is the smaller shops and boutiques

There are first-aid stations as well in many of them

whose inviting displays make window-shopping a

which are clearly marked, just to complete the

pleasure. Go inside, and you can browse through

feeling of being in a completely safe environment

books, listen to CDs, purchase hand-made

where no one can cone to any harm.

ornaments, expensive china, designer clothes, casual 62.

wear. The list goes on and on.

The mall is a wonderful fantasy land for adults and

58.

children. It's somewhere we can go if we want to get Non-stop shopping can he tiring, but there are a lot

away from a miserable, wet winter or the

of other things to do in malls as well. Many people

uncomfortable heat of sonic parts of the world. It

come to cat and drink as much as to shop. Malls

also provides us with a marvellous sense of security

offer a choice of places for people to sit, drink, and

in a world that we have come to think of as more and

chat with their fellow shoppers, such as coffee bars,

more dangerous. Above all, it is a place created for

wine bars and, in the UK, traditional English pubs.

the self-indulgent consumer, to serve his or her every

There is always a good choice of places to eat, too,

need.

from American-style fast food outlets and steak bars to Indonesian or Thai restaurants. PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. Jazz has been called “the art of expression set to music”, and “America’s great contribution to music”. It has functioned as popular art and enjoyed periods of fairly widespread public response, in the “jazz age” of the 1920s, in the “swing era” of the late Line (5)

1930s and in the peak popularity of modern jazz in the late 1950s. The standard legend about Jazz is that it originated around the end of the 19th century in New Orleans and moved up the Mississippi River to Memphis, St. Louis, and finally to Chicago. It welded together the elements of Ragtime, marching band music, and the Blues. However, the influences of what led to those early sounds goes back to tribal African drum beats and European musical structures. Buddy Bolden, a New Orleans barber and cornet player, is Page 6 of 10

(10)

generally considered to have been the first real Jazz musician, around 1891. What made Jazz significantly different from the other earlier forms of music was the use of improvisation. Jazz displayed a break from traditional music where a composer wrote an entire piece of music on paper, leaving the musicians to break their backs playing exactly what was written on the score. In a Jazz piece, however, the song is simply a

(15)

starting point, or sort of skeletal guide for the Jazz musicians to improvise around. Actually, many of the early Jazz musicians were bad sight readers and some couldn’t even read music at all. Generally speaking, these early musicians couldn’t make very much money and were stuck working menial jobs to make a living. The second wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians included such memorable players as Joe Oliver, Kid Ory, and Jelly

(20)

Roll Morton. These men formed small bands and took the music of earlier musicians, improved its complexity, and gained greater success. This music is known as “hot Jazz” due to the enormously fast speeds and rhythmic drive. A young cornet player by the name of Louis Armstrong was discovered by Joe Oliver in New Orleans. He soon grew up to become one of the greatest and most successful

(25)

musicians of all time, and later one of the biggest stars in the world. The impact of Armstrong and other talented early Jazz musicians changed the way we look at music.

63. The Passage answers which of the following questions? A. Why did Ragtime, marching band music, and the Blues lose popularity after about 1900? B. What were the origins of Jazz and how did it differ from other forms of music? C. What has been the greatest contribution of cornet players to music in the twentieth century? D. Which early Jazz musicians most influenced the development of Blues music? 64. Which of the following distinguished Jazz as a new form of musical expression? A. the use of cornets B. “hot Jazz” C. improvisation D. New Orleans 65. The word “skeletal” in line 15 is closest in meaning to A. framework B. musical C. basic

D. essential

66. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. many early Jazz musicians had poor sight B. there is no slow music in Jazz C. many early Jazz musicians had little formal musical training D. the cornet is the most common musical instrument used in Jazz 67. The word “menial” in line 18 is closest in meaning to A. mens B. attractive C. degrading

D. skilled

68. According to the passage, which of the following belonged to the second wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians? A. Louis Armstrong B. Buddy Bolden C. St. Louis D. Joe Oliver

Page 7 of 10

69. All of the following are true EXCEPT A. the late 1930s was called the “swing era” B. “hot Jazz” is rhythmic C. Jazz has been said to be America’s greatest contribution to music D. Joe Oliver is generally considered to be the first real Jazz musician 70. The word “its” in line 21 refers to A. small bands B. earlier music

C. men

D. earlier musicians

III/ WRITING : (30 points) PART 1: (10pts) For questions 71-80, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Here is an example: What type of music do you like best? FAVOURITE What IS YOUR FAVOURITE type of music? 71. Canoeing was the activity which excited Ralph most. FOUND The activity ...............................................................................................was canoeing. 72. People think that the famous actress will arrive in the city this morning. EXPECTED The famous actress..............................................................in the city this morning. 73. Denise said that she'd always intended to invite Phil to the party. MY "It had always ............................................................................invite Phil to the party", said Denise. 74. You can borrow my new bicycle, but you must be careful with it. LONG You can borrow my new bicycle....................................................................careful with it. 75. Melanie regretted choosing such an expensive jacket. WISHED Melanie...........................................................................................a less expensive jacket. 76. Alex offered Cindy a lift on his new motorbike, but she didn't accept. TURNED Cindy..........................................................offer of a lift on his new motorbike.

Page 8 of 10

77. I expected ice-skating to be more difficult than it actually was. NOT Ice-skating.........................................................................as I had expected. 78. This cold weather probably won't last for more than a week. UNLIKELY This cold weather...........................................................................for more than a week. 79. Patty remembered to pack everything except her toothbrush. FORGOT The only thing........................................................................her toothbrush. 80. Sally arrived late at the conference because her flight was delayed. TIME If Sally's................................................................, she wouldn't have arrived late at the conference. PART 2: Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic: (20 pts) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has destroyed communication among friends and family. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………….

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 Khóa ngày: ngày 09 tháng 03 năm 2011

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN ANH VĂN I/ LISTENING: (15 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 15 = 15 points Part 1: 1 C

2 A

3 B

4 C

5 B

Part 2:

6. SWIMMING POOL

11. WATER

7. ADDRESS

12. ACCIDENT

8. 6 MONTHS

13. DOOR

9. BACK

14. SEA/ BEACH

10. 4 (FOUR)

15. RED FLAG

II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 25 = 25 points PART 1: 16 D

17 C

18 B

19 C

20 D

21 D

22 B

23 C

24 C

25 D

26 A

27 D

28 B

29 A

30 A

PART 2: 31 unfortunately

32 occasionally

33 performance

34 movement

35 endless

36 connection

37 references

38 fascination

39 relationship

40 boredom

III/ READING: (30 pts) 1p for 1 correct answer x 30 = 30 points Part 1: (15 pts) 41 B

42 C

43 C

44 C

45 D

46 A

Part 2: (6 points) 56 57 F B Part 3: ( 9 points) 63 64 65 B C A

47 D

58 E

66 C

48 B

49 B

50 C

59 A

67 C

68 D

51 B

52 A

53 C

60 I

69 D

54 A

61 H

70 B

III/ WRITING: ( 30 POINTS) Part 1: Sentence transformation (10 points) 1. Canoeing was the activity which excited Ralph most. FOUND The activity (which) Ralph found most exciting was canoeing. 2. People think that the famous actress will arrive in the city this morning. EXPECTED The famous actress is expected to arrive in the city this morning. 3. Denise said that she'd always intended to invite Phil to the party. MY "It had always been my attention to invite Phil to the party", said Denise. 4. You can borrow my new bicycle, but you must be careful with it. LONG You can borrow my new bicycle as long as you are careful with it. 5. Melanie regretted choosing such an expensive jacket. WISHED Melanie wished she had chosen a less expensive jacket. 6. Alex offered Cindy a lift on his new motorbike, but she didn’t accept TURNED Cindy turned down Alex’s offer of a lift on his new bike.

55 D

62 G

7. I expected ice-skating to be more difficult than it actually was. NOT Ice-skating was not as difficult as I had expected. 8. This cold weather probably won't last for more than a week. UNLIKELY This cold weather is unlikely to last for more than a week. 9. Patty remembered to pack everything except her toothbrush. FORGOT The only thing. Patty forgot to pack was her toothbrush. 10. Sally arrived late at the conference because her flight was delayed. TIME If Sally's flight had been on time, she wouldn't have arrived late at the conference.

Part 2: Composition (20 points) - Organization (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (1pts) - Discourse (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (7pts) - Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2pts ) - Ideas (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (9pts) - Length (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (1p) TOTAL:

100 / 5 = 20

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2010-2011 Khóa ngày: 15/10/2010

Đề chính thức MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

I. Listening ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe khoảng 20 phút gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài làm sau khi nghe hết 2 phần . Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear people talking in five different situations. Choose the best answer A, B or C. 1. You hear a woman talking to someone on the phone. What is the problem? A. The builder left early.

B. The water pipes have burst C. The lights aren't working

2. You hear a man talking to a colleague. What is he trying to explain? A. why he failed to finish a report B. why he was late for the meeting C. why he lost a client. 3. You hear a conversation between a man called Sam and his boss. Why does Sam want to leave early? A. He has to go to the bank

B. He has to collect his children from school C. He has a dental

appointment. 4. You overhear a hotel guest complaining to the manager. What is she complaining about? A. an uncomfortable bed

B. noise in the hotel

C. a lack of heating.

5. You hear a man talking about a job he has been offered. What is he unsure about? A. working far away from his family B. moving to a new area C. having to work very hard.

Part 2: You will hear a schoolgirl interviewing another student as part of a surveyfor the school newspaper. For question 6-15, complete the sentences.

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STUDENT OPINION SURVEY 6. The girl is doing a survey to find out how students think the _______________________may be made better. 7. The boy is almost_______________________ years old. 8. He started at this school _____________________ago. 9. He says that he has no ____________________________about his new school. 10. He would prefer more__________________________ related to computing. 11. The boy isn't tall enough to play_______________________. 12. He thinks that the weather in England is unsuitable for_________________________ tennis courts. 13. According to the boy, younger children who misbehave in the library need more______________________. 14. The school's computer centre has _________________________computers. 15. The boys think the _________________________________ are better at this school than at his previous school. II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) PART 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 16. Turn off this radio, please. The harsh sound really _______ me crazy. A. takes

B. worries

C. bothers

D. drives

17. The Martins have confirmed their strong______ to charity by donating a lump sum of money again. A. compliance

B. commitment

C. assignment

D. reliance

18. His ______ of the safety regulations really cannot be ignored any longer. A. disregard

B. unfamiliarity

C. carelessness

D. inattention

19. Mrs. Jones was in deep______ after her husband's unexpected death. A. regret

B. grief

C. lament

D. disturbance

20. She _______ fainted when she saw a cobra at her foot. A. utmost

B. most all

C. all most

D. almost

21. The other party has raised the number of _______ to the reforms in the tax system. A. problems

B. objections

C. difficulties

D. complaints.

22. My older brother is extremely fond of astronomy. He seems to _____ a lot of pleasure from observing the stars. A. derive

B. possess

C. seize

D. reach

23. Several secretaries were brought in ______ the signing of the contract. A. as witness

B. to witness

C. witnessing

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D. having witnessed

24. " Don't get so nervous about his coming late. When you get to know him better, you'll learn to take it________." A. easy

B. loose

C. nice

D. fine

25. "Just _______ these proofs for me as I'm in a hurry." A. run into

B. run off

C. run over

D. run out

26. Their eventual choice of the house was _____ by the time Peter would take to get to the office. A. related

B. dependent

C. determined

D. consequent

27. Her business must be going rather well, _____ by the car she drives. A. deducing

B. deciding

C. inferring

D. judging

28. My cousin obviously didn't _____ much of an impression on you if you can't remember meeting her. A. create

B. do

C. make

D. build

29. She was kept awake for most of the night by the _____ of a mosquito in her ear. A. whine

B. moan

C. groan

D. screech

30. If you would like to wait a moment, sir, I will just _____ your file on the computer screen. A. call up

B. pull down

C. bring in

D. pick up

Part 2 . Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space on the same line. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. Example: 0- Competitive THE SPORT OF KINGS The (0) ... racing of horses is one of humankind's most ancient sports. Horse racing was an organised sport in all major (31) ... from Central Asia to the Mediterranean and became an (32) ...... with the public in the Roman Empire. The sport has (33) ........... been associated with royalty and the nobility. It became a (34) ............ sport at the beginning of the eighteenth century. It is the second most (35) .......... attended spectator sport in the US, after baseball. In the UK the Jockey Club, founded in 1750, has complete (36) ... for horse racing. It is also responsible for the (37) ..... regarding the breeding of racehorses. Although science has been (38) ...... to find a breeding system that guarantees the birth of a champion, it is possible to produce horses that are (39) .... on the racetrack. Commercial breeding is a very (40) .... business, and racehorses can be worth millions of pounds.

Page 3 of 10

(0) COMPETE

(31) CIVILISE (32) OBSESS (33) TRADITION (34) PROFESSION (35) WIDE (36) RESPONSIBLE (37) REGULATE (38) ABLE (39) SUCCESS (40) PROFIT

III. READING : (30 points) PART 1 : Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.

Smart shoes Smart shoes that (0) ………their size throughout the day could soon be available. A prototype of such a shoe has already been produced and a commercial (41) ...may be in production within a few years. The shoe contains sensors that constantly (42).........the amount of (43) ...........left in it. If the foot has become too large, a tiny valve opens and the shoe (44)……….slightly. The entire control system is about 5mm square and is (45) ....... .......

inside the shoe. This radical shoe(46)

a need because the volume of the (47) .......foot can change by as much as 8% during the course of

the day. The system is able to learn about the wearer's feet and (48) ..........up a picture of the size of his or her feet throughout the day. It will allow the shoes to change in size by up to

8% so that they always

fit (49)……..They are obviously more comfortable and less likely to (50)………..blisters. From an athlete's point of view, they can help improve (51) ..........

a little, and that is why the first (52)……..for the

system is likely to be in a sports shoe. Eventually, this system will find a …………(53) in other household items, from beds that automatically change to fit the person sleeping in them, to power tools that ……….(54) themselves to the user's hand for better grip. There is no reason why the system couldn't be adapted for use in hundreds of consumer (55) ........... 0.

A. adjust

B. fit

C. reform

D. move

41.

A.assortment

B.version

C. style

D. variety

42.

A. prove

B. confirm

C. inspect

D. check

43.

A. room

B. gap

C. area

D. emptiness

44.

A. amplifies

B. develops

C. expands

D. increases

45.

A. located

B. sited

C. established

D. laid

46.

A. detects

B. finds

C. meets

D. faces

47.

A. average

B. general

C. usual

D. medium

48.

A. build

B. pick

C. grow

D. set

49.

A. exactly

B. absolutely

C. completely

D. totally

50.

A. provoke

B. form

C. initiate

D. cause

51.

A. achievement

B. performance

C. success

D. winning

52.

A. purpose

B. exercise

C. use

D. operation

53.

A. function

B. part

C. way

D. place

Page 4 of 10

54.

A. shape

B. change

C. respond

D. convert

55.

A. commodities

B. possessions

C. goods

D. objects

PART 2: You are going to read an article about robot shops. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (9-15). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered box

The Robot Shop Like most ideas that seem absolutely revolutionary, the concept behind the robot shop is actually very simple. In fact, it has already been around for many years in the form of vending machines, selling bars of chocolate or drinks. This idea has been further developed to create the first robot shop, which may eventually change the future of shopping. The prototype robot shop in a suburb of London looks like a giant vending machine.

56.

The

display on the right is refrigerated and holds items such as milk, yoghurt and cheese, while the display on the left has an impressive selection of biscuits, coffee cakes and crisps. It does not have the variety of conventional shops, but it can cope with a late night request for bread or painkillers. 57.

You key in the code numbers of the goods you want, which are displayed just underneath each

item in the window, and a huge robot arm reaches out and picks up each item, bringing it over to the console inside the shop. An electronic display shows you the total you have to pay.

58.

Unlike supermarkets, in robot

shops you can only collect the goods after you've paid. When the robot arm i f nds the things you want, it drops them into a hatch and you reach inside to take them out. If this happened before you paid, you could easily walk off with the goods without having paid for them. The system couldn't yet be described as entirely efficient. There's a lot of room for improvement. The robot arm represents one of the biggest problems.

59

The arm has to be very accurate in order to

pick up the item it has reached for, carry it to the hatch and safely drop it into it. The difficulty of judging customer attitudes is another reason why the robot shop has to be tested. Customers are still cautious about doing most of their shopping in a robot shop, but this is only to be 60. Page 5 of 10

expected; every new invention has been regarded with some suspicion at first.

The

manufacturers of robot shops suggest that the small shopkeeper in inner-city areas represents their biggest potential client. 61.

People in the area value the convenience of being able to pop out virtually

all hours of the day and night for some item they have forgotten or suddenly feet like buying. Small shopkeepers are likely to invest in robot shop equipment, rather than employ part-time staff to work twenty-four hours a day. The question is whether customers will prefer the impersonal service of a robot shop to the conventional type of shopping where there's human contact. 62.

Machines do not take lunch breaks, they

hardly ever make mistakes and they are never rude to customers. Isn't this the sort of efficiency people want from a shop these days? A . A central console between the windows is where you actually do your shopping. B. The first thing you notice are the two large display windows which are absolutely packed with goods. C. Older customers in particular may find the experience cold and impersonal, but a younger generation may respond more positively. D. The real question is whether, over the three-month testing period, enough people will overcome their doubts and start shopping here in significant numbers. E. For security reasons, you have to do this before the robot arm starts gathering your goods. F. Many shops like these only survive because they stay open late, or even round the clock in some cases. G. Experience with similar mechanised service equipment, such as cash dispensers, suggest that there are considerable advantages for both customers and shop owners. H. The challenge is to create a piece of machinery which will be delicate enough to pick up eggs but at the same time strong enough to pick up bottles of mineral water and baked bean cans. PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. It is commonly believed that in the United States that school is where people to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark Line is important. (5)

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal leaning that takes place in school sand the whole universe of informal leaning. The agents of education can range form a revered grandparent o the people debating politics on the radio, from a Page 6 of 10

(10) child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that (15) should be an integral part of one's entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that (20) are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high schools students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the (25) formalized process of schooling. 63. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The best schools teach a wide variety of subjects. B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences. C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework. D. The more years students go to school the better their education is. 64. What does the author probably mean by using the expression "Children interrupt their education to go to school" (lines 2-3)? A.Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial. B.School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year. C.Summer school makes the school year too long. D.All of life is an education. 65. The word "bounds" in line 6 is closest in meaning to A.rules

B.experiences

C.limits

D.exceptions

66. The word "chance" in line 11 is closest in meaning to A.unplanned

B.unusual

C.lengthy

D.lively

67. The word "integral" in line 15 is closest in meaning to A.an equitable

B.a profitable

C.a pleasant

D.an essential

C.boundaries

D.seats

68. The word "they" in line 20 refers to A.slices of reality

B.similar textbooks

69. The phrase "For example", line 22, introduces a sentence that gives example of Page 7 of 10

A.similar textbooks

B.the results of schooling

C.the working of a government

D.the boundaries of classroom subject

70. The passage supports which of the following conclusions? A.Without formal education, people would remain ignorant. B.Education systems need to be radically reformed. C.Going to school is only part of how people become educated. D.Education involves many years of professional training.

III/ WRITING : (30 points) PART 1: (10pts) For questions 71-80, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Here is an example: Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? objection Do you have any objections to my watching you while you paint? 71. Our teacher always makes us do our homework before we leave the class. ALLOWS Our teacher ..................................................... leave the class until we've done our homework. 72. It was almost dark when we got home. UNTIL We .................................................................................................... it was almost dark. 73. Peter woke up early because he didn't want to miss his flight. THAT Peter woke up early .................................................................. not miss his flight. 74. Since we've run out of tea, I'd better go and buy some. LEFT There ......................................................................... so I'd better go and buy some. 75. 'You'd better not go for a walk,' said my father. ADVISED My father ........................................................................................... for a walk. 76. The police asked the woman to describe the thief to them in detail. FULL Page 8 of 10

The police asked the woman to give them ……………………………………………................ the thief. 77. I wish I hadn't left the window open. SHOULD I……………………………………………………………………….. the window open. 78. All the guests enjoyed themselves at the party apart from George. WHO George was the ……………………………………………. enjoy himself at the party. 79. The man said that he hadn't been involved in the robbery. DENIED The man ..........................................................................................involved in the robbery. 80. They're identical twins, so they look exactly the same. TELL You can't…………………………………………………………………… they're identical twins. PART 2: Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic:(20 pts) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? It is more important for students to study history and literature than it is for them to study science and mathematics. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………….

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UBND TP CẦN THƠ SỞ GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO ------------

CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM Độc lập - Tự do - Hạnh phúc --------------------

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN ANH VĂN NGÀY 15 /10/2010 I/ LISTENING: (15 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 15 = 15 points Part 1: 1 C

2 A

3 B

4 C

5 B

Part 2:

6. SCHOOL 7. 15 8. ONE YEAR 9. COMPLAINTS 10. COURSES

11. BASKETBALL 12. GRASS 13. DISCIPLINE 14. 12 15. TEACHERS

II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 25 = 25 points PART 1: 16 D

17 B

18 A

19 B

20 D

21 B

22 A

23 B

24 A

25 C

26 C

27 D

28 C

29 D

30 A

PART 2: 31 civilizations

32 obsession

33 traditionally

34 professional

35 widely

36 responsibility

37 regulations

38 unable

39 successful

40 profitable

III/ READING: (30 pts) 1p for 1 correct answer x 30 = 30 points

Part 1: (15 pts) 41 B

42 D

43 A

44 C

45 A

46 C

Part 2: (6 points) 56 57 B A Part 3: ( 9 points) 63 64 65 B D C

47 A

58 E

66 A

48 A

49 A

50 D

59 H

67 D

68 A

51 B

52 C

53 D

60 D

69 D

54 A

55 C

61 F

70 C

III/ WRITING: ( 30 POINTS) Part 1: Sentence transformation (10 points) 71. Our teacher always makes us do our homework before we leave the class. ALLOWS Our teacher NEVER ALLOWS US TO leave the class until we've done our homework. 72. It was almost dark when we got home. UNTIL We DIDN’T GET HOME UNTIL it was almost dark. 73. Peter woke up early because he didn't want to miss his flight. THAT Peter woke up early SO THAT HE WOULD not miss his flight. 74. Since we've run out of tea, I'd better go and buy some. LEFT There ISN’T ANY TEA/ IS NO TEA LEFT so I'd better go and buy some. 75. 'You'd better not go for a walk,' said my father. ADVISED My father ADVISED ME NOT TO GO for a walk. 76. The police asked the woman to describe the thief to them in detail. FULL The police asked the woman to give them A FULL DESCRIPTION OF the thief. 77. I wish I hadn't left the window open. SHOULD I SHOULD NOT HAVE LEFT the window open.

62 G

78. All the guests enjoyed themselves at the party apart from George. WHO George was the ONLY GUEST WHO DIDN’T enjoy himself at the party. 79. The man said that he hadn't been involved in the robbery. DENIED The man DENIED HAVING BEEN / DENIED THAT HE HAD BEEN involved in the robbery. 80. They're identical twins, so they look exactly the same. TELL You can't TELL THEM APART BECAUSE they're identical twins.

Part 2: Composition (20 points) - Organization (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (1pts) - Discourse (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (7pts) - Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2pts ) - Ideas (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (9pts) (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá - Length ngắn. (1p) TOTAL:

100 / 5 = 20

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2011-2012 Khóa ngày: 14/10/2011

Đề chính thức MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

I. Listening ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe khoảng 16 phút gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài làm sau khi nghe hết 2 phần . Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear people talking in five different situations. Choose the best answer A, B or C. 1. You will hear two people talking about their friend Brian. What is Brian? A. a teacher B. a student C. a chemists 2. You hear a woman talking about reading. Why does she enjoy it? A. She likes imaginative stories. B. She learns a lot from books. C. Reading helps her to relax. 3. You hear a traffic announcement on local radio. What should people driving to Bridgend do? A. avoid Coychurch Road. B. turn off at Junction 32 C. turn off at Junction 31 4. You hear a man being interviewed on a TV chat show. What is he? A. an actor B. a writer C. a cameraman 5. You hear a woman leaving an answerphone message for her friend David. What is David suppose to do? A. pick her up at the office. B. meet her at nine o'clock. C. ring her at the office

Part 2: You will hear a woman called Mrs. Sutcliffe being questioned by a police officer about a burglary at her house. For question 6-15, complete the sentences. BURGLARY REPORT 6. Mrs. Sutcliffe was at ________________________ when somebody broke into her house. 7. The break-in took place at about _______________________________. 8. The burglar was in Mrs. Sutcliffe's _________________________________when she saw him. 9. Mrs. Sutcliffe says he was _______________________________ and heavily built. Page 1 of 10

10. Mrs. Sutcliffe's __________________________________ called the police. 11. The burglar stole ______________________________from Mrs. Sutcliffe. 12. Mrs. Sutcliffe thinks she'll feel safer at home if she gets a _____________________. 13. The poor condition of Mrs. Sutcliffe's __________________________probably made it easy for the burglar to break in. 14. The police have a good _________________________________of the person they think broke into Mrs. Sutcliffe's house. 15. The police will contact Mrs. Sutcliffe in ________________________weeks' time, or sooner if there is important news. II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) PART 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 16. After listening to all the arguments I am now of the _______ that there should be no new road. A. attitude

B. opinion

C. thought

D. idea.

17. He didn't want anyone at the wedding _________than the bride and groom. A. except

B. other

C. apart

D. rather

18. Protests died down when they realised that the new tax _________to only 50p a week. A. added

B. reached

C. approached

D. amounted.

19. It was a serious quarrel, and they took a long time to make it ___________. A. over

B. away

C. out

D. up

20. As he approached the end of the race he found it hard to __________his speed. A. carry on

B. keep on

C. maintain

D. persevere

21. The accused was given a short sentence as he had committed only a _________ offence. A. subordinate

B. minimal

C. secondary

D. minor

22. She ________wanted a house overlooking the sea. A. particularly

B. strongly

C. essentially

D. extremely

23. She caught a ________ of the thief as he made his get-away. A. glance

B. sight

C. glimpse

D. flash

24. The little boy was continually _________the ornaments. A. tripping up

B. falling down

C. breaking up

D. knocking over.

25. We can judge the success of your scheme only by taking ________account the financial benefits over the next few years. A. into

B. out

C. from

D. over

26. I couldn't tell what time it was because workmen had removed the ________of the clock. A. hands

B. pointers

C. arms

Page 2 of 10

D. fingers

27. For his fifth birthday, Jim was given a writing set ________two pens, three color pencils and notepaper A. involving

B. consisting C. holding

D. comprising

28. I wrote to my bank manager _________to getting loan. A. in the hope

B. on the question

C. with the aim

D. with the view

C. pulled

D. caught

29. The boy's mother was _________in by his lies. A. drawn

B. taken

30. children who are praised for their work are always _________on to do better. A. encouraged

B. approved

C. inspired

D. spurred.

Part 2 . Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space on the same line. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. Example (0) RESEARCHERS A real test of manhood (0)______at the University of California have a tip for any single men out there; if you want to get lucky with the ladies, a pair of rubber gloves may be a good (31)________. The (32)______of a recent study indicate that women find men who are both willing and able to lend a hand with the housework more (33)________. Although this will cause to some raised eyebrows amongst more traditionalists commentators, to my mind it is a (34)_______of a blindingly obvious. Take the example of my grandfather; a hospital (35)______, war hero and competitive sailor, who was also a dab hand at needlework. As a child, I used to watch his enormous fingers flashing away at a (36)______intricate piece of sewing and think him the absolute model of a manly man: someone who found a quiet (37)_______in the patient execution of (38)______tasks, to a high degree of perfection. For me, the real mystery is why so many men allow themselves to exist in a state of humiliating domestic (39)_____for so long. Take, for example, all those young men who once installed in their own flats, take the washing home to their mums each week. Haven't they failed in the first (40)_______test of manhood- that of learning to fend for oneself outside the nest?

Page 3 of 10

SEARCH INVEST FIND ATTRACT STATE SURGERY PARTICULAR SATISFY PRACTICE COMPETENT ESSENCE

III. READING : (30 points) PART 1 : Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example. (0)

A. carries

B. holds

C. takes

D. makes

BREAKING INTO FILM Hollywood (0)______ out the promise of fame, fortune and glamour. Every year, thousands of young hopefuls (41)______ there, hoping that a producer will spot them and think they have that special something that (42)_____want to see. Unfortunately, most of them are (43) ______ on a journey that leads to disappointment. Take a (44) ______round Los Angeles and ask any waiter or waitress and they will tell you that they are only working there for the time (45)_____, until they get their break in films. A combination of failure and (46)_____problems usually means that they eventually (47)______ up their minds to leave and return to the small town they came from, without having made their (48) _____ Before you come to the (49) _______that a life in film is for you, ask yourself carefully if you are ready for that change of (50) _____. You'll have to travel and live for a long time at your own (51) _____, working in jobs that provide you with a low (52)_____, with only the occasional (53)______ of a star to remind you where you want to be. If you do decide to make your (54)_____ to America with stars in your eyes, don't expect it all to be luxury (55) _____and Oscar nights. 41.

A. send up

B. turn up

C. come up

D. play up

42.

A. crowds

B. mobs

C. groups

D. audiences

43.

A. making out

B. setting off

C. looking up

D. moving out

44.

A. voyage

B. tour

C. parade

D. circuit

45.

A. staying

B. waiting

C. coming

D. being

46.

A economic

B. commercial

C. industrial

D wealthy

47.

A. do

B. make

C. reach

D. come

48.

A. profit

B. cash

C. fee

D. fortune

49.

A. conclusion

B. reason

C. solution

D. feeling

50.

A. way

B. route

C. direction

D. journey

51.

A. money

B. finance

C. payment

D. expense

52.

A. income

B. earning

C. charge

D. wealth

53.

A. glance

B. glimpse

C. outlook

D. view

54.

A. route

B. direction

C. progress

D. way

55.

A. cruises

B. travels

C. expeditions

D. strolls

Page 4 of 10

PART 2: You are going to read a magazine article about intelligence. Eight sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-I the one which fits each gap (56-62). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0). Write your answer in the blanks. What Makes Someone Intelligent? The days when all you needed to make a living was sufficient physical strength to bring in the harvest are long gone. To survive today you need to be educated to rocket scientist level just to program a video recorder, make sense of a public transport timetable, or follow a complicated plot on TV. ….I…..(0) But what exactly is intelligence? Are there ways of getting smarter, or are you stuck with what you were born with? There aren’t any easy answers. Despite the progress that has been made in genetics and psychology, human intelligence has done remains of the most controversial areas of modern science. (56) _______. Robert Plomin of the Institute of Psychiatry in London and his colleagues in the US have been looking into genetic make-up. From their research, they have established that a slightly different gene is more common in those with a high IQ. Plomin analysed DNA from two groups of 51 children aged between 6 and 15. What he found was that the first group had an IQ of 136, putting them in the top 5% of the population, while the other group had an average IQ of 103. An analysis of their genes revealed that 32% of children in the higher group had the gene in question, while only 16% in the second group did. (57) _______. He suggests that there are probably many genes that contribute to intelligence, rather than just one. If you were born with a full set of intelligence-enhancing genes, then you’d expect to be very clever indeed. But just how important are genes in intelligence? Most of the early research depended on measuring the IQs of identical twins who had grown up separately. The argument was that if intelligence were 100% inherited, both twins would have the same IQ, no matter how different their backgrounds. (58) _______. Since it is difficult to find many who have been separated at birth, recent studies have concentrated on adopted children instead. One does suggest that adopted children become increasingly like their biological parents as they get older. In the past, the idea that intelligence is mainly inherited became an excuse for prejudice and discrimination. The concept of IQ itself was first developed a century ago by French psychologist Alfred Binet. (59) _______. IQ measures something called general intelligence, testing word and number skills, as well as spatial ability. Several studies have shown a strong link between IQ and career success, although some psychologists remain unconvinced about this. (60) _______. “The people with the highest IQs are not usually the ones who do best in their careers, but there’s a big business out there with occupational psychologists offering all kinds of selection tests for companies. They won’t go away because there’s a lot of money to be made. But intelligence is not like temperature, and you cannot measure it in the same way. It’s much more complicated than that.” Many psychologists now believe that when it comes to intelligence, IQ isn’t everything. Many alternative views have been put forward recently. (61) _______. This offers a much broader view than the IQ theory, including creativity and communication skills as relevant factors in intelligence. Tony Buzan, brain expert and author of Master your Memory, is enthusiastic about this belief, arguing that true geniuses do indeed appear to combine high levels of each type of intelligence. (62) _______. Page 5 of 10

At the same time, Buzan believes that everyone can develop their intelligence, if only they take the trouble to exercise their brain. Perhaps there’s hope for us all! A. This may seem remote from everyday concerns, but does illustrate what the human brain is capable of. B. One example is the idea of ‘multiple intelligence’, which was developed in the 1980s by Harvard psychologist Howard Gardner. C. The tests were meant to select bright but socially-disadvantaged children, to ensure that they got a good education. D. Until now, that is, for the discovery of a gene linked to intelligence has made the experts think again. E. He lists Alexander the Great, Pablo Picasso and Albert Einstein as examples. F. Professor Michael Rowe, who has written a book called Genius Explained, is one of these. G. However, there is a lot more research to be done, and Plomin himself is cautious at this early stage. H. On the other hand, if differences in their IQs were found, this would point to background or environmental factors. I. In short, what you have in your head has never been more important. PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society. The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extra curricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies. Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were one such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home. Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer Page 6 of 10

homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children “efficiently” in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date. 63. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education in the United States was ____. A. the growing number of schools in frontier communities B. an increase in the number of trained teachers C. the expanding economic problems of schools D. the increased urbanization of the entire country 64. The word “means” in the passage is closest in meaning to ___. A. advantages B. probability C. method D. qualifications 65. According to the passage, one important change in the United States education by the 1920’s was that _______. A. most places required children to attend school B. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education D. adults and children studied in the same classes 66. “Vacation schools” and “extra curricular activities” are mentioned in the passage to illustrate ___. A. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools B. the importance of educational changes C. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs D. the increased impact of public schools on students 67. According to the passage, early-twentieth-century education reformers believed that _______. A. different groups needed different kinds of education B. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them C. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress D. more women should be involved in education and industry 68. The word “it” in the passage refers to ___. A. consumption B. production C. homemaking D. education 69. In the early twentieth century, homemaking was viewed as the consumption rather than production of goods because of _______. A. the overproduction B. the scarcity of goods C. the shortage of goods D. the sufficiency of goods 70. The title of the passage could be _______. A. The Influence of the Arrival of European Immigrants on the US Education B. The Influence of the Early-Twentieth-Century Industrialization on the US Education C. The New Notions of Homemaking in the United States in the Early Twentieth Century D. The Reforms of the Education in the United States in the Early Twentieth Century

III/ WRITING : (30 points) PART 1: (10pts) For questions 71-80, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Here is an example: Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? OBJECTIONS Do you have any objections to my watching you while you paint? Page 7 of 10

71. There were a lot of things to think about before we made our decision. TAKEN Lots of things needed___________________________________________ consideration before we could make our decision. 72. Could I ask you if you'd mind looking after my dog while I'm away on holiday? WONDERING I _______________________________________willing to look after my dog while I'm away on holiday? 73. I know that it was wrong of me to get angry in front of the children. LOST I know that I should _______________________________________________in front of the children. 74. If you need any further information, please call me. If you need any further information, __________________________________________me a call. HESITATE 75. It hasn't snowed quite as much this year as it did last year. SLIGHTLY This year, there has ______________________________________________than there was last year. 76. Unless the team's performance improves, they may find they have to resign from the league. FORCED. If the team's performance doesn't get ___________________________________resign from the league. 77. I don't mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. DIFFERENCE. It doesn't ______________________________________whether we go to the seaside or not this year. 78. It's possible that the burglars got into the building by forcing open a fire exit. GAINED The burglars may_________________________________________ by forcing open a fire exit. 79. Playing the drums is fun, but so is singing in a choir. JUST It's___________________________________________ singing in a choir as it is playing the drums. 80. Phil is likely to get the job that he's being interviewed for. CHANCES The__________________________________________________ the job he's being interviewed for.

Page 8 of 10

PART 2: Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic: (20 pts) When people move to another country, some of them decide to follow the customs of the new country. Others prefer to keep their own customs. Compare these two choices. Which one do you prefer? Support your answer with specific details. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. Page 9 of 10

………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………

--- The End ---

Page 10 of 10

UBND TP CẦN THƠ SỞ GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO ------------

CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM Độc lập - Tự do - Hạnh phúc --------------------

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2011-2012 NGÀY 14 /10/2011 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN ANH VĂN I/ LISTENING: (15 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 15 = 15 points Part 1: 1 B

2 C

3 C

4 A

5 A

Part 2:

6. HOME 7. NINE (9) PM 8. BEDROOM 9. TALL 10. NEIGHBOR

11. ₤200 12. DOG 13. WINDOWS 14. DESCRIPTION 15. TWO (2)

II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (25 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 25 = 25 points PART 1: 16 B

17 B

18 D

19 D

20 C

21 D

22 A

23 C

24 D

25 A

26 A

27 D

28 D

29 B

30 D

PART 2: 31 investment

32 findings

33 attractive

34 statement

35 Surgeon

36 particularly

37 satisfaction

38 practical

39 incompetence

40 essential

III/ READING: (30 pts) 1p for 1 correct answer x 30 = 30 points Part 1: (15 pts) 41 B

42 D

43 B

44 B

45 D

46 A

Part 2: (6 points) 56 57 D G Part 3: ( 9 points) 63 64 65 D C A

47 B

58 H

66 D

48 D

49 A

50 C

59 C

67 A

68 C

51 D

52 A

53 B

60 F

69 A

54 D

61 B

55 A

62 E

70 B

III/ WRITING: ( 30 POINTS) Part 1: Sentence transformation (10 points) 71. There were a lot of things to think about before we made our decision. TAKEN Lots of things needed TO BE TAKEN INTO consideration before we could make our decision. 72. Could I ask you if you'd mind looking after my dog while I'm away on holiday? WONDERING I WAS WONDERING IF/WHETHER YOU WOULD BE willing to look after my dog while I'm away on holiday? 73. I know that it was wrong of me to get angry in front of the children. LOST I know that I should NOT HAVE LOST MY TEMPER in front of the children. 74. If you need any further information, please call me. If you need any further information, PLEASE DO NOT HESITATE TO GIVE me a call. HESITATE 75. It hasn't snowed quite as much this year as it did last year. SLIGHTLY This year, there has BEEN SLIGHTLY LESS SNOW than there was last year.

76. Unless the team's performance improves, they may find they have to resign from the league. FORCED. If the team's performance doesn't get BETTER IT/ THEY MAY BE FORCED TO resign from the league. 77. I don't mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year. DIFFERENCE. It doesn't MAKE ANY/MUCH DIFFERENCE TO ME whether we go to the seaside or not this year. 78. It's possible that the burglars got into the building by forcing open a fire exit. GAINED The burglars may HAVE GAINED ACCESS/ ENTRY TO THE BUILDING by forcing open a fire exit. 79. Playing the drums is fun, but so is singing in a choir. JUST It's JUST AS MUCH FUN singing in a choir as it is playing the drums. 80. Phil is likely to get the job that he's being interviewed for. CHANCES The CHANCES ARE THAT PHIL WILL GET the job he's being interviewed for.

Part 2: Composition (20 points) - Organization (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (1pts) - Discourse (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (7pts) - Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2pts ) - Ideas (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (9pts) - Length (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (1p) TOTAL:

100 / 5 = 20

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 Khóa ngày: 16/10/2012

Đề chính thức MÔN THI: Tiếng Anh Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

I. Listening ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe khoảng 17 phút gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài làm sau khi nghe hết 2 phần . Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear a woman called Angela Newell, who is a vegetarian chef, talking about her career. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences. Vegetarian chef Angela first realised she was a good cook after making (1) ................................................. for her family. Angela studied (2)...................................................................... as well as cookery on her training course. In Paris, Angela's training helped her to get work as a (3) ....................................................................... Angela stayed in Paris for a period of (4) ................................................................................................. In terms of international cooking, Angela likes (5)..................................................................dishes best. Angela eventually went to work for a famous (6)..................................................... as her personal chef. Angela's restaurant won an award for the quality of its (7) ....................................................................... Angela will have her own (8) ........................................................................................ in the near future. Part 2: You will hear an interview with a rap musician called Joey Small, who has just started a new career as a movie actor. For questions 9-15, choose the best answer (A, B or C). Write your answers in the numbered box. 9. Joey thinks the hardest part of making the movie was A. acting and roller-skating at the same time. B. adapting to how the filming was organised. C. convincing people that he was able to act.

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13. What advice does Joey have for young actors?

10. What does Joey say about roller-skating? A. He mastered the moves relatively quickly.

A. Make sure you know your lines perfectly.

B. He learnt how to do it especially for the movie.

B. Don't attempt to speak too naturally.

C. He couldn't get used to wearing old-fashioned

C. Try to hear what you sound like. 14. How does Joey feel about being famous?

skates. 11. Because the film was set in the 1970s, Joey had to

A. He wishes people would show him more respect.

A. wear clothes that didn't suit him. B. talk in a way that made him laugh.

B. He accepts that he cannot have total privacy.

C. follow the instructions of acting coaches.

C. He dislikes having to be polite to strangers. 15. How does Joey feel about the future?

12. When asked about his co-star, Joey says that A. he appreciated the help she gave him.

A. He'd like to concentrate on acting work.

B. he disliked her telling him what to do.

B. He's keen to go back to being a rap performer.

C. he found her rather unfriendly.

C. He thinks he's too young to have definite plans.

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II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (20 points) PART 1: For questions 1-8 choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 16. It was too late to _____ of the contract. A. back out

B. back down

C. back up

D. back away.

17. He will be upset if you _____ his offer for help. A. turn away

B. turn from

C. turn down

D. turn against

18. On ______ to power the new President announced a programme of social reforms. A. arriving

B. reaching

C. achieving

D. coming

19. No one really knows who composed this piece of music, but it has been _____ to Batch. A. identified

B. associated

C. referred

D. attributed

20. The judge said the thief had shown complete _____ for the law. A. ignorance

B. factor

C. characteristic

D. cause

21. In ______ her inexperience her failure to serure the contract was not surprising. A. In view of

B. By virtue of

C. With regard to

D. In recognition of

22. It is difficult to say exactly what ______ the present dissatisfaction with management. A. brought in

B. brought about

C. brought out

D. brought over.

23. Her enthusiasm_______ her lack of experience. A. makes up for

B. makes off

C. makes out at

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D. makes up

24. The captain realised that unless immediate action was taken to discipline the crew, there could be a ______ on the ship. A. riot

B. rebellion

C. mutiny

D. strike

25. Although the coach has not thought her a good tennis player at first, she _______ to be a champion. A. came around 16

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B. came out 18

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C. turned up 20

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D. turned out 22

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Part 2 . Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space on the same line. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. Example (0) JUDGEMENTS THE FACE Most snap (0)______ judgements about people are formed on the basis

JUDGE

of their (26)______ features. The eyes, regarded as clues to one's true

FACE

character, are said (27)______to be the windows of the soul: closely

POETRY

positioned, they imply (28) ______; set wide apart they suggest

SLY

(29)______ and directness. Thin mouths are equated with meanness and

HONEST

full mouths with (30)______Unconsciously, we make such instant

SENSUAL

judgements and they are made about us. There is no hiding place for the face. Always exposed and vulnerable, it (31) ______expresses happiness, desire and joy, anger, fear, shame

VOLUNTARY

and (32)______. Precisely for that reason, a masked face evokes fear and

LOATHE

horror: once someone's distinguishing (33)_______are hidden, we

CHARACTER

cannot read or recognise the person and fear of the (34)________

KNOW

immediately arouses (35)_________.

SUSPECT

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III. READING : (30 points) PART 1 : Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example. 0. A. primary

B. dominant

C. leading Page 3 of 10

D. principal

For questions 36-50, read the text below and then decide which answer on page 3 best fits each space. Indicate your answers on the separate answer sheet. The exercise begins with an example (0). Example: Dinosaur discoveries In the late 1930s, a group of (0) ______ American scientists seeking dinosaur fossils made some (36)______ finds. Although one of their expeditions discovered no bones at all, it nonetheless (37)______ to be important in terms of the information about dinosaurs it provided. During that historic expedition, which took place along the (38) ______ of the Paluxy river in Texas, something extraordinary was revealed: a dinosaur track, clearly (39)______ in the rock. These dinosaur footprints (40)______their preservation to the salts and mud that covered them and then hardened into rock, before (41)______ to light

100 million years later. Tracks like these are (42)______to experts.

There have been great gaps in scientists' understanding of dinosaur (43)______, and so such footprints are useful since they provide direct (44)______of how dinosaurs actually moved. Scientists have been able to use these footprints, and others like them, to (45)______ how quickly different species walked, and to conclude that many kinds of dinosaur must have travelled in (46)______. (47)______,

the tracks of four-legged dinosaurs seem to (48)______that in spite of being

reptiles, these creatures must have moved in a very similar way to living mammals, such as elephants - a pattern of movement (49) ______ from that of most contemporary reptiles, such as crocodiles. This leads to an intriguing question. Might existing mammals have more to teach us about the (50) ______reptiles that once walked the earth? 36. A. noteworthy

B. noticeable

C. notifiable

D. notional

37. A. turned

B. arose

C. proved

D. occurred

38. A. verges

B. borders

C. coasts

D. banks

39. A. blatant

B. substantial

C. distinguishable

D. ostensible

40. A. owe

B. derive

C. result

D. thank

41. A. coming

B. bringing

C. appearing

D. surfacing

42. A. unique

B. invaluable

C. costly

D. rare

43. A. action

B. manners

C. behaviour

D. customs

44. A. basis

B. support

C. source

D. evidence

45.A. make up

B. determine

C. weigh up

D. reflect

46. A. sets

B. herds

C. masses

D. bunches

47. A. Accordingly

B. Characteristically C. Interestingly

D. Alternatively

48. A. point

B. specify

C. express

D. indicate

49. A. separate

B. unconnected

C. detached

D. distinct

50. A. abolished

B. departed

C. extinct

D. extinguished

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43

PART 2: You are going to read a magazine article about gliding. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (51-57). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. Write your answer in the blanks. Going up in a glider Gliders are planes without engines. We sent our reporter to find out what it's like to fly in one. When I arrive at the London Gliding School, Adrian, a volunteer instructor who has been gliding for ten years, warmly greets me. He immediately takes me off to what's clearly the centre of all operations - the cafeteria. After a quick chat, we drive to the launch base where Dan, my instructor for the day, begins to prepare me on all I need to know. Dan, who is twenty, did his first solo flight at eighteen after joining the club's cadet scheme. Going through all the theory of how everything works and what to do once airborne seems pretty simple. I'm not so keen, though, on the instructions about what to do in an emergency. 51. At least I'm wearing a parachute! The glider is connected by rope to a light aircraft as we're pulled up into the air. A bumpy start along the field and we're off and up. `I like it when people scream' were Dan's words on the ground. But I am fiercely gripping my parachute straps and lots of noises are coming from my 52. stomach, which is doing somersaults. Once we're up to around 1,500 feet, the rope is detached with a clunk from the underside of the glider and we're free. It's a strange feeling - there's a sense of safety when the rope is attached to the aeroplane. 53. `I am in control,' Dan tells me. He's not attempting to be heroic; this is glider talk. `You are in control,' I respond. Thankfully I'm not or I doubt we'd be swooping through the peaceful skies so smoothly and effortlessly. Something you notice straightaway, is the lack of an engine, which results in an eerie silence. The weather conditions aren't ideal, as it's an all-too-familiar grey English day. 54. But I'm told that, with perfect weather conditions of a clear windy day and lots of cumulus cloud, we'd be able to catch the thermals and rise, staying up in the air for longer. It's possible to glide as far as Scotland and back again with the right conditions! In a glider both pilot and passenger have a set of controls, so either person can take control. The passenger can also `follow through' with the controls, basically lightly touching all their own controls and feeling what the pilot is doing. So when Dan tells me `You are in control' and I 55. repeat `I am in control,' I'm glad he can't see the terror in my face. After some jumpy manoeuvres to keep the glider at `normal gliding attitude,' where the horizon remains at a constant level, I'm just getting into the swing of it when Dan regains control to bring us in for landing. Landing a glider is much calmer than other types of aircraft. 56. You descend and approach the landing area, deploying the spoilers (flaps on the wings) to weaken the air flow, and ease the glider Page 5 of 10

lower until the wheels make contact and you're gently bumping along the field. Once safely stopped, we jump out and attach the front of the glider to a quad bike that has come to retrieve us and walk it back to launch base. I absolutely loved it and can't wait to get back up in the air. Before the end of the day I'm introduced to Jamic, whos just completed his first solo flight after six days of training. He describes his experience of gliding as `amazing, peaceful and relaxing'. 57. At least, that's how it feels when Dan or Adrian have control. I need a bit more practice. A. This doesn't make a jot of difference to the experience for me. B. Release the safety belts and jump out seems to be the only response possible. C. This has been the limit of my involvement so far. D. Once it goes, I feel I want to hold onto something in case we start falling to the ground. E. He tells me that it's too cloudy for those acrobatics, however, and relief washes over me. F. I couldn't have put it better myself. G. It's much less sudden and you notice the absence of engine roar. H. I manage not to do this, however. PART 3: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. You are going to read an article about a man who appeared on a reality TV programme. For questions 58-65, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. The fake hairdresser remembers Some years ago, a British TV company came up with an idea for a reality TV show. People with no experience would be trained in a profession in a very short period of time, then would try and pass themselves off as the real thing with the general public. The show was called Faking It, and the format has since been imitated the world over. One of the first contestants was Gavin Freeborn, a twenty-threeyear-old farmer's son, who trained with celebrity hairdresser Trevor Sorbie in London. Gavin remembers the experience. `I was at university, studying for a degree in agriculture, when some friends mentioned that a TV company had advertised for people to take part in Faking It. They were looking for someone who'd never picked up a pair of scissors or thought of hairdressing as a career, which I certainly hadn't. I reckoned it would be a laugh. Having spent my school holidays shearing sheep on my parents' farm, I was used to the idea of haircutting, but obviously it's harder doing it on people - because they have an opinion about it!' `I'd never been to London before and it was so busy that I felt a bit overwhelmed at first. Meeting Trevor for the first time, he seemed really strict, but once he realised 1 was taking the challenge seriously we got on like a house on fire and they often had to stop filming because we couldn't stop giggling. Fortunately, I didn't have to do any of the washing or sweeping floors other people new to the business have to do. I went straight into blow-drying and cutting instead.' ' At first I practised on a dummy's head, which was a welcome safety net, but I did make a really bad mistake halfway through filming when I was cutting one real man's hair. I'd been shown how to use clippers to get a cropped effect but hadn't been warned to angle the comb. I ended up shaving off a huge patch of hair! He couldn't see what I'd done, but the camera crew couldn't stop laughing, so it was obvious 1'd made a mistake. Luckily, I managed to rectify the situation and told the client, who was alright about it, so I forgave them.' Page 6 of 10

`By the day of my final test, I knew I was capable but I felt sick with nerves. I didn't want to let Trevor down. But even though I failed to convince the client that I was a real hairdresser, she approved of the haircut and the judges were impressed by it, too. It didn't worry me at the time but, looking back now, I think it was a bit unfair that I was penalised for taking too long - an hour-and-a-half - when I'd been taught the most important thing was to ensure your client walks out of the salon feeling like a million dollars.' 'After the programme, I went home for a week but I decided to come hack to London because I'd fallen in love with the buzz of the city. People in town kept stopping and staring at me as if I was famous. I found this unnerving at first, but with time I got used to it. There were a few comments about me being too full of myself, but I took no notice.' `I was inundated with job offers, and got calls from salons as far away as New York and Sweden. But although I love hairdressing, I was put off going in as a junior on account of their being so poorly paid. However,. I'm now saving up to go travelling by working in a salon, and I'm thinking about trying to start a career in TV presenting.' `When I agreed to do Faking It, I had no idea how much I was signing my life away, but I couldn't say I have any regrets. The thing is that I've discovered growing up on a farm doesn't mean I can't work in a creative field. What's more, I've now got choices I didn't realise I had, which is brilliant. Although I still keep in contact with everyone from Trevor's salon, and we all go out when I'm in London, I'm hardly a celebrity anymore.' 58. Why did Gavin first apply to be on the programme? A. He thought it would be fun.

B. He liked the idea of going to London.

C. His friends managed to talk him into it.

D. He had some experience of hairdressing.

59. The phrase `got on like a house on fire' (paragraph 3) suggests that Gavin and Trevor A. frequently argued about things.

B. only did the more interesting jobs.

C. shared the same very high standards.

D. enjoyed the experience of working together.

60. How did Gavin feel about the hairdressing mistake he made one day? A. sorry that the client was dissatisfied.

B. relieved that the client didn't notice it .

C. pleased that he was able to find a solution.

D. annoyed by the reaction of the camera crew .

61. How did Gavin feel on the day of his final test? A. unsure if he was good enough.

B. worried that he might not succeed.

C. unconvinced that the client was really happy.

D. disappointed by the feedback from the judges

62. Thinking about the final test now, Gavin feels that he A. was too slow in completing the haircut. B. didn't take enough notice of his client's wishes. C. was unjustly criticised for one aspect of his performance. D. should have paid more attention to things he'd been taught. 63. What does the word 'it' in (paragraph 6) refer to? A. people making comments about Gavin.

B. people looking at Gavin in the street.

C. Gavin feeling proud of himself.

D. Gavin feeling uncomfortable.

64. Gavin decided not to start a career in hairdressing because Page 7 of 10

A. he got work as a TV presenter.

B. he didn't want to leave London.

C. he wanted to see the world first.

D. he felt he wouldn't earn enough.

65. Looking back on the whole experience, Gavin now A. wishes he'd thought more carefully before applying. B. realises that his life is different as a result. C. appreciates his farm upbringing more. 58

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D. accepts that it's helped him socially. 62

63

64

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III/ WRITING: (25 points) PART 1: (5pts) For questions 66-70, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. Here is an example: Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? objections Do you have any objections to my watching you while you paint? 66. It won't hurt to tell your boss how you feel. lose You have .............................................................................................................. your boss how you feel. 67. It was only because of Sarah's quick reactions that we weren't injured. it If...............................................................................Sarah's quick reactions, we would have been injured. 68. He did not pay any attention to the numerous warning letters he received. notice He ..............................................................................................the numerous warning letters he received. 69. The meeting wasn't nearly as bad as I had anticipated. turned The meeting......................................................................................be much better than I had anticipated. 70. A child will be expelled from the school only as a last resort. else Only if.................................................................................................. be expelled from the school. PART 2: I. You recently saw this advertisement in the local newspaper. “We need enthusiastic young people to help us organise a series of music festivals. Write and tell us why you think you would be good for this job. Describe any experience you have in organising events and say how much time you could offer us during the summer.” Page 8 of 10

Write your letter of application in 120-180 words. Do not write your name and postal adresses.(10 pts) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………....... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..…......... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………....... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... II. Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic: (10 pts) You have decided to give several hours of your time each month to improve the community where you live. What is one thing you will do to improve your community? Why? Use specific reasons and details to explain your choice. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. Page 9 of 10

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..….... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………....... ………………………………………………………………………………………………………...... -- The End --Page 10 of 10

UBND TP CẦN THƠ SỞ GIÁO DỤC& ĐÀO TẠO ------------

CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM Độc lập - Tự do - Hạnh phúc --------------------

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT CẤP THÀNH PHỐ - NĂM HỌC 2012-2013 NGÀY 16 /10/2012 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN ANH VĂN I/ LISTENING: (15 points) 1p for 1 correct answer x 15 = 15 points Part 1: 1. an apple pies 2.childcare 3. (children’s) nanny 4. six months

5. Indian 6. fashion model 7. service 8. website

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

B

A

C

A

C

B

C

Part 2:

II/ LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (20 points) PART 1: 10 pts 16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

A

C

D

D

B

A

B

A

C

D

PART 2: (10 pts) 26 FACIAL

31 INVOLUNTARILY

27 POETICALLY

32 LOATHING

28 SLYNESS

33 CHARACTERISTICS

29 HONESTY

34 UNKNOWN

30 SENSUALITY

35 SUSPICION(S)

III/ READING: (30 pts) 1p for 1 correct answer x 30 = 30 points Part 1: (15 pts) 36 A

37

38

C 44

D

B

Part 2: (7 points) 51 52 53 B H D

B

48 D

55 C

42

A

47 C

54 A

41

A

46

B

40

C

45

D

39

56 G

43 C

49

50

D

C

57 F

Part 3: ( 8 points) 58

59

60

61

62

63

64

65

A

D

C

B

C

B

D

B

III/ WRITING: ( 25 POINTS) Part 1: Sentence transformation (5 points) 66. It won't hurt to tell your boss how you feel. lose You have NOTHING/ LITTLE TO LOSE BY TELLING your boss how you feel. 67. It was only because of Sarah's quick reactions that we weren't injured. it If HADN’T BEEN FOR Sarah's quick reactions, we would have been injured. 68. He did not pay any attention to the numerous warning letters he received. notice He TOOK NO NOTICE OF / DIDN’T TAKE ANY NOTICE OF the numerous warning letters he received. 69. The meeting wasn't nearly as bad as I had anticipated. turned The meeting TURNED OUT TO BE be much better than I had anticipated. 70. A child will be expelled from the school only as a last resort. else Only if ALL ELSE FAILS WILL A CHILD be expelled from the school.

Part 2: Composition (25 points) I. You recently saw this advertisement in the local newspaper. “We need enthusiastic young people to help us organise a series of music festivals. Write and tell us why you think you would be good for this job. Describe any experience you have in organising events and say how much time you could offer us during the summer.” Write your letter of application in 120-180 words. Do not write your name and postal addresses.(10 pt) - reasons why you are good for the job (3) - experience of organizing events (3) - availability during the summer (3)

-

cách dùng từ, ngữ pháp 1

II. Write a composition of about 200-250 words on the following topic: (10 pts) You have decided to give several hours of your time each month to improve the community where you live. What is one thing you will do to improve your community? Why? Use specific reasons and details to explain your choice.

-

Organization (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (1pts) Discourse (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (5pts) Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2pts ) Ideas (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (2pts) TOTAL:

100 / 5 = 20

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO VĨNH PHÚC ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - CHUYÊN Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề Ngày thi: 25/10/2013 Đề thi gồm 08 trang

PART A. LISTENING Section 1 Question 1-10. A woman is making inquiries about a business course. Listen to the telephone conversation and complete each gap with no more than THREE words. You will hear this recording TWICE BUSINESS NATIONWIDE Courses available: Name of course (0 ) getting started. Time: Two hours from (1)…………………………………….. Cost : Free Course content: Is starting a business right for me? Writing a (2)………………………………………………….. Some legal issues. Nearest location: Handbridge. Next course date: 20th March. Name of course (3)……………………………………………. Length of course (4)……………………………………………. Cost (5)……………………………………or £20 for recently unemployed. Course content: Day One: Legal issues Day Two: Marketing and pricing Day Three : Accounting and (6)……………………………….. Nearest location: Renton Next course date: 5th, March or (7) ……………………………….. CALLER’S DETAILS Name: (8)………………………………………. Address : (9)……………………… Eastleigh Email : (10)………………………………….. Section 2 Listen to a podcast on Camber’s Theme Park and choose the best answers to the questions that follow. You will hear this recording TWICE Questions 11 – 16: Choose the correct answer A, B, or C. Camber’s Theme Park 11. According to the speaker, in what way is Camber’s different from other theme parks? A. It’s suitable for different age groups. B. It offers lots to do in wet weather. C. It has a focus on education.

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12. The Park first opened in ________________. A. 1980 B. 1997 C. 2004 13. What’s included in the entrance fee? A. all rides and some exhibits B. parking and all rides C. most rides and parking 14. Becoming a member of the Adventurers Club means ________________. A. you can avoid queuing so much B. you can enter the Park free for a year C. you can visit certain zones closed to other people 15. The Future Farm zone encourages visitors to________________. A. buy animals as pets B. get close to the animals C. learn about the care of animals 16. When is hot food available in the park? A. 10.00 a.m. – 5.30 p.m. B. 10.30 a.m. – 5.00 p.m. C. 11.00 a.m. – 5.00 p.m. Questions 17 – 20 What special conditions apply to the following rides? Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter A – F next to the questions 17 – 20. Special conditions for visitors A. B. C. D. E. F.

Must be over a certain age Must be over a certain height Must use special safety equipment Must wear a particular type of clothing Must avoid it if they have health problems Must be accompanied by an adult if under 16

Rides 17. River Adventure __________________ 18. Jungle Jim Rollercoaster __________________ 19. Swoop Slide __________________ 20. Zip Go-carts __________________ PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Section 1: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. 1. Although she had never used a word-processor before, she got the __________________of it. A. feel B. touch C. swing D. hang 2. I caught the last bus by the skin of my __________________. A. mouth B. leg C. neck D. teeth 3. “What’s wrong with Guy today? He’s unusually quiet. “He’s got something on his __________________ I expect”. A. brain B. mind C. thoughts D. brow 4. I really must go and lie down for a while; I’ve got a __________________ headache. A. cutting B. splitting C. ringing D. cracking 5. The sky got very dark and soon it began to __________________ down. A. roar B. bath C. bucket D. pouring

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6. My father __________________ when he found out that I’d damaged the car. A. hit the roof B. saw pink elephants C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down 7. Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is_________________certain. A. at any rate B. by no means C. by all means D. by any chance 8. Because the owner wanted a quick sale, the house really went for _____________. It cost only $30,000. A. loose change B. a song C. a loaf of bread D. a smile 9. Stop __________________ about the bush, James! Just tell me exactly what the problem is. A. rushing B. hiding C. beating D. moving 10. You didn’t think I was being serious, did you Brian? It was a joke! I was pulling your __________________. That’s all. A. thumb B. hair C. toe D. leg 11. He lost his job __________________ no fault of his own. A. through B. by C. with D. over 12. He was completely __________________ by her tale of hardship. A. taken away B. taken down C. taken in D. taken up 13. The lecture was rather boring, but the __________________ discussion proved fruitful. A. subsequent B. latter C. consecutive D. successive 14. Sometimes I’m so hungry in the middle of the night __________________ I eat a whole packet of biscuits. A. and B. that C. so D. than 15. The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air, __________________. A. more heat it retains B. than it retains more heat C. it retains more heat D. the more heat it retains 16. He wasn’t sure whether he’d be any good at hang-gliding, but actually he __________ immediately. A. took after it B. took it to C. took to it D. took it back 17. There were __________________accidents during the holiday weekend that the government is bringing in tough new driving laws. A. so much B. many C. such D. so many 18. We all agreed that the restaurant was __________________ we expected it to be. A. so good that B. even better than C. the best that D. good as 19. He was so tired of mowing the lawn so he __________________ one of his sons to do it. A. had B. let C. made D. got 20. __________________ other cells in the body, nerve cells are not healed or replaced when they are damaged or destroyed. A. Different B. Unlikely C. Unlike D. But Section 2: Identify the ten mistakes in the following passage and then correct them. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (√). THE BIG SLEEP Since the time immemorial we have put our trust in a good night’s

0- The- Ø

sleep to help us look and feel better. And with good reason: sleep 0. √ restores the body, builds out muscles, strengthens bones and the 1. __________________ immune system and helps skin cell to regenerate. But just how much 2. __________________ sleep we really need is a matter of debating. Back in the 19th century 3. __________________ King Alfred the Great was the first to decide that a third of the day- 4. __________________

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eight hours- should be spent in sleeping. Though we still use Alfred’s 5. __________________ idea like a yardstick, we all find the sleep patterns which suit us best. 6. __________________ While it’s true that too much or too little of sleep can cause headaches, 7. __________________ drowsiness, lack of energy and irritability, it’s the quality of sleep 8. __________________ rather than the quaintity, which matters. Since man’s earliest days, all 9. __________________ sorts of medicines and drugs has been tried to achieve deep, 10. __________________ untroubled sleep. However, to get away from artificial methods, 11. __________________ exercising during the day and avoiding such indigestible food, caffeine- 12. __________________ filled drinks and alcohol just before bedtime can help you to sleep 13. __________________ better. And the right kind environment is very important. You need to 14. __________________ be in darkness, warm-but not too warm- and comfortable.

15. __________________

Section 3. Complete the following passage with the correct form of the words given in brackets. The medieval crusades, when Western European knights and (1. adventure) ________________attempted to seize Jerusalem from the hands of the Seljuk Turks, are widely (2. understand)__________________by most people in the West to be glamorous and heroic. True, the level of heroism was occasionally (3. impress) _______________, but in fact the crusaders were ignorant and (4. guide) _______________. For example, they viewed the Byzantine Emperor, through whose lands they had to travel, as an annoying (5. relevant) _______________, denying him even so much as a (6. consult) ________________role in the proceedings. In reality, his long experience of the Saracens had given him a(n) (7.consider) ________________knowledge of their fighting methods and politics. His advice, had the crusaders chosen to follow it, would have been absolutely (8. value) _______________. Instead, they (9. repeat) _______________dismissed it as (10. worth) _______________with the result that, despite initial success, the crusades eventually dwindled to ignominious failure. Section 4. Choose a suitable phrase verb in the correct tense or form to complete each sentence. stand for tell off go round run into root...to rub off pass…off get over break up make out. 1. She __________________ from a serious sickness recently. 2. He escaped by __________________himself__________________as a guard. 3. I couldn’t __________________what he had talked because I was not used to his accent.. 4. Her sense of fun has __________________on her children. 5. Embarrassment__________________her__________________the spot. 6. The school __________________ financial trouble when 100 percent of the staff went on strike. 7. There should be enough plates to __________________. 8. I was__________________ by the teacher because I hadn’t done my homework. 9. Brendan and Linda __________________two months ago, but they still talk to each other. 10. Those three letters are an abbreviation. They__________________ something.

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PART C. READING Section 1. Put a suitable word in each of the numbered gaps to complete the passage. Snails belong to a large group of animals (1) _______________mollusks. Snails have soft bodies that are (2) _______________by hard shells. Snails may be (3) ________________into two types: land snails and water snails. It is very important for the snail to keep its body (4) _______________. Otherwise, the snail will die. Land snails can therefore be found in damp and shady places. These snails are thus most (5) ________________on rainy days or at night as the weather is much cooler then. Most land snails feed on the leaves and buds of plants. Some snails feed on decaying plant material. Land snails are not divided into two separate (6) _______________. Their bodies produce both eggs and sperm. Such animals are said to be hermaphrodites. However, a land snail cannot reproduce by itself. The egg of a snail must be (7) _______________by the sperm of another snail to produce an offspring. Water snails do not have a problem keeping their bodies moist because they are always (8) _______________by water. Most water snails (9) _______________through lungs and thus have to come to the surface of the water to breathe. Like land snails, most water snails feed on plants. Some water snails are freshwater species, while others live in the sea. The shells of snails (10) _______________live in the sea are often very colourful. Section 2. Choose the best answer from the four options given to complete each numbered gap in the passage below. LONDON- THE STUDENT’S CAPITAL? London is the city which seems to draw people like a magnet from across the country every year, not to (1) __________________ from around the world. London is cool, fashionable and multi-cultural. For the building student, it is the most incredible arts, academic and entertainment Mecca. London is one of the few real student capitals of the world. Despite the grim, the (2) __________________ costs, the troublesome transport system, and the (3) __________________ sensation of living with eight million people, students (4) __________________ to the city’s universities. However, rents are steep, with students paying around £ 75 a week for a room in a (5) _______________ house. Halls of residence are a little over the price- but of course include meals and (6)________________. Work is plentiful at the moment though, so part-time job should be easy to (7) ________________across, and there are all sorts of graduate opportunities with the best (8) __________________of pay in the country. The London institutions try to play (9) __________________ the cost of living so as not to (10) __________________off future students, but there is no doubt about it, London costs money and you will be looking at a sizeable debt on graduating. 1. A. say B. include C. utter D. mention 2. A. peak

B. high

C. money

D. extreme

3. A. overestimated

B. overawed

C. overwhelming

D. overloaded

4. A. stem

B. wave

C. pounce

D. flock

5. A. divided

B. parted

C. shared

D. separated

6. A. invoices

B. bills

C. costs

D. receipts

7. A. put

B. get

C. do

D. come

8. A. rates

B. terms

C. conditions

D. means

9. A. up

B. at

C. out

D. down

10. A. set

B. run

C. write

D. put

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Section 3. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows.

Subversive Art Subversive political and social messages are a mainstay of the art community. In most modern democratic nations, where free speech is considered an inalienable right, such subversive art is easily found. American film is a fine example of this. Many American films are openly critical of American society and its values. Apocalypse Now, a film about the Vietnam War, is a withering attack on America's involvement and conduct in that conflict. In a more modern setting, AfricanAmerican film director Spike Lee makes films which depict America as a racist and unjust society. Other arts are filled with examples of subversive art as well. There are countless paintings and sculptures which openly attack Christianity and other values which are considered to be core aspects of America's identity. Punk Rock, which originated in England, derided many of England's most sacred of social values. Most famously, the 1970s punk band The Sex Pistols frequently sang songs about overthrowing the government, even going so far as to describe the Queen of England as subhuman. Not all subversive art is as upfront in its social criticism. Much of subversive art is quietly subversive. There are a number of reasons for this. The first is, of course, economics. An artist who is too open or too vehement in his or her criticism of society may find it hard to find an audience willing to pay for such art. In some societies there may be a fear of retribution, either by the government or by individual society members offended by the artist's message. Nor are such fears unfounded. Author Salman Rushdie was forced to go into hiding after he wrote a book that Muslims took to be critical of their religion. Therefore, the subversive messages in art are often hidden. One common method of hiding subversive messages in one’s art is through the use of an unreliable or untenable viewpoint. In this method, the artist actually presents a viewpoint that is in opposition to his or her own, but does so in such a way as to render that viewpoint unbelievable in the eyes of the audience. American author Mark Twain was a master at this. The narrator in his most famous novel is a young boy named Huck Finn. Huck supports the values of his society. For example, one of the justifications used by Americans to keep Africans enslaved was that they were somehow less human than whites. There is a scene in which Huck finds his friend Jim, a runaway slave, crying to himself because he misses his children whom he has left behind in slavery. Huck is surprised by this, and comments that it seems remarkable that Jim, a slave, could feel sadness for the loss of his children in the same way a white person would. This observation is so absurd that it discredits the entire notion of slaves somehow being less human than their masters. Mark Twain was not the only artist to hide the subversive nature of his work. In earlier times, prior to the printing press and the mass production of posters, artists depended on the support of wealthy individuals to make their living. A rich noble who appreciated the work of an artist would become his or her patron and support the artist. In return the artist was generally expected to create art that the patron approved of, and herein was the problem. These wealthy nobles represented the social elite, which in most cases was exactly the element of society which artists wished to criticize. One could hardly expect a patron to pay for art that was openly critical of his social class, so artists became experts in concealing the subversive message in their art. A close look at any of the great artists of history, da Vinci, Shakespeare, Milton, etc. will reveal many hidden elements of social subversion.

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1. In paragraph 1, all of the following are mentioned as examples of subversive art EXCEPT____ A. anti-war films B. songs of rebellion C. highly sexual poetry D. blasphemous sculpture 2. According to paragraph 2, what is the role of economics in subversive art? A. It limits the candor with which artists express themselves. B. It creates a market for increasingly shocking art. C. It encourages people not to buy subversive art. D. It encourages artists to be upfront in their social criticism. 3. Based on the information in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that subversive art_________________. A. is often highly profitable for the artist B. often evokes strong emotional reactions C. is often banned by many governments D. is mostly focused on religious topics 4. The word “retribution” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______________________. A. criticism B. rejection C. revenge D. anger 5. The word “untenable” in the passage is closest in meaning to ________________________ . A. complex B. untrustworthy C. obscure D. indefensible 6. According to paragraph 3, how did Mark Twain seek to subvert the values of his society? A. He used a highly unpopular narrator to discuss the topic of slavery. B. He presented the views of his opponents in a ridiculous fashion. C. He argued that slaves also held emotional attachments to their families. D. He described much of American society as evil and bitter. 7. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can be inferred about Mark Twain? A. He feared retribution from American society. B. He was the first author to practice subversive art. C. He opposed the American practice of slavery. D. He was forced into hiding for his political views. 8. The word “this” in the passage refers to __________________ . A. the fact that Jim misses his family B. the fact that Jim would leave his family in slavery C. the fact that slaves are considered less human than whites D. the fact that Mark Twain opposed the values of his society 9. Based on the information in paragraph 4, the term “patron” can best be explained as _________________ A. a person who loves art B. the target of subversive art C. a person who supports artists D. a noble who represents the social elite 10. According to paragraph 4, why was it especially important for early artists to hide the subversive nature of their art? A. The governments of that time were far less tolerant of criticism. B. The people they criticized were their sole source of income. C. They were unable to mass produce their art. D. There were very few patrons who approved of subversive art. PART D. WRITING Section 1: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be changed in any way. 1. You cannot choose which hotel you stay at on this package holiday. (OPTION) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 2. It wasn’t clear to us at the time how serious the problem was. (LITTLE) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 3. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (QUESTION)

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. Nobody expected her to lose the game, but she did. (AGAINST) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident. (PROMPT) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 6. My impression of her is that she is a very effective teacher. (STRIKES) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 7. I’m afraid there may be something missing from your report. (OVERLOOKED) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 8. I am sure the entertainer will cheer them all up. (BOUND) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 9. The coach’s tactics were directly responsible for the team defeat. (CONSEQUENCE) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 10. Don’t forget those who are at work on this lovely, sunny day! (SPARE) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Section 2. Essay writing Some people think that there are things individuals can do to help prevent global climate change. Others believe that action by individuals is useless and irrelevant and that it is only governments and large businesses which can make a difference. Discuss both these views and give your own opinion. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write an essay of around 300 words. END OF THE TEST

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH VĨNH PHÚC LỚP 12 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Môn thi: Tiếng Anh-CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề Ngày thi: 25/10/2013 (Đáp án có 02 trang) PART A. LISTENING.(20ps) Section 1: 10 pts. One for each correct answer. 1. 6pm-8pm 6. bookkeeping

2. business plan 7. 18th April

3. Business Basics 8. Lila Park

4. 3 days

5. £80

9. 39 White Lane

10. [email protected]

Section 2: 10 pts. One for each correct answer. 11.C 16.C

12.B 17.F

13.C 18.C

14.A 19.D

15.B 20.B

PART B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts) Section 1: 10pts. One for each correct answer 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C

6. A

7. B

8. B

9. C

10. D

11. A

16. C

17. D

18. B

19. D

20. C

12. C

13. A

14. B

15. D

Section 2: 10 pts. Half a point for each mistake successfully identified, and half a point for each mistake successfully corrected. Line 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 Mistake out cell debating in like of quaintity has such kind Correct Ø cells debate √ Ø as Ø √ quantity have √ Ø √ Ø

15

√

Section 3: 5 pts. Half a point for each correct answer 1.adventurers 3.impressive 5.irrelevance 7. considerable 9.repeatedly 2. understood 4.misguided 6.consultative 8.invaluable 10.worthless Section 4: 5 pts Half a point for each correct answer 1.has got over 2.passing…off 3.make out 4.rubbed off 5. rooted…to 6.ran into 7.go round 8.told off 9.broke up 10. stand for. PART C. READING. (25ps) Section 1: 5 pts. Half a point for each correct answer 1.called 2.protected/covered 3. classified/ divided/ grouped 4.moist/ wet 5. active 6. sexes

7.fertilized



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8.surrounded

9.breathe

10. which/ that

Section 2: 10pts. One for each correct answer. 1.D 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.B Section 3: 10pts. One for each correct answer 1. C 2.A 3.B 6.B 7.C 8.A PART D. WRITING. (25ps). Section 1: 10 pts. One for each correctly formed sentence.

7.D

4.C 9.C

8.A

9.D

10.D

5.D 10.B

1. There is/ You have no option concerning/ with regard to/ as to/ regarding which hotel you stay/ to stay at on this package holiday. 2. Little did we know how serious the problem was. 3. There is no question of my changing my mind about resigning. My changing my mind about resigning is out of the question. 4. Against everyone’s expectation, she lost the game./ That she won the game was against all expectations./ Against all expectations, she won the game. 5. The policeman’s prompt action averted an accident. 6. What strikes me (about her) is that she is a very effective teacher./ She strikes me as a very effective teacher. 7. I’m afraid you may have overlooked something in your report. 8. The entertainer is/ will be bound to cheer them all up. / They are bound to be cheered up by the entertainer. 9. The team’s defeat was a/the direct consequence of the coach’s tactics. The direct consequence of the coach’s tactics was the team’s defeat. 10. Spare a/some thought for those who are at work / working on this lovely, sunny day. Section 2: Essay writing: 15 pts Task Accuracy Content Complexity of General impact Total achievement language used on reader 3.5 3.5 3.5 3.5 1 15 The key provided is best used as a guideline during the marking of the papers. Still, there are cases when there might be more than one acceptable answer (e.g. in section 1, part c; section 1-2, part d). In the circumstances, it is advisable that the examiners discuss thoroughly with each other before deciding on the relevance of the students’ answers. THE END

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO VĨNH PHÚC

KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT - NĂM HỌC 2013-2014

Môn: TIẾNG ANH - THPT ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Thời gian: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề. Ngày thi: 25/10/2013. Đề thi gồm 05 trang.

PART A - LISTENING: Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 10th – 22nd July

HOLIDAY RENTALS: Dates: Example Name of Property

Location

(1) _______

Kingfisher

Sunnybanks

Rural surrounded by fields rural next to the (4)________ nice views in a village next to the (7)________

Features apartment two bedrooms open plan house three bedrooms (5)________ room living room kitchen house has a private (8)_________

Disadvantage(s)

Booking details

distance from (2)________

www. (3)_________.com

expensive?

phone the owner (6)____________

no (9)__________

contact the (10)__________

PART B - PHONETICS Identify the word whose main stress is different from that of the others in each group. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 1. A. documentary B. environmental C. characteristic D. mathematician 2. A. abstract B. cater C. career D. access 3. A. cartoon B. typhoon C. hurricane D. beloved 4. A. opinion B. appropriate C. miracle D. miraculous 5. A. audience B. entrance C. definite D. suppress PART C - LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. 1. Tom: “Fancy seeing you again!”

Mary: “____________________”

A: Yes, we must

B: Yes, nice to see you again!

C. How do you do?

D. Pleased to meet you.

1

2. I was so tired that I ____________ on the sofa and went to sleep. A. dropped in

B. flaked off

C. glazed over

D. stretched out

3. Her parents were very ____________ because she was out so late that night. A. responsible

B. sorry

C. worried

D. overcome

4. After a lot of difficulties, he _______________ to open the door. A. managed

B. succeeded

C. obtained

D. realized

C. underlook

D. underestimate

C. detect

D. deter

5. Parents tend to ___________ their children. A. underfeed

B. underdose

6. I could ___________ a note of panic in his voice. A. desist

B. detest

7. Your progress will be ____________ in six months’ time. A. counted

B. evaluated

C. valued

D. enumerated

8. Let me give you a(n) ___________ of advice, my son. A. blade

B. pair

C. article

D. piece

9. She is _____________ I am surprised she didn’t go into music professionally. A. such good pianist C. too good a pianist that

B. so good a pianist that D. a pianist so good

10. You ______________ me, because I didn’t say that. A. must misunderstand C. must have misunderstood

B. must be misunderstanding D. had to misunderstand

II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 1. The girl sitting next to Mike smiles very _________, doesn’t she?

ATTRACT

2. He was a very _________ pupil and seemed to spend most of the time

ATTEND

looking out of the window. 3. He hoped that she had remained the same so that he could renew her _________ ROMANTIC that he had always cherished. 4. Some poor families are unable to meet their _________ needs.

BASE

5. Their wedding marked the time they entered into the _________ of marriage.

PARTNER

6. I am _________ fond of watching her play tennis.

PARTICULAR

7. I need a car that is _________ and reliable.

ECONOMY

8. Widows may _________ if they like or if they find the right man.

MARRY

9. Peter says he is _________ fed up with the government.

TOGETHER

10. I told you _________ not to write your answers in pencil, Smith!

SPECIFIC

2

III. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning. Transfer your answers to your answer sheet. Can I add some comments to your to debate about the value of television? Your readers may find that some of my views reflect exactly of their own experience in this matter. First of all, I heartily agree with your reader Mrs Goldwood who she wrote that she has decided to abandon her television set in protest at the mind-boggling boredom of medical dramas, soaps and flyon-the-wall documentaries. Six months ago I decided that enough was that enough, and took my set to the rubbish tip where it belongs. I can assure to Mrs Goldwood that she will not miss with hers. Since getting rid of mine, I have discovered that there are far more than interesting serials on the radio. I think that she will also find herself is reading more, and at least with books you can choose what kind of story you want to follow, instead of being at the mercy of the programme planners. I am sure that other readers can confirm that life after The Box is

0 ……to…………. 00 …√…………… 1 ………………… 2 …………………. 3 …………………. 4 …………………. 5 …………………. 6 …………………. 7 …………………. 8 …………………. 9 ……………….… 10…………………

richer and more rewarding. PART D: READING I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936, she was hired by the U.S Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life. Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews, but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us, which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers. In 1962, Carson published Silent Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds and fish, and contaminate human food. At the time, spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963 report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee. 1. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ___________. A. as a researcher B. at college C. at the U.S Fish and Wildlife Service D. as a writer 2. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins University? A. Oceanography

B. History

C. Literature

D. Zoology

3

3. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of ________. A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45 4. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1952, Carson’s book Under the Sea Wind _______. A. was outdated B. became more popular than her other books C. was praised by critics D. sold many copies 5. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information for The Sea Around Us? A. Printed matter B. Talks with experts C. A research expedition D. Letters from scientists 6. Which of the following words or phrases is LEAST accurate in describing The Sea Around Us? A. Highly technical B. Poetic C. Fascinating D. Well researched 7. The word reckless in bold is closest in meaning to __________. A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible 8. According to the passage, Silent Spring is primarily ________. A. an attack on the use of chemical preservatives in food B. a discussion of the hazards insects pose to the food supply C. a warning about the dangers of misusing insecticides D. an illustration of the benefits of the chemical industry 9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word flawed in bold? A. faulty B. deceptive C. logical D. offensive 10. Why does the author of the passage mention the report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee in the last sentence? A. To provide an example of government propaganda. B. To support Carson’s ideas. C. To indicate a growing government concern with the environment. D. To validate the chemical industry’s claims. II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. Family life has always been extremely important in Chinese culture. For thousands of years, the Chinese people practiced loyalty (1)_______ family, obedience to the father and respect for ancestors. Chinese philosophy and religion emphasized these values. However, social and economic changes in (2)_______ late 1900’s had affected Chinese traditional family values. Relationships within families have become less formal and parents no (3)_______ except their children to show unquestioning obedience. In the past, parents arranged marriages for their children and chose (4)_______ the children would marry. Many young people today (5)_______ their own marriage partners, although usually with the consent of their parents. Parents still help arrange some marriages in rural areas. Chinese families traditionally valued sons far more than (6) _______. A husband could divorce his wife if she failed to give birth to sons. Today, social policy in China stresses that families should value girls and (7) ________ equally. The government strongly supports the idea that women should contribute to the family income and (8) ________ in social and political activities. Women do many kinds of work (9) ______ the home. Many young husbands share in the shopping, housecleaning, cooking and caring for the children. However, equality between the sexes is more widely accepted in the cities (10)_______ in the countryside.

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III. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D to complete each numbered gap in the passage below. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. We send our children to school to prepare them (1) ______ the time when they will be big and will have to work for themselves. They learn their own language (2) ______ they will be able to tell others clearly what they want and what they know and understand what others (3) ______ them. They learn foreign languages in order to be able to (4) ______ from what people in other countries written and said, and to make people from other countries understand what they themselves mean. They learn arithmetic to (5) ______ and to count things in their daily life, geography to know something about the world around them and history to know something about (6) ______ beings they meet every day. Nearly everything that they study at school has some practical use in their life and work. But is that the only (7) ______ why they go to school? No. There is more in education than just learn facts. We go to school above all to learn how to learn so that when we leave school we can (8) ______ to learn. A man who really know how to learn will always be (9) ______, because whenever he has to do something new which he has never had to do before, he will (10) ______ teach himself how to do it in the best way. 1. A. for 2. A. in order 3. A. say 4. A. gain 5. A. measure 6. A. man 7. A. cause

B. with B. so B. tell B. profit B. interpret B. mankind B. reason

C. about C. so that C. speak C. earn C. translate C. people C. evidence

D. on D. and D. talk D. benefit D. number D. human D. belief

8. A. repeat 9. A. capable 10. A. hardly

B. manage B. successful B. fastly

C. continue C. victorious C. closely

D. reach D. courageous D. rapidly

PART E: WRITING ( 2 points) I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 1. We’ll have to leave immediately at the end of the film. The moment_____________________________________ 2. I’ve only recently started wearing glasses. I didn’t _________________________________________ 3. My responsibility is to take out the garbage every day. I am ___________________________________________ 4. John doesn’t like other people telling him what to do at work. John doesn’t like _________________________________ 5. “Are you taking much money with you to France?” asked the sales manager The sales manager asked me ________________________ II. Topic writing. In about 150- 200 words, write a paragraph about one of your worst dreams that you have ever experienced. _____THE END_____

5

SỞ GD &ĐT VĨNH PHÚC

KÌ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HOC 2013-2014 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - THPT

PART A - LISTENING: 15 points – 1.5pt/ item 1. moonfleet 6. 01752669218

2. shops 7. sea

3. summerhouse(s) 8. garden

4. river 9. parking

5. dinning 10. agent

PART B - PHONETICS: 5 points – 1pt/ item 1. A

2.C

3.C

4.C

5.D

PART C - LEXICO-GRAMMAR – 30 points I: Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence: 10 pt - 1 pt/item 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. C II. 10 pt – 1pt/item 1. attractively 2. inattentive 6. particularly 7. economical III. 10pt - 1pt/item 1. of 6. that ( was that enough enough)

was

3. romanticism 8. remarry

2. she 7. to

4. basic 9. altogether

3. √ 8. with

4. √ 9. than

5. partnership 10. specifically

5. √ 10. is

PART D: READING ( 30 points) I. 10pt – 1pt/item 1. D 2. D 6. A 7. D

3. C 8. C

4. D 9. A

5. C 10. B

II. 10pt – 1pt/item 1. to 2. the 6. daughters 7. boys

3. longer 8. participate

4. whom 9. outside

5. choose 10. than

III. 10pt – 1pt/item 1. A 2. C 6. D 7. B

3. B 8. C

4. D 9. B

5. A 10. D

PART E: WRITING (20 points) I. 5pt – 1pts/item 1. The moment the film finishes/ has finished we’ll have to leave. 2. I didn’t wear/ start to wear glasses until recently. 3. I am responsible for taking out the garbage every day. 4. John doesn’t like being told what to do at work. 5. The sales manager asked me if/ whether I was taking much money with me to France. II. Topic writing. 15 points 1. Content: 8 points: a provision of all main reasons and examples as appropriate. 2. Language: 4 points: a variety of vocabulary and appropriate structures. 3. Presentation: 3 points: coherence, cohesion, and appropriate style. TOTAL: 100 points

6

Së GD&§T Qu¶ng Ninh

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2010-2011

§Ò thi chÝnh thøc

(Đề thi có 12 trang) Họ, tên và chữ ký của hai giám thị

M«n: TiÕng Anh Thêi gian lµm bµi: 180 phót, kh«ng kÓ thêi gian giao ®Ò SBD:

1:

2:

Ngµy thi: 15/11/2010 Hä, tªn thÝ sinh: Ngµy sinh: N¬i sinh: Häc sinh trường:

Sè ph¸ch:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Sè ph¸ch: §iÓm bµi thi: B»ng sè: ……..…. (B»ng ch÷: ………..…........………… ) Họ, tên và chữ ký của hai giám khảo: 1: ………………………

2: ………....…….……….

Ghi chó: ThÝ sinh tr¶ lêi ngay vµo bài thi nµy. NÕu viÕt sai ph¶i g¹ch bá råi viÕt l¹i. I. LISTENING (3,0 points) Activity 1: Listen to the director of the college talking about the school then answer the questions by circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right answer and complete the statements below. Use no more than THREE WORDS for each space. 1. The college’s firm aim is to be a __________________________ institution. 2. The college judges people on their __________________________ and commitment to study as much as __________________________. 3. Which statement about the students that the director has mentioned? A. Some students are seeking specific skills. B. Some are learning about the latest scientific knowledge. C. Some are seeking to develop their artistic abilities. D. Some are stretching their bodies. 4. How many teachers and staff are there at the college? A. 500 B. 800 C. 1,000 D. 1,500 5. Which word best describes the director’s speech? A. Informative B. Depressing C. Inspiring D. Amusing 6. Is it a congratulation speech? ............................................................ Indicate whether the following statements are accurate or not by writing "A" for the accurate statement; write "I" for inaccurate one and write "N" for no information. ____ 7. You may find a suitable course at the polytechnic college. ____ 8. The college specializes in a narrow range of subject areas. ____ 9. The college has a homogeneous student body. ____ 10. The college has the longest history of any school.

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Activity 2: You are going to hear four people asking for or giving information about flying. Listen and write "T" next to the sentence bellow if it is true and write "F" if it is false. ____ 1. The first speaker wants to spend a week in Canada. ____ 2. The charter flight to Toronto costs £450. ____ 3. The second speaker is extremely worried about possible delays. ____ 4. Her flight leaves Corfu at 3.23 on Saturday 25th. ____ 5. The third speaker has only got hand luggage. ____ 6. He'd prefer a no-smoking seat. ____ 7. The fourth speaker plans to travel alone. ____ 8. She is booking only just in time. Activity 3: You are going to hear two friends, Scott and Melissa, discussing fitness centre in their area. Listen and complete the information in the table below. Name 1. Sweatshop

What's available (1) ................................. weights

2. (4) ..................... gym, (5)............................, yoga (8) ........................, sauna 3. (7) .................... (9)....................., aerobics free car park

Price

Where

Phone number

(2)....................

Town centre

(3)..................

£180 a year

Near station

(6)..................

(10).....................

Out of town

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5,0 points)

Activity 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the sentences below. 1. General Custer was confident of victory despite being vastly _______ by the enemy. A. outnumbered B. outclassed C. overcome D. overtaken 2. The ministry refused to ________ the figures to the press. A. release B. leak C. show D. add 3. Steve _______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question. A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away D. threw in 4. Mr. Jones gave his sons some money to _______ them up in business. A. get B. set C. put D. make 5. _______ comes a time when you have to make a decision and stick to it. A. It B. Therefore C. There D. That 6. James had, _______, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house. A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least 7. Mr Nixon refused to answer the questions on the __________ that the manner was confidential. A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations 8. The lawyer insisted that his client _______ never have been arrested in the first place. A. should B. must C. ought D. would 9. As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to _______. A. fall away B. fall back C. fall over D. fall out 2

10. Can you take ______ of the shop while Mr. Bentall is away? A. management B. running C. charge D. operation 11. Jack and Christine wondered how the rumours had begun to _______. A. disseminate B. spread C. run D. develop 12. The forecasters take a glommy ________ of the economic future. A. regard B. aspect C. view D. outlook 13. I wish the neighbours _______ making so much noise. A. would stop B. will stop C. stopping D. stopped 14. Every worker gets an extra month’s salary as an end-of-year _______. A. bonus B. addition C. reward D. donation 15. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the _______ relatives. A. lamenting B. wailing C. complaining D. grieving Activity 2. Write the correct form of each word in capital letters on the right in the numbered spaces provided. (0) has been done as an example. ANCIENT PARK UNDER THREAT Pontefract Heritage Group is so concerned with the level of (0) vandalism at their ancient park that it has written to Council Leader Peter Box asking him to tackle the (1) ________________ worrying problem. In one of the most recent incidents, eight birch, ash and maple trees were sawn down. Pontefract’s bowling’s club is planning to create an (2) _________________ zone by fencing off the greens to prevent further (3) ________________ damage to them. These attacks come hot on the heels of damage inflicted on Pontefract Castle by gangs of youths who have ripped masonry (4) ___________________ from the ruins. Michael Holdsworth, Chairman of the Heritage group, yesterday commented: "(5) __________________ damage has occurred over several years in the gardens and action taken to stop the culprits entering at night has so far been (6) __________________. And it’s not just the bad (7) __________________ of teenagers which is wreaking havoc with the gardens. Adults misuse them too in the daytime by parking on the grass and flower-beds." Earlier this year, English Heritage gave the gardens Grade II status a site of (8) __________________ interest in a national register of parks and gardens. The gardens date back to the thirteenth century, when the land formed part of the monastery gardens of Pontefract’s Dominican Friary. Earning a place in the register means that the local council is required to make (9) ____________________ for the protection of the gardens. (10) _____________________, this means that more instrument is now needed to tackle the problems facing the gardens and provide much-needed facilities.

0. VANDAL 1. INCREASE 2. EXCLUDE 3. EXTEND 4. DISCRIMINATE 5. NOTICE 6. EFFECT 7. BEHAVE

8. HISTORY

9. PROVIDE 10. UNDERSTAND

Activity 3. In the following passage, there are 15 mistakes left. Read the passage carefully then underline them and correct all the words in the spaces. Line 2 is an example. 3

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

Lies, damned lies and awkward statistics temper the mood of the week as we listen the lastest snapshot of the country with the publication of Social Trends 22. For as their statistics chronicle when are probably the most rapid social changes in British history, we are surrounded by forces which will say black is white, if necessary, in order to deny the evidence through the figures. Basically what the survey tells them is this: marriage is in steep decline, divorce the highest outside Europe, marriage declining further still. Single persons living alone now account of more than a quarter of all households, lone-parent households are on the rise, and although the majority of parents stay still married, an astonishing 28 % of babies are now born without wedlock. Put all these in and you may be shaken, if not stirred. But then consider the more extraodinary figure of all. The percentage of households now living Kelloggs Comflakes style, with a married husband and stay-at-home-with-the-kids wife, is actually just a fraction over seven percent, but around 1,4m of our 19,5m households. In 1979, when the first statistics became available, the figure stood at nearly 12%, and since to there has been a persistent downward trend. It means, in other words, the dear little nuclear reactor, which was born of-and for-the industrial revolution, had gone. It did not even last 200 years. RIP.

Your answers: Line 1. 2. Example: listen – see 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Line 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

Activity 4. Fill in each of the sentences below with one phrasal verb by combining the verb “GO” or “TAKE” with one preposition in the box. Pay attention to the form of the verb in each sentence. Write your answers in the spaces provided. down

apart

in

down

off

off

up

ahead

for

away

1. I had to wait for permission from the town Council before I could ………………..….. with my plans. 2. The alarm ……………….…. when the burglars tried to open the door. 3. He really ……………………. her when she dared to criticize him. 4. The price of tomatoes usually …………….…..….. in summer in England. 5. I’m not very fit, so I’ve decided .……………………. an active hobby such as squash or jogging. 6. Why have you …………..…….….. all the pictures in the sitting room? Because I’m going to decorate it. 4

7. The new pizza restaurant is a great success. It’s really ……………………... . 8. This skirt is very loose. I think I’ll have to ………….. it …………. at the waist. 9. I ………..…. the camera ………….….. from my eye and gazed unbelievingly. 10. Most of these machines have to be …………………….. to be cleaned. III. READING (6,0 points) Activity 1. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the right word to complete the passage below. Julie always thought of herself as an easy going and (1) ….…. person, who put up with people’s differences. She hardly ever became (2) ….…. about anything, and believed that if you treated people well, they would (3) …….. with you. That is, until Alex and Harry moved in next door. At first, when their music woke her in the night, she was just a bit (4) …….., but didn’t feel (5) …….. . She shrugged her (6) …….. and said to herself, “Never mind, I make a lot of noise sometimes. I’ll go round and (7) …….. in a way as nice as possible.” When she knocked at Alex and Harry’s door she said, “I’m not very (8) …….. on very loud music, to be (9) …….. . Do you think you could turn it down a bit?” They just (10) …….., and then Alex said, “You can think whatever you like, as far as we’re (11) ……..” then they shut the door in Julie’s face. By the end of the week, Julie felt angry, but was determined not to (12) …….. her temper. She had hardly slept, and kept (13) …….. all the time, but she kept busy. The next time she called next door, she gave Harry and Alex a present. “It’s just a cake I made for you. Please (14) …….. my apologies for the last time.” And that day the noise stopped. “What a (15) ……..”, thought Julie. “Now there’s some please and quiet and I can read my favourite book” “The history of poison”. 1. A. dull B. glad C. quarrelsome D. tolerant 2. A. upset B. helpful C. fascinating D. careless 3. A. scream B. like C. co-operate D. mind 4. A. furious B. irritated C. annoying D. thrilled 5. A. realistic B. guilty C. conscience D. offended 6. A. shoulders B. arms C. hands D. head 7. A. cry B. quarrel C. complain D. fall out 8. A. interested B. like C. happy D. keen 9. A. loud B. honest C. upset D. nervous 10. A. whispered B. cried C. waved D. grinned 11. A. concerned B. determined C. decided D. embarrassed 12. A. have B. lose C. shout D. break 13. A. blushing B. snoring C. yawning D. growling 14. A. accept B. take C. attempt D. invite 15. A. believe B. naughty C. shame D. relief Activity 2. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. For over two hundred years, scholars have shown an interest in the way children learn to speak and understand _______________ (1) first language. Several small-scale studies were ________________ (2) out, especially towards the end of the nineteenth century, using data recorded in parental diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin _________________ (3) the middle decades of the twentieth century, when the tape recorder ________________(4) into routine use. This made ________________ (5) possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts ________________(6) listen repeatedly to obscure sounds _________________ (7) thus produce a detailed and accurate description. 5

The problems _________________ (8) have to be solved when investigating child speech are quite different from _________________ (9) encountered when working with adults. It is not possible to carry out some kinds of experiments, because aspects of children's cognitive development, _______________ (10) as their ability to _________________ (11) attention or to remember instructions, may not be very advanced. Nor is it easy to get children to _________________ (12) systematic judgements about language - a _______________ (13) that is virtually impossible below the age of three. Moreover, ________________ (14) who has tried to make a tape recording of a representative sample of a child's speech knows _________________ (15) frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed to _________________ (16) off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on. Activity 3. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write the name of the country next to each question. THE EUROPEAN COMMUNITY A. Denmark. “Although foreigners living in Denmark often complain of nine months of winter and 12 months of high taxation, a survey of 124 nations conducted by Pennsylvania University ranks the country first in the world for quality of life. This has come as something of a surprise to most of Denmark's five million inhabitants who see their country's liberal image threatened by rising economic problems, racial tension caused by the arrival of Middle Eastern refugees and social unrest. But recent EEC polls also show the Danes as the most happy of all people in the Community, even if they do not wish to become too closely involved in it.” B. France. France, it would appear, is a nation that lives and dies for its automobile. "France has the most deadly roads in Europe. 11,000 are killed every year, and nearly 200,000 injured. It also has the rudest and most aggressive drivers. One third of drivers admitted that they sometimes shouted insults at other drivers. The worst offenders were drivers in the professional and senior white-collar classes and drivers aged from 18 to 34. Another major hazard on French roads are traffic jams, and they are getting worse. Three-quarters of French families own at least one car, and one in four owns two or more cars. Returning to Paris after a weekend in the country has become a nightmare with regular traffic jams of more than 30 kilometres." C. Italy. Italy is pictured as a place where public money always ends up in private pockets. “At a hospital in Sicily the windows are broken, the beds have no sheets and the patients ragged and barefoot. Yet according to the hospital's accounts, the patients gobble kilos of Parmesan cheese and consume litres of olive oil every day. Meanwhile Italy's railways have added up huge expenses on luxury travel and hotel suites for hundreds of employees to attend a transport exhibition in Vancouver. The delegation included wives, girlfriends, secretaries and executives who never set foot in Canada but went directly to Florida or the Bahamas.” D. Spain. In Spain, “...the preferred form of exercise is `Iberian yoga'. It involves stretching your stomach muscles to the maximum round a four-course meal and a bottle of wine. The exercise is difficult without wine as the sportsman is afterwards required to lie flat on his back and empty his mind of all useful thought. It takes about two hours to perform this, and at the end, a Spaniard may or may not feel the urge to return to his job that afternoon. The most beneficial effect of the yoga is that once rested, the Spaniard is strong enough to stay out until two in the morning, eating fried squid and gossiping with his friends.” 6

E. Germany. The Germans are presented not just as nationalists, but as a bunch of nationalist beer-drinkers. “We are not going to drink that imported stuff. The beer has got to be pure. I have been a regular in this pub for 35 years and I don't know a single person who would drink it. It's all chemicals. The beer-drinkers of West Germany are agreed. The European Court can force them to let that nasty foreign beer into their country, but it cannot make them drink it. Beer makes up a quarter of the average German man's diet. Therefore the additives used in other countries could endanger his health. At least, so runs the argument put forward by the Bavarian brewers.” Of which country is it said that people...............? 1. shout insults at each other 2. go to bed late 3. are contented 4. confuse public and private money 5. have a liquid diet 6. complain about the weather 7. take a long time getting home at the weekend 8. don't want additives 9. have a high quality of life 10. like to rest in the afternoon 11. rob the government Activity 4. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answers. The United States Constitution established a political system comprising a national and federal government. The new federal system accommodated the thirteen original state governments while establishing new bodies and powers designed to address national concerns. The national government created by the union of states stood above the state governments in specific national matters while acknowledging the role of the states or sharing power with them in other areas. State officials were required to take an oath to support the Constitution and the laws and treaties made under it as the supreme law. The constitution, a veritable work of genius, greatly enhanced the power of central government but carefully divided its functions into three distinct branchesexecutive, legislative, and judicial. The principle of separation of powers was applied throughout the document. Carefully measured checks and balances were inserted to prevent the acquisition or concentration of power in any one branch and also for the purpose of protecting minority nights from the potential rule of the majority. In their powers to amend the constitution and to elect the president and members of the Senate, the states also gained a role in applying checks and balances. 1. In line 6, the word “them” refers to A. national matters C. state officials B. the states D. national and federal government 2. According to the passage, state officials were required to take an oath to A. recognize the Constitution as a work of genius B. share power with the federal government C. support the Constitution D. protect minority rights 3. The word “amend” in line 14 could best be replaced by A. change B. balance C. enhance D. construct 4. The author of the passage is probably an expert in A. social science B. minority issues C. public housing D. political science 7

5. What is the author’s main purpose in the passage? A. to discuss one of the principal elements of the Constitution B. to mention the roles of state officials in government C. to persuade the state legislators to support the Constitution D. to summarize the role of the Senate. Activity 5. Read the following passage and answer the questions. TEACHING IN UNIVERSITIES In the 19 century, an American academic, Newman, characterized a university as: “a place of teaching universal knowledge.... (a place for) the diffusion and extension of knowledge rather than its advertisement.” Newman argued that if universities were not for teaching but rather for scientific discovery, then they would not need students. Interestingly, during this century, while still teaching thousands of students each year, the resources of most universities have been steadily channeled away from teaching into research activities. Most recently, however, there have been strong moves in both North America and the United Kingdom to develop initiatives that would enhance the profile of the teaching institutions of higher education. In the near future, therefore, as well as the intrinsic rewards gained from working with students and the sense that they are contributing to their overall growth development, there should soon be extrinsic rewards in the form of job promotion, for those pursuing academic excellence in teaching in universities. In the future, there will be more focus in universities on the quality of their graduates and their progression rates. Current degree courses, whose assessment strategies require students to learn by rote and reiterate the course material, and which do not require the student to interact with the material, or construct a personal meaning about it or even to understand the discipline, are resulting in poor learning outcomes. This traditional teaching approach doesn’t take into account modern theories of education, the individual needs of the learner, nor his or her prior learning experience. In order for universities to raise both the quality and status of teaching, it is first necessary to have some kind of understanding of what constitutes good practice. A 1995 report, complied in Australia, lists, eight qualities that researches agree are essential to good teaching. Good teachers .... A. are themselves good learners - resulting in teaching that is dynamic, reflective and constantly evolving as they learn more and more about teaching; B. display enthusiasm for their subject and the desire to share it with their students; C. recognize the importance of context and adjust their teaching accordingly; D. encourage deep learning approaches and are concerned with developing their students’ critical thinking skills, problem-solving skills and problem-approach behaviors; E. demonstrate an ability to transform and extend knowledge, rather than merely transmit it; F. recognize individual differences in their students and take advantage of these; G. set clear goals, use valid assessment techniques and provide high-quality feedback to their students; H. show respect for, and interest in, their students and sustain high expectations of them. th

8

In addition to aiming to engage students in the learning process, there is also a need to address the changing needs of the market place. Because in many academic disciplines the body of relevant knowledge is growing at an exponential rate, it is no longer possible, or even desirable, for an individual to have a complete knowledge base. Rather, it is preferable that he or she should have an understanding of the concepts and the principles of the subject, have the ability to apply this understanding to new situations and have the wherewithal to seek out the information that is needed. As the world continues to increase in complexity, university graduates will need to be equipped to cope with rapid changes in technology and to enter careers that may not yet be envisaged, with change of profession being commonplace. To produce graduates equipped for this workforce. It is essential that educators teach in ways that encourage learners to engage in deep learning which may be built upon in the late years of their course, and also be transferred to the workplace. The new role of the university teacher, then, is one that focuses on the students’ learning rather than the instructor's teaching. The syllabus is more likely to move from being a set of learning materials made up of lecture notes, to a set of learning materials made of print, cassettes, disks and computer programs. Class contact hours will cease to be the major determinant of an academic workload. The teacher will then be released from being the sole source of information transmission and will become instead more a learning manager, able to pay more attention to the development and delivery of education rather than content. Student-centered learning activities will also require innovative assessment strategies. Traditional assessment and reporting has aimed to produce a single mark or grade for each student. The mark is indented to indicate three things: the extent to which the learned material was mastered or understood; the level at which certain skills were performed and the degree to which certain attitudes were displayed. A deep learning approach would test a student's ability to identify and tackle new and unfamiliar: real world problems. A major assessment goal will be to increase the size and complexity of assignments and minimize what can be achieved by memorizing or reproducing content. Wherever possible, students will be involved in the assessment process to assist them to learn how to make judgments about themselves and their work. Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage? Write "T" next to the the statement if it agrees with the information; write "F" if it disagrees and write "N" if there is no information. _____ 1. Newman believed that the primary focus of universities was teaching. _____ 2. Job promotion is already used to reward outstanding teaching. _____ 3. Traditional approaches to assessment at degree level are having a negative effect on the learning process. _____4. University students have complained about bad teaching and poor results. Look at the eight qualities of “good teachers” in the passage. Write the letter A-H from the passage next to the quality statement with the same meaning. Good teachers _____ 5. can adapt their materials to different learning situations. _____ 6. assist students to understand the aims of the course. _____ 7. are interested in the developing the students as learners. _____ 8. treat their students with dignity and concern. _____ 9. continually improve their teaching by motoring their skills. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the best answer. 10. In the future, university courses will focus more on 9

A. developing students’ skills and concepts. B. expanding students’ knowledge. C. providing work experience for students. D. graduating large numbers of students. 11. According to the authors, university courses should prepare students to A. do a specific well. B. enter traditional professions. C. change jobs easily. D. create their own jobs. 12. The author believes that new learning materials in universities will result in A. more work for teachers. B. a new role for teachers. C. more expensive courses. D. more choices for students. 13. The author predicts that university assessment techniques will include more A. in-class group assignments. B. theoretical exams. C. problem-solving activities. D. student seminar presentations. IV. WRITING (6,0 points) Activity 1. Use the word in the brackets to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one. Don't change the form of the given words. 1. David went to see the bank manager about getting a loan. (view) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

2. She realized she had said something wrong. (conscious) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

3. I wish I know what to do about this problem. (solution) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

4. The storm resulted in the deaths of over 50 people. (caused) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

5. The station is within easy walking distance of the hotel. (easily) ..................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

Activity 2. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the one printed before it. 1. I won't agree until Tom's apologised. Only when .................................................................................................................................................................................................. 2. The residents get very angry when bicycles are left in the hallway. The residents all wish bicycles ............................................................................................................................................... 3. “John shouldn't have behaved so badly”, said Janet. Janet objected ......................................................................................................................................................................................... 4. Anna failed to understand how serious her illness was until she spoke to the doctor. Not until ...................................................................................................................................................................................................... ...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................

5. They set off to climb the mountain in spite of the fog. Although ............................................................................................................................................................................... 10

Activity 3. Look at the chart below and write about the number of tourists and revenue from tourism in Viet Nam from 1991 to 2005 (about 150 words). 18

35 16

16

30.3

30

14

9.6

10

17 15

14

5.5

6

10

3.5

8

4

0

20

8.5

8

2

25

11.2

12

1.5

1.4

1.7

1.5

2.1

5

0.3 0.8 1991

10

0 1995

1997

1998

2000

2005

Domestic tourists (in million) International tourists (in million) Revenue from tourism (in thousand billion VND)

............................................................................................................................................................................................................................ ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

11

Activity 4. The world is facing a dramatic increase in the number of natural disasters. This is a challenge for all nations around the world. Describe some of the causes and consequences of natural disasters and suggest possible solutions. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant ideas from your own knowledge or experience. You should write at least 250 words. ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... 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......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

----------------- the end ----------------12

Së GD&§T Qu¶ng Ninh

--------------------§Ò thi CHÍNH THỨC

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG CẤP TỈNH líp 12 THPT n¨m häc 2010 - 2011 ----------------------M«n: TiÕng Anh

I- Listening (3,0 điểm) Activity 1: (1,2 điểm). Câu 2 và câu 3 mỗi câu đúng 0,2 điểm. Mỗi câu còn lại 0,1 điểm. 1. student-centered/ centred 2. motivation/ formal qualification 3. A, B 4. C 5. A 6. No 7. A 8. I 9. I 10. N Activity 2: (0,8 điểm). Mỗi câu đúng 0,1 điểm. 1. T 2. F 3. F 4. F 5. F 6. T 7. F 8. T Activity 3: (1,0 điểm). Mỗi chỗ trống điền đúng 0,1 điểm. 1. (1) gym (2) £15 a month (3) 772438 2. (4) Body Matters (5) pool (6) 413992 (8) tennis courts, 3. (7) Fitness First (9) pool (10) £250 a year II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5,0 điểm) Activity 1. 1,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. A 15. D Activity 2. 1,0 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. increasingly 2. exclusive 3. extensive 4. indiscriminately 5. noticeable 6. ineffective 7. behaviour/behavor 8. historic/ historical 9. provision 10. Understandably Activity 3. 1,5 ®iÓm. Mçi từ ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. Line Line 1. 11. in – together 2. 12. more – most 3. when – what 13. married – working 4. which – who 14. but - or 5. through – of 15. 6. them – us 16. 7. outside – in 17. to – then 8. of more – for more; 18. reactor – family 9. stay – are 19. had - has 10. without – outside Activity 4. 1,0 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. go ahead 2. went off 3. went for 4. goes down 5. to take up 6. taken down 7. taken off 8. take .… in 9. took …. away 10. taken apart III. READING (6,0 ®iÓm) Activity 1. 1,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. D 13

Activity 2. 1,6 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. their/ the 2. carried 3. until 4. came 5. it 6. could 7. and 8. that 9. those 10. such 11. pay 12. make/express 13. task 14. anyone 15. how 16. switch/turn Activity 3. 1,1 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. B. France 2. D. Spain 3. A. Denmark 4. C. Italy 5. E. Germany 6. A. Denmark 7. B. France 8. E. Germany 9. A. Denmark 10. D. Spain 11. C. Italy Activity 4. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. A Activity 5. 1,3 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. T 2. F 3. T 4. N 5. C 6. G 7. D 8. H 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. C IV. WRITING (6,0 ®iÓm) Activity 1. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. David went to see the manager with a view to getting a loan. 2. She was conscious of having said something wrong. 3. I wish I had the solution to this problem. 4. The deaths of over fifty people were caused by the storm/ The storm caused the deaths of over fifty people. 5. You can walk to the station easily from the hotel. Activity 2. 0,5 ®iÓm. Mçi c©u ®óng 0,1 ®iÓm. 1. Only when Tom’s apologized will I agree. 2. The residents all wish bicycles were not left in the hallway. 3. Janet objected to John’s bad behaviour/ to John behaving so badly. 4. Not until Ann spoke to the doctor did she understand how serious her illness was. 5. Although it was foggy, they (still) set off to climb the mountain. Activity 3. 2,0 ®iÓm. Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần: + Mở bài (nêu được biểu đồ nói về sự gia tăng khách du lịch nội địa, khách du lịch quốc tế và doanh thu từ du lịch ở Việt Nam từ năm 1991 đến năm 2005) – 0,25 điểm; + Thân bài (so sánh sự gia tăng khách du lịch nội địa và khách quốc tế với sự tăng doanh thu từ du lịch qua các năm 1991, 1995, 1997, 1998, 2000 và 2005) – 1,5 điểm; + Kết luận (tóm tắt nội dung chính của bài và dự đoán sự tăng doanh thu từ du lịch trong các năm tiếp theo) – 0,25 điểm. Nếu thí sinh viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn (khoảng 150 từ) mới cho điểm tối đa. Activity 4. 3,0 điểm. Yêu cầu thí sinh viết thành bài văn hoàn chỉnh gồm 3 phần: + Mở bài (nêu khái quát về sự gia tăng các thảm họa thiên nhiên trên thế giới) – 0,5 điểm; + Thân bài (nêu các hậu quả của thảm họa thiên nhiên, phân tích nguyên nhân gây ra thảm họa và gợi ý biện pháp nhằm hạn chế thảm họa thiên nhiên) – 2,0 điểm; + Kết luận (tóm tắt nội dung chính của bài và ý kiến của tác giả về vấn đề này) – 0,5 điểm. Nếu thí sinh viết đúng chủ đề, đúng ngữ pháp, dùng từ chuẩn xác, diễn đạt mạch lạc, không sai lỗi chính tả, không quá ngắn (khoảng 250 từ) mới cho điểm tối đa. TỔNG SỐ: 20 ĐIỂM 14

UBND TỈNH KONTUM SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HSG QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2009- 2010

Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 16/12/2009

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

(Học sinh làm bài trên giấy thi) Họ và tên:_________________________ Số báo danh:_______________________ ĐỀ: (Đề thi này gồm 4 câu 12 trang) I. LISTENING (3 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU Bài nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần. Mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi lần nghe có tín hiệu chuông Sau mỗi phần nghe có 1 khoảng lặng. Bài nghe mới được báo hiệu bằng tín hiệu chuông Sau bài nghe cuối (phần 2), sẽ có một khoảng lặng và kết thúc bằng tín hiệu nhạc

Part 1: Questions 1-10 (1 point) In this section, you will hear two people talking about their findings on a survey of leisure activities of 100 people aged 16-30. Listen and complete the table below Leisure activities 1. Playing video games 2. Going for a run or to the gym 3. Going to the cinema 4. (4)___________ a video or a DVD 5. Reading a newspaper or magazine 6. Going for a walk 7. Going to a restaurant 8. Listen to music 9. Listen to the radio 10. Playing a musical instrument

Percentage (1) ___________ (2) ___________ (3) ___________ (5) ___________ (6) ___________ (7) ___________ (8) ___________ (9)

___________ __________

(10)

Part 2: Questions 11- 20 (2 points) Listen and choose the best answer by circling A, B, or C 11. Statement 11. (A) (B) (C) 12. Statement 12. (A) (B) (C) 1

13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Statement 13. Statement 14. Statement 15. Statement 16. Statement 17. Statement 18. Statement 19. Statement 20.

(A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A) (A)

(B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B) (B)

(C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C) (C)

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7 points) Part 1: (1 point) Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box 21. I read in the newspaper that there has just been a___________ against the government in Transylvania. A. relevant B. revolting C. revolution D. revolver 22. You have to be rich to send your child to a private school because the fees are___________ A. astronomical B. aeronautical C. astrological D. atmospherical 23. Does that newspaper___________ the government or oppose it? A. advantage B. assist C. encourage D. support 24. You’ll get a free month’s subscription___________ you renew your membership by the end of January. A. unless B. however C. were D. provided 25. The electorate will not easily forgive the government for failing to fulfill its___________ A. promises B. vows C. aspirations D. offers 26. The ship broke___________ and the people were drowned. A. out B. out of the sea C. into pieces D. to pieces 27. Doctors advise people being deficient___________ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables. A. in B. of C. from D. for 28. Because I am terrified of___________ spaces, I never go in lifts. A. contained B. compressed C. constricted D. confined 29. In a four-hour operation, surgeons managed to sew the girl’s___________ hand back on. A. cut B. grazed C. crushed D. severed 30. Even though I hadn’t spoken English for many years, I picked it___________ again after a few weeks. A. on B. over C. up D. through 2

Your answers 21. 26.

22. 27.

23. 28.

24. 29.

25. 30.

Part 2: (1 point) Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. Light from a living plant or animal is called bioluminescence, or cold light, to distinguish it from incandescence, or heat-generating light. Life forms could not produce incandescent light without being burned. Their light is produced by chemicals (31)___________ 31 (COMBINE) in such a way that little or no (32)___________ 32 (MEASURE) heat is produced. Although bioluminescence is a relatively complex process, it can be reduced to simple terms. (33)___________ (LIVE) light occurs when 33 luciferin and oxygen combine in the (34)___________ (PRESENT) of 34 luciferase. Fireflies require an additional compound called ATP. Much remains (35)___________ (KNOW), but many scientists who study bioluminescence believe that the origin of the phenomenon goes back to a time when there was no oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere. When oxygen was gradually introduced into the atmosphere, it was poisonous to life forms. Plants and animals produced light to use up the oxygen. Millions of years ago, all life produced light to survive. As the (36)___________ (MILLENNIUM) passed, life forms on earth became tolerant of, and finally (37) ___________ (DEPEND) on oxygen, and the (38)___________ (ADAPT) that produced bioluminescence was no longer (39) ___________ (NEED), but some primitive plants and animals continued to use the light for new functions such as (40)___________ (MATE).

35

36 37 38 39 40

Part 3: (2 points) The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example The forest from that Man takes his timber is the tallest and most 0 that which impressive plant community on Earth. In terms of Man's brief life, it appears permanent and unchanged, save for the seasonal growth and 41 fall of the leaves, but to the forester, it represents the climax of a 3

long succession of events. No wooden landscape we see today has been forest for all time. Plants have minimum requirements of temperature and moisture and, in ages pass, virtually every part of Earth's surface has, at some time, been neither too dry or too cold for plants to survive. However, as soon as climate conditions change in favor of plant life, a fascinating sequence of changes, called a primary succession, occurs first to colonize the barren land and the lichen surviving in bare rock. Slowly, the acids produced by these organic crack the rock's surface, plants debris accumulate and mosses establish shallow root-holes. Ferns may follow and, with short grasses and shrubs, gradually form a covering of plant life. Roots broke even deep into the developing soil and eventually large shrubs give way to the first trees. These grow rapidly, cutting down sunlight from the smaller plants, and soon establish complete domination – closing its ranks and forming a climax community which may endure for thousands of years.

42 43 44 45 46 47

48 49 50

Part 4: (1 point) Supply the correct form of the VERB in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answer in the numbered box Thousands of people (51)___________ (gather) on beaches and cliffs to watch the world's greatest surfers tackle the waves. It is only the eighth time in 25 years that the Eddie Aikau competition, (52)___________ (name) in honor of a celebrated Hawaiian surfer and lifeguard, (53)___________ (take place). The contest is only held in the most extreme surf conditions and last took place in 2004. A total of 28 surfers (54)___________ (invite) to take part in the event at Waimea Bay, (55) ___________ (choose) by a poll of the surfing community. Organizers had been watching weather and wave conditions in the seas around the US state and announced early on Tuesday morning local time that the competition (56)___________ (run). People have travelled from around the world to the US state to watch the event. Malika Dudley of CBC News told the BBC that people were lining cliff tops and had climbed trees (57)___________ (watch) the vast waves. She said it (58)___________ (be) "unbelievably dangerous" to take part in the event - one surfer, Tom Carroll of Australia, (59) ___________ (injure) - but that safety teams were in the water on jet skis in case of accidents. The high waves (60)___________ (expect) to last until Wednesday. Your answers 4

51. 56.

52. 57.

53. 58.

54. 59.

55. 60.

Part 5: (1 point) Fill each gap in the following sentences with a verb and one of the prepositions or particles in the box. Use each pair of Verbs + prepositions only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. PUT THE VERBS INTO THEIR CORRECT FORM. drop play show do

turn look go

pull get come

in out off up with

up through in for away with

down away

61. I just ___________ to wish you a Merry Christmas. 62. John is not very punctual. He usually ___________ ten minutes after the lesson has started. 63. After the accident at the nuclear power station, the authorities tried to ___________ the danger to the public from radioactive waste. 64. Switzerland had intended to enter a team for the International Tiddywinks Contest, but had to ___________ at the last moment when they realized that nobody in Switzerland knew how to play the game. 65. Why don’t you ___________ the ‘Miss United Kingdom’?. 66. Several people ___________ the draft report, but there were still a number of spelling mistakes in the final version. 67. The police chased the thieves for several miles but they managed ___________ because their car was faster than the policemen’s bicycles. 68. Don’t take any notice of Ruth. She always ___________ whenever we have visitors. 69. I wonder who first ___________ the idea of wearing seatbelts in cars. 70. I‘ve been feeling so depressed lately that I feel tempted ___________ myself. Your answers 61. 66.

62. 67.

63. 68.

64. 69.

65. 70.

Part 6: (1 point) Insert A, AN, THE, or Ø (zero articles) where necessary. Write your answer in the numbered box 5

Agriculture in the West and South of the United States has traditionally been supported by ___________ migrant workers who migrate or move from area to area according to (72) ___________ crops that need harvesting. Many Chinese, Filipino, and Mexican immigrants became migrant workers when they first arrived in the United States. Often they had problems with (73)___________ English language or no skills that they could immediately use in (74)___________ new country A person looking objectively at the living conditions of these workers might say that their way of life was little better than (75)___________ slavery. They were housed in (76) ___________ substandard conditions, received wages far below the minimum, and had no (77)___________medical or insurance benefits. The migrant workers had no labor unions that could bargain for better wages, better hours, or improved (78)___________ working conditions. They had no money and no power with which to bargain with their employers. Employers were making fortunes by (79)___________ sweat of their workers’ brows. It took (80)___________ idealistic, determined young man named Cesar Chavez to change the plight of the migrant worker forever (71)

Your answers 71. 76.

72. 77.

73. 78.

74. 79.

75. 80.

III. READING (4 points) Part 1: (1.5 points) Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. Prepare yourself for a big surprise. I imagine the shock, while (81)___________ through your favourite imagine, of suddenly finding an advertisement with your (82)___________ name in the headline. It could suggest that it's (83)___________ you changed your car for a more up-to-date (84) ___________ and it might (85)___________ mention the make of the old wreck you drive now. It could say what you would look (86)___________ if you should try a new shampoo. Even (87)___________ it might suggest that you switch deodorants. Some people may not like their names being used in a advertisement without their (88) ___________ even if they are the (89)___________ ones to see it. There does not, though, (90)___________ to be any law to protect the readers. Advertising agencies claim that response rates increase by at (91)___________ fifty per cent when people see their names printed on a catalogue or direct mail communication. So, given the possibility of greater (92)___________ , will the television companies get in on the act next, with personalized commercials perhaps? 6

(93)

___________ seeing a TV advertisement, for say, a (94)___________ agency, sympathetically suggesting that you look in need of a holiday. How (95)___________ you resist? The adman is coming. And, this time, he's got your name. 81. A. seeing 82. A. own 83. A. late 84. A. mark 85. A. even 86. A. so 87. A. worse 88. A. permit 89. A. single 90. A. sound 91. A. less 92. A. profits 93. A. Think 94. A. journey 95. A. may Your answers 81. 86. 91.

B. watching B. self B. time B. fashion B. too B. as B. though B. allowance B. unique B. look B. least B. benefits B. Imagine B. travel B. are

82. 87. 92.

C. staring C. personal C. due C. pattern C. although C. like C. if C. permission C. only C. occur C. minimum C. prices C. Suppose C. tour C. were

83. 88. 93.

84. 89. 94.

D. looking D. belonging D. now D. model D. extremely D. after D. then D. admission D. alone D. seem D. lowest D. fees D. Guess D. trip D. could

85. 90. 95.

Part 2: (0.5 point) Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that follow by circling A, B, C, or D. In recent years, scientific and technological developments have drastically changed human life on our planet, as well as our views both of ourselves as individuals in society and of the universe as a whole. Maybe one of the most profound developments of the last decade is the discovery of recombinant DNA technology, which allows scientists to introduce genetic material (or genes) from one organism into another. In its simplest form, the technology requires the isolation of a piece of DNA, either directly from the DNA of the organism under study, or artificially synthesized from an RNA template, by using a viral enzyme called reverse transcripts. This piece of DNA is then lighted to a fragment off bacterial DNA which has the capacity to replicate itself independently. The recombinant molecule thus produced can be introduced into the common intestinal bacterium Escherishchia coli, which can be grown in very large amounts in synthetic media. Under proper conditions, the foreign gene will not only replicate in the bacteria, but also express itself, through the specific protein coded by the foreign gene. 7

The technology has already been successfully applied to the production of several therapeutically important biomolecules, such as insulin, interferon, and growth hormones. Many other important applications are under detailed investigation in laboratories throughout the world. 96. Recombinant DNA technology consists primarily of___________ A. producing several therapeutically important biomolecules. B. giving rise to large amounts of protein. C. introducing genetic material from one organism into another. D. using a rival enzyme called reverse transcripts. 97. Recombinant DNA technology has been used in the production of all of the following biomolecules except___________ A. growth hormones B. Escherishchia coli C. interferon D. insulin 98. Which of the following is not true? A. The foreign gene will replicate in the bacteria, but it will not express itself through transcription and translation. B. The bacterium Escherishchial coli can be grown in large amounts in synthetic media. C. Research continues in an effort to find other uses for this technology. D. Recombinant DNA technology is a recent development. 99. Expression of a gene in Escherishchia coli requires A. the viral enzyme reverse transcripts. B. the processes of transcription and translation. C. production of insulin and other biomolecules. D. that the bacteria be grown in a synthetic media. 100. The term recombinant is used because___________ A. by legation, a recumbent molecule is produced, which has the capacity of replication. B. the technique requires the combination of several types of technology. C. By legation, a recombinant protein is produced, part of whose amino acids come from each different organism. D. Escherischia coli is a recombinant organism. Part 3: (1 point) Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions that follow by circling A, B, C, or D Basic to any understanding of Canada in 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1996. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages and the catching – up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of 8

increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world. After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer, more women were working, young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families, rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the growth in Canada's population has slowed down by 1966(the increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent). Another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957. 101. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Educational changes in Canadian society. B. Canada during the Second World War C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada 102. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin? A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945 C. During the depression of the 1930's D. In 1966 103. The word "five" refers to___________ A. Canadians B. Years C. Decades D. Marriages 104. The word "surging" is closest in meaning to___________ A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising 105. The author suggests that in Canada during the 1950's A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high 106. The word "trend" is closest in meaning to___________ A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive 107. The word "peak" is closest in meaning to___________ A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D. maximum 108. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level? A. 1966 B. 1957 C. 1956 D. 1951 109. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses 110. It can be inferred from the passage that before the industrial Revolution 9

A. families were larger B. population statistic were unreliable C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad Part 4: (1 point) Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered boxes provided below the passage Pubs (public houses) can be found in every town, city or village. Social life for many people has centered on the (111)___________ for many years. Opening and closing times are decided by law (pubs in England and Wales close at 11 p.m.) and, 10 minutes before closing time, the (112)___________ or barmaid rings a bell or shouts “Last orders!”. When you go into a pub you have to go the (113)___________, pay for your drink and carry it to your seat. It is customary in Britain to “go for a drink” with (114)___________. People often meet at a pub before going on to another place. On Friday or Saturday evenings pubs in some city centers can be very crowded. Some people do a tour of all the pubs in one area and have a drink in (115)___________ one; this is called a “pub crawl”. It is usual for each person in a group to take it in (116)___________ to buy drinks for everyone, and this is called “round”. Pubs often also provide (117)___________: live music, singing, juke boxes and, more recently, computer games, video and karaoke (118)___________. It used to be difficult to get a cup of coffee in a pub, and children weren’t allowed (119) ___________. Although it is still against the law to serve alcohol to anyone under (120) ___________, pubs are now trying to encourage families. Pub meals have become very popular over the past 10 years and are generally cheap and often good. Pubs with gardens or chairs and tables outside are often crowded in the summer. Pubs are still a central part of British culture. Your answers 111. 116.

112. 117.

113. 118.

114. 119.

115. 120.

IV. WRITING (6 points) Part 1: (2 points) Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s) 121. He shouted as loudly as he could, but nobody heard him. (TOP) ________________________________________________________________________ 122. His French has improved so much that he is virtually fluent now. (DEGREE) 10

________________________________________________________________________ 123. Jane is not at all afraid about traveling abroad on her own. (HOLDS) ________________________________________________________________________ 124. The music teacher was the only member of staff not to attend the farewell party. (EXCEPTION) ________________________________________________________________________ 125. Have you decided to enter the poster competition? (GO) ________________________________________________________________________ 126. The house has got everything except a large garden. (LACKS) ________________________________________________________________________ 127. I’m afraid to say that we haven’t got any oil left. (UP) ________________________________________________________________________ 128. The film is similar to Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways. (BEARS) ________________________________________________________________________ 129. In all probability we will finish the project on Thursday. (CHANCES) ________________________________________________________________________ 130. The Embassy said it would not be necessary for me to get a visa. (NEED) ________________________________________________________________________ Part 2: (4 points) Some people say that computers have made life easier and more convenient. Other people say that computers have made life more complex and stressful. What is your opinion? Write about 400 words with specific reasons and examples to support your decision (and do not include your personal information) Write your essay here ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 11

________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ THE END

12

UBND TỈNH KONTUM SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

ĐÁP ÁNKỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HSG QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2009- 2010

Môn: TIẾNG ANH (Bản hướng dẫn gồm 4 trang)

I. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG Giám khảo chấm đúng theo đáp án Phần Viết: có hướng dẫn cụ thể cho từng phần II. ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

Thang điểm 20 điểm

I. LISTENING (3 points) Part 1: Questions 1-10: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) 1. 11% 5. 40% 2. 28% 6. 100% 3. 46% 7. 93% 4. Renting 8. 64% Part 2: Questions 11- 20. (0,2 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 2 điểm) 11. (B) 15. (C) 12. (C) 16. (A) 13. (A) 17. (C) 14. (A) 18. (A)

9. 71% 10. 8%

19. (B) 20. (C)

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7 points) Part 1: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) Your answers 21. C 22. A 23. D 26. C 27. A 28. D

24. D 29. D

25. A 30. C

Part 2: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) Your answers 31. combining 33. measurable 33. Living 36. millennia 37. dependent 38. adaptations

34. presence 39. necessary

35. unknown 40. mating

44. presence

45. unknown

Part 3: (0,2 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 2 điểm) Your answers 41. 42. wooded 43. Living unchanging 1

46. millenia

47. dependent

48. adaptations

Part 4: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) Your answers 51. have 52. named 53. has taken gathered place 56. would run 57. to watch 58. was

49. necessary

50. mating

54. were invited 55. chosen 59. had been injured

60. were expected

Part 5: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) Your answers 61. dropped in 62. turns up 63. play down 66. looked 67. to get away 68. shows off through

64. pull out 69. came up with

65. go in for 70. to do away with

Part 6: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) Your answers 71. Ø 72. the 73. the 76. Ø 77. Ø 78. Ø

74. the 79. the

75. Ø 80. an

III. READING (4 points) Part 1: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 15 = 1,5 điểm). Your answers 81. D 82.A 83.B 86. C 87. A 88. C 91. B 92. A 93. B

84.D 89. C 94. B

85. A 90. D 95. D

Part 2: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 5 = 0,5 điểm). 96. C 97. B 98. A Part 3: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) 101. C 102. B 103. A 106. A 107. D 108. A

99. B

104. C 109. B

Part 4: (0,1 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 1 điểm) Your answers 111. pub 112. barman 113. bar 2

114. friends

100. A

105. D 110. A

115. each

116. turns

117. entertainment

118. machines

119. inside

120. 18

IV. WRITING (6 points) Part 1: (0,2 điểm/ câu đúng x 10 = 2 điểm) 121. He shouted at the top of his voice, but nobody heard him 122. His French has improved to such a degree that he is virtually fluent now. 123. Traveling abroad on her own/alone holds no fear for Jane. 124 With the exception of the music teacher every member of /all the staff attended the farewell party. 125. Have you decided to go in for the poster competition? 126. The only thing the house lacks is a large garden. 127. I’m afraid to say that we’ve used up all the oil. 128. The film bears some resemblance to Shakespeare’s Hamlet. 129. The chances are that the project will be finished on Thursday. 130. The Embassy said I didn’t need to get a visa. Part 2: (4 points) Write about 400 words. Yêu cầu: Bài viết của học sinh phải thể hiện được: - Chủ đề của bài viết - Quan điểm của mỗi trường phái có luận cứ - Quan điểm của cá nhân - Có đầy đủ các phần: mở bài, thân bài (2 quan điểm + luận cứ) + kết luận (có nếu quan điểm của cá nhân BÀI VIẾT GỢI Ý

Some people say that the invention of computers is one of the greatest humankind's inventions. However, other people think that computers make their life more stressful. I agree with those people who think that computers brought many benefits and play a very important role in our modern life. First of all, every company nowadays uses a computer to store its data and make different kinds of operations. It is very difficult to imagine life without computers. A company would have to store millions of papers and documents. Moreover, a customer would have to wait hours to check his balance or get a piece of information about his transactions at his bank, while an employee was looking trough those papers. Another important aspect of this is that people are able to type all their information, make corrections, print or send documents using computers. It makes life much easier. One can spend the rest of the time watching TV with his family or working on something new. We use computers every day sometimes even not knowing it. When we go to a store and use our credit cards many computers process our information and perform transactions. 3

When we need to get some cash we use money access machines that are computerized too. Second of all, computers provided a great means of communication - the Internet. I think it is the easiest and cheapest way to get in touch with relatives, friends, business colleagues, etc. Nowadays the world becomes smaller and smaller. When I was a little girl, I could not imagine that it would be possible to communicate with people from all around the world in so easy way. A person can get latest news, become friends with someone from another country, find his old friends, ask for a piece of advice and so on. Finally, in addition to these practical benefits people can shop without leaving their house. They just use an Internet access, a computer and their cards to make a payment. It is kind of difficult to imagine that a few years ago people had to spend their time in lines buying tickets. Now, a person can choose a destination, company, date and time and get tickets delivered to his door. I think it is amazing. To sum up, I believe that computers made our lives easier. They change our attitude towards life. I think with the invention of computers people became closer and friendlier. THE END

4

PAGE 1 OF 11

UBND TỈNH BẮC NINH SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI HSG QUỐC GIA LỚP 12 THPT NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 10 tháng 10 năm 2013

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Điểm bài thi

Giám khảo 1

Giám khảo 2

Bằng số:

Họ tên:

Họ tên:

Bằng chữ:

Chữ ký:

Chữ ký:

Số phách

* Ghi chú: Đề thi gồm 11 trang. Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi. SECTION ONE: LISTENING (30 points)

Part 1: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, circle the best answer (A, B or C). 1. You overhear a young man talking about his first job.

How did he feel in his first job? A. bored

B. confused

C. enthusiastic

2. You hear a radio announcement about a dance company.

What are listeners being invited to? A. a show

B. a talk

C. a party

3. You overhear a woman talking to a man about something that happened to her.

Who was she?

A. a pedestrian

B. a driver

C. a passenger

4. You hear a woman talking on the radio about her work making wildlife films.

What is her main point?

A. Being in the right place at the right time is a matter of luck. B. More time is spent planning than actually filming. C. It is worthwhile spending time preparing.

5. You hear part of a travel programme on the radio.

Where is the speaker? A. outside a café

B. by the sea

C. on a lake

6. You overhear a woman talking about a table-tennis table in a sports shop.

What does she want the shop assistant to do about her table-tennis table? A. provide her with a new one

B. have it put together for her

C. give her the money back

7. You hear part of an interview with a businesswoman.

What is her business? A. hiring out boats

B. hiring out caravans

C. building boats

B. a journalist

C. a theatre-goer

8. You hear a man talking on the radio.

Who is talking? A. an actor

Part 2:

You will hear a radio interview with Mike Reynolds, whose hobby is exploring underground places such as caves. For questions 9-18, complete the sentences.

Cavers explore underground places such as mines and (9)_____________________ as well as caves. When cavers camp underground, they choose places which have (10)________________________ and ____________________ available.

PAGE 2 OF 11 In the UK, the place Mike likes best for caving is (11) _______________________ As a physical activity, Mike compares caving to (12) ______________________ Cavers can pay as much as £20 for a suitable (13)_______________________ Cavers can pay as much as £50 for the right kind of (14) ____________________ which is worn on the head. Mike recommends buying expensive (15)_______________________ to avoid having accidents. Caving is a sport for people of(16)_________________________ backgrounds. Some caves in Britain are called places of (17)_________________________ The need for safety explains why people don't organize caving (18) ________________________

Part 3:

You will hear five different people talking about the head teacher or principal of their former secondary school. For questions 19-23, choose from the list (A-F) what each speaker is saying. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter which you do not need to use.

A. She favoured the talented students. Speaker 1

19

Speaker 2

20

Speaker 3

21

Speaker 4

22

Speaker 5

23

B. She prepared us for the real world. C. She encouraged us to be imaginative D. She was ahead of her time. E. She was concerned about the environment. F. She encouraged competitiveness

Part 4:

You will hear an interview with a tour leader who works for an adventure company in Africa. For questions 24-30, circle the best answer (A, B or C).

24. Don says that most of his passengers ________. A. are not students B. are looking for jobs

C. work in conservation

25. When Don first meets a group, he ________. A. gives them blankets for the overnight trip B. shows them where to sit on the truck C. checks they have the right equipment 26. Don remembers one trip when ________. A. he failed to take enough food B. someone made a mistake with the food C. someone complained about the food 27. Don oversees the domestic work because ________. A. he doesn’t like to lose things B. it has to be done within an hour C. people complain if things are dirty 28. If people argue, Don says that he ________. A. prefers not to get involved B. separates the people concerned

C. asks the group for a solution

29. Don says that he sometimes ________. A. needs to get to sleep early B. has to camp in a noisy area

C. tells people when to go to bed

30. What does Don say about getting up? A. He ignores any complaints about the time. B. He varies his schedule according to the group. C. He forces everyone to be quick about it. SECTION TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (40 points)

Part 1:

Read the sentences carefully and circle the best answers to complete each of the sentences.

1. She loved tennis and could watch it till the _______ came home. A. she B. everyone C. horses D. cows 2. Could you close the window? There is a bit of a _______. A. current B. wind C. draught D. breeze 3. Thousands of steel _______ were used as the framework of the new office block. A. beams B. girders C. stakes D. piles

PAGE 3 OF 11 4. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only _______ the hot, humid air. A. stirred up B. poured through C. turned into D. cut back 5. He set one alarm-clock for five o’clock and the other for five past so as to _______ that he did not oversleep. A. assure B. ensure C. insure D. reassure 6. When Tim was eating a cherry, he accidentally swallowed the _______. A. nut B. stone C. seed D. core 7. It was only _______ he told me his surname that I realized that we had been to the same school. A. then B. until C. as soon as D. when 8. He got an excellent grade in his examination _______ the fact that he had not worked particularly hard . A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although 9. Their eventual choice of house was _______ by the time Peter would take to get to the office. A. related B. consequent C. determined D. dependent 10. It turned out that we _______ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours. A. hadn’t B. should have C. mustn’t D. needn’t have 11. Employees who have a _______ are encouraged to discuss it with the management. A. hindrance B. grievance C. disadvantage D. disturbance 12. The police are _______ certain who the culprit is. A. in some ways B. more or less C. here and there D. by and by 13. Women’s participation _______ in the workforce was lower in the countries which had less-developed economies. A. scale B. speed C. velocity D. rate 14. Although the patient received intensive treatment, there was no _______ improvement in her condition. A. decipherable B. legible C. discernible D. intelligible 15. I’ve been doing my best to reduce the backlog but I must admit that I’ve hardly put _______ in the problem so far. A. a dent B. a foot C. a brave face D. damper 16. From time to time he _______ himself to a weekend in a five-star hotel. A. craves B. indulges C. treats D. benefits 17. Men still expect their jobs to take _________. A. superiority B. imposition C. priority D. seniority 18. According to a recent survey, most people are on good _______ with their neighbours. A. terms B. relations C. relationships D. acquaintance 19. The police have been ordered not to _______ if the students attack them. A. combat B. rebuff C. retaliate D. challenge 20. The police finally arrested the _______ criminal A. famous B. renowned C. respectable D. notorious

Part 2: Use the correct form of the words given in brackets to fill in the space Forests from an integral component of the (1)__________(SPHERE) are essential to the (2)__________(STABILITY) of global climate and the management of water and land. They are home for (3) __________(COUNT) plants and animals that are vital elements of our life-supporting systems, as well as for millions of forest (4) __________(DWELL). They provide goods for direct (5) __________ (CONSUME) (including recreational activities) and land for food production. They also represent capital when converted to shelter and (6) __________ (FRASTRUCTURE). The two main types of forests are tropical, which are rich in (7) __________ (DIVERSITY) and valuable tropical (8) __________ (WOOD) and temperate, which serve as the world’s primary source of industrial wood. The temperate forests (1.5 billion hectares) can be found mainly in developed countries, whereas the tropical forests (both moist and dry, (9) __________ (TOTAL) about 1.5 billion ha each) stretch across the developing world. Two thirds of the tropical moist forests are in Latin America, with the (10) __________ (REMAIN) split between Africa and Asia; three quarters of the tropical dry forests are in Africa. Your answers: 1. _____________

2. _____________

3. _____________

4. _____________

6. _____________

7. _____________

8. _____________

9. _____________ 10. ____________

5. _____________

Part 3: Insert a(n), the, or no article (Ø). A lot of pressures are encouraging you to worry about your appearance. Women’s magazines, (1)______ advertisements and (2)______ media all concentrate on (3) ______ subject, and they bombard you with (4) ______ warnings about (5) ______ bad breath, perspiration, being too fat or too thin. They even give (6) ______ impression that if you use (7) ______ certain shampoo or cosmetic, you will become attractive to (8) ______ boys.

PAGE 4 OF 11 Your parents may become involved in this process by encouraging you to think about your appearance, and your friends may create (9) ______ atmosphere of (10) _______ competition Your answers: 1. _____________

2. _____________

3. _____________

4. _____________

6. _____________

7. _____________

8. _____________

9. _____________ 10. _____________

Part 4:

1.

5. _____________

In this part of the test you have to find ONE word to complete three different gaps in each question. There are ten questions in this section. Think of ONE word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.

a. The employment crisis is _________ that it is affecting one in four people. b. _________ torrential rain is rare in this part of the world. c. I didn't have a problem with the new manager's ideas as _________, but I disliked some of his mannerisms.

2. a. Tom is bound to get a real wake up _________ when he enters the world of work after being closeted in the university for the last seven years. b. Many young men answered the _________ to arms and signed up as soon as war was declared. c. That car nearly drove into us, it was a really close _________. 3.

4.

5.

a. Later in the programme we have highlights of two big matches played earlier today: Ajax met Juventus while Barcelona _______ on Porto. b. The weightlifter who allegedly _______ performance-enhancing drugs has been named today. c. On my doctor's advice, I _______ up yoga in order to relax. a. You’d be _________ off if you put some money aside every month. b. The guidelines for the office’s policy on _________ practice are displayed in the folder. c. Come on! You need to put your _________ foot forward if you want to make it to the summit! a. It isn’t _________ why she changed her mind at the last minute. b. The intravenous solution was a _________, blue liquid. c. Sheila decided to _________ out the drawers of her desk.

6.

7.

8.

a. The transfer of Mario Rossi to Manchester United has been approved by the _______ of directors. b. The new pool has a slide, water chute and diving _______. c. In any game of chess, the queen is the most powerful piece on the whole _______ a. The president promised to take no ________ measures in order to improve the company’s productivity. b. The forest looked eerie in the _________ light. c. The top _________ of the statue was knocked down, while the base remains. a. Today’s crossword puzzle will definitely exercise your _________ matter! b. What the government intends to do to solve the problem is still a _________ area. c. Although aging populations are often associated with poor economic growth, the _________ economy provides business opportunities not only in care provision, but also in recreational activities catering for the elderly.

9.

a. Right now Evans is very _______ in confidence; she needs to start winning a few races again. b. There was a disappointingly _______ turnout for the youth club’s open day. c. When you're cycling up a steep hill you will need to be in a _______ gear. 10. a. The teacher would not _________ for the pupils’ unruly behaviour. b. The union leader promised to _________ his ground with regards to the proposed job cuts. c. The locals made a _________ against the plans for a new by-pass through the country park. Your answers: 1. _____________

2. _____________

3. _____________

4. _____________

6. _____________

7. _____________

8. _____________

9. _____________ 10. _____________

5. _____________

PAGE 5 OF 11 SECTION THREE: USE OF ENGLISH (35 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. THE TRUTH ABOUT LOVE This week we celebrated Valentine’s Day or rather (1) _______ romantics and those of us who are a bit soft in the head did! The fourteenth of February always gives everyone who’s anyone a chance to cast a few pearls of (2) _______ before their fellow sufferers about the nature of ‘the universal migraine’ – love. Francis Farnsworth is a case in point. I’m sure the poor old fellow has a heart of gold but he really does talk a (3) _______ of rubbish sometimes! His appearance last night on BBC 1’s ‘Let’s Talk It Over’ was no exception. He started of by having what I will politely call a difference of opinion with Tania Di Monte, author of ‘Tell me the Truth about love’. Ms. Di Monte always expresses the most extraordinary views without any apparent (4) _______ of contradiction. Last night she was boldly setting out her rules for a perfect relationship when poor old Farnsworth accidentally called her Tina. Tina is of course the name of her ex-husband Darren’s second wife and we all know that any mention him – or her – is like (5) _______ to Tania. Farnsworth kept apologizing and saying that it had been a slip of the (6) _______ brought about by a momentary (7) _______ of concentration, but it took all presenter Greg Lazarre’s skills to calm our Tania down again. Francis then started calling her ‘darling’, which only succeeded in making her even more furious. ‘(8) _______ of endearment’, he stammered as she glared at him. She had been vehemently denying that there was even a (9) _______ of truth in rumors about her forthcoming engagement to football star Nick Pérez. Nevertheless, I’m sure it is only a(n) (10) _______ of time before we see Tania and Nick on the cover of ‘Hi There!’ celebrating ‘the wedding of the century’. If marrying someone like Tania is what happens to you if you’re incredibly successful, as Pérez undoubtedly is, I shudder to think what the price of failure might be! 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

A. A. A. A. A. A. A. A. A. A.

Part 2:

insufferable B. untreatable knowledge B. wisdom mould B. load worry B. anxiety a bull in a China shop B. the bull by the horns pen B. tongue lapse B. error Expression B. Idiom grain B. fragment issue B. question

C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C.

incurable intelligence pile concern a red rag to a bull mouth mistake Term particle problem

D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D.

unrecoverable sense stack fear a bull market teeth slip Phrase pellet topic

Read the text with 15 words missing. This text is about Hormones and Love. For questions 1-15 read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space.

Men and women are often considered to be completely at odds with each other, in terms (1)_______ their attitudes and behaviour. Not so when they are in love, new research has discovered. As far as their hormone levels are (2)_______, when men and women are in love, they are more similar to each other (3)_______ at any other time. It has (4)_______ been known that love can (5)_______ havoc with hormone levels. For example the hormone cortisol, (6)_______ is known for its calming effect on the body, dips dramatically when one person is attracted to (7)_______, putting the love-struck on a par with sufferers of obsessive compulsive disorder. But a new study has found that the hormone testosterone, commonly associated with male aggression, also falls when he is in love. In women, it's quite the (8)_______. Testosterone levels, which (9)_______ to be lower among females, rise towards (10)_______ of the male. Donatella Marazziti of the University of Pisa, Italy, (11)_______ this down to nature attempting to eliminate the differences between the sexes. (12)_______ doing so, they can concentrate fully (13)_______ reproduction. This suggestion seems to be supported by the fact that (14)_______ couples in a long (15)_______ relationship, nor participants in the study who were single at the time of the experiment, exhibited such changes. Your answers: 1. _____________

2. _____________

3. _____________

4. _____________

5. _____________

6. _____________

7. _____________

8. _____________

9. _____________

10. ____________

11. ____________

12. ____________

13. ____________

14. ____________

15. ____________

Part 3:

The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Find and correct them. Write your answers in the space provided below the passage.

As we feel tired at bed-time, it is natural to assume that we sleep because we are tired. The point seems so obviously that hardly anyone has ever sought to question it. Nevertheless, we must ask “tired of what?” People

PAGE 6 OF 11 certainly feel tired in the end of a hard day’s manual work, but it is also true that office workers feel equally tired when bed-time come. Even invalids, confined to beds or wheelchairs, become tired as the evening wears on. Moreover, the manual workers will still feel tired even after an evening spent relaxing in front of the television or read a book, activities which ought to have a refreshing effect. There is no proof connection between physical exertion and the need for sleep. People want to sleep, however little exercises they have had. Nor is the desire for sleep relating to mental fatigue. In fact, sleep comes more slowly to people who have had an intellectual stimulating day, just because their minds are still full in thoughts when they retire. Ironically, one way of sending someone to sleep is to put him or her into boring situation where the intellectual effort is minimal. Your answers: 1. _________________ → __________________

6. _________________ → __________________

2. _________________ → __________________

7. _________________ → __________________

3. _________________ → __________________

8. _________________ → __________________

4. _________________ → __________________

9. _________________ → __________________

5. _________________ → __________________

10. ________________ → __________________

SECTION FOUR: READING (30 points)

Part 1: You are going to read an extract from a novel. For questions 1-8, circle the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. On the very last day of a bad year, I was leaning against a pillar in the Baltimore railway station, waiting to catch the 10.10 to Philadelphia. There were a lot more people waiting than I had expected. That airy, light, clean, polished feeling I generally got in the station had been lost. Elderly couples with matching luggage stuffed the benches, and swarms of college kids littered the floor with their bags. A grey-haired man was walking around speaking to different strangers one by one. Well-off, you could tell: tanned skin, nice sweater, soft, beige car-coat. He went up to a woman sitting alone and asked her a question. Then he came over to a girl standing near me. She had long blond hair, and I had been thinking I wouldn't mind talking to her myself. The man said, would you by any chance be travelling to Philadelphia?' ‘Well, northbound, yes,’ she said. ‘But to Philadelphia?’ ‘No. New York, but I’ll be …’ ‘Thanks, anyway,’ he said, and he moved toward the next bench. Now he had my full attention. ‘Ma’am,’ I heard him ask an old lady, ‘are you travelling to Philadelphia?’ When the woman told him, ‘Wilmington,’ he didn't say a thing, just marched on down the row to one of the matchedluggage couples. I straightened up from my pillar and drifted closer, looking toward the platform as if I had my mind on the train. Well. I was going to Philadelphia. He could have asked me. I understood why he didn’t, of course. No doubt, I struck him as unreliable. He just glanced quickly at me and then swerved off toward the bench at the other end of the waiting area. By now he was looking seriously stressed. ‘Please!’ he said to a woman reading a book. ‘Tell me you’re going to Philadelphia!’ She lowered her book. She was thirtyish, maybe thirty-five - older than I was, anyhow. A schoolteacher sort. ‘Philadelphia?’ she said. ‘Why, yes, I am.’ ‘Then could I ask you a favour?’ I stopped several feet away and frowned down at my left wrist. (Never mind that I don’t own a watch.) Even without looking, I could sense how she went on guard. The man must have sensed it too, because he said, ‘Nothing too difficult, I promise!’ They were announcing my train now. People started moving toward Gate E, the older couples hauling their wheeled bags behind them like big pets on leashes. Next I heard the man talking. ‘My daughter’s flying out this afternoon for a study year abroad, leaving from Philadelphia. So I put her on a train this morning, stopping for groceries afterward, and came home to find my wife in a state. She hardly said “hello” to me. You see my daughter’d forgotten her passport. She’d telephoned home from the station in Philadelphia; didn't know what to do next.’ The woman clucked sympathetically. I'd have kept quiet myself. I waited to find out where he was heading with this. ‘So I told her to stay out. Stay right there in the station, I said, and I would get somebody here to carry up her passport.’ A likely story! Why didn’t he go himself, if this was such an emergency?

PAGE 7 OF 11 ‘Why don’t you go yourself?’ the woman asked him. ‘I can’t leave my wife alone for that long. She’s in a wheelchair.’ This seemed like a pretty poor excuse, if you want my honest opinion. Also, it exceeded the amount of bad luck that one family could expect. I let my eyes wander toward the two of them. The man was holding a packet, not a plain envelope, which would have been the logical choice, but one of those padded envelopes the size of a paperback book. Aha! Padded! So you couldn’t feel the contents! And from where I stood, it looked to be stapled shut besides. Watch yourself, lady, I said silently. 1. What was the narrator’s impression of the station that morning? A. People were making too much noise. B. It was unusually busy. C. There was a lot of rubbish on the ground. D. The seating was inadequate. 2. Why does the narrator show an interest in the grey-haired stranger? A. He was fascinated by the stranger’s questions. B. He was anxious about the stranger’s destination C. He was jealous of the stranger’s appearance. D. He was impressed by the stranger’s skill with people. 3. What does the writer mean by ‘she went on guard’ in line 25? A. The woman was employed by the railway company. B. The woman was ready to call the police. C. The woman was surprised by the man’s attitude. D. The woman was cautious in her response. 4. According to the stranger, how was his wife feeling when he got home? A. relieved to see him B. annoyed by their daughter’s phone call C. upset about their daughter’s situation D. worried about planning the best course of action 5. What does ‘this’ refer to in line 34? A. the story B. the passport

C. the station

D. the telephone call

6. When the narrator had heard the stranger’s explanation, he felt ________. A. sympathetic towards the stranger’s daughter B. willing to offer his assistance C. doubtful about the combination of events D. confused by the story the stranger told 7. When the narrator sees the packet, he thinks that the woman should ________. A. remain on the platform B. proceed carefully C. ask to check the contents D. co-operate with the man 8. What do we learn about the narrator’s character from reading this extract? A. He enjoys talking to strangers. B. He has a strong sense of curiosity. C. He has a kind-hearted attitude to people. D. He interferes in the affairs of others.

Part 2: You are going to read an extract from an autobiography. Seven paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap (915). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. EILBECK THE FEATURES EDITOR I quickly got the hang of working at the Mirror. Every morning at eleven we would be expected to cram into Eilbeck’s little office for a features conference, when we either had to come up with ideas of our own or suffer ideas to be thrust upon us. Some of Eilbeck’s own offerings were bizarre to say the least, but he did get results. I had got an inkling of his creative thinking during my initial interview when he had invited me to match his scrawled impromptu headline with a feature. 9 Some of these brainstorms came off the day’s news, some off the wall. About half the ideas worked a few of them spectacularly. Following a spate of shootings, Eilbeck scrawled 'THIS GUN FOR SALE’ on his pad, together with a rough sketch of a revolver. Within hours a writer was back in the office with a handgun and a dramatic piece on the ease with which (he did not mention the little help he had had from the crime staff) he had bought it in Trafalgar Square.

10 Mercifully, none of Eilbeck’s extemporized headlines winged their way to me - at least not yet. The pitifully small paper was grossly overstaffed, with half a dozen highly experienced feature writers fighting to fill one page a day, and it was evident that my role was as standby or first reserve. Hanging around the office, where the time was passed pleasantly in chit-chat, smoking and drinking coffee, I was occasionally tossed some small task’ 11 Another of my little chores was to compose ‘come-ons’ for the readers' letters columns - invented, controversial letters that, in a slow week for correspondence, would draw a furious mailbag. I was also put to work rewriting agency and syndication material that came into the office, including, on

PAGE 8 OF 11 occasion, the Sagittarius segment of the astrology column.

three-times-a-week gossip column, starting tomorrow and I was to be in charge of it.

12 Some years later, when he had directed his talents to another paper, I confessed to him one day that I had been guilty of tampering in this way. He was in no way put out. It was serenely obvious to him that I had been planted on the Mirror by destiny to adjust the hitherto inaccurate information. 13 For example, one afternoon I was summoned to Eilbeck’s office to find him in a state of manic excitement, bent over a make-up pad on which he had scrawled ‘THE SPICE OF LIFE!’ surrounded by a border of stars. This, I was told, was to be the Mirror's new

A

As a result, he wanted no item to be more than twenty-five words long, followed by three dots. He was, at the time, heavily under the influence of Walter Winchell, Earl Wilson and suchlike nightowl columnists in the New york tabloids that were air-freighted to him weekly.

B

Flattering though it was to be entrusted with this commission, there was a snag. It had to ‘sizzle’ – a favourite Eilbeck word – with exclusive snippets about ‘the people who really mattered’ – to Eilbeck's mind, anyone with an aristocratic title, or money to throw about in casinos and nightclubs. Unfortunately, I did not have a single suitable contact in the whole of London.

C

This might be a review copy of some ghosted showbiz memoirs that might be good for a 150word anecdotal filler. One day Eilbeck dropped a re-issued volume on my desk – To Beg I am Ashamed, the supposed autobiography of a criminal. It came complete with one of his headlines: ‘IT’S STILL A BAD, DANGEROUS BOOK’. I asked him what was so bad and dangerous about it. ‘I haven’t read it,’ the Features Editor confessed cheerfully. ‘Two hundred words by four o'clock’.

D

On one desperate occasion, with the deadline looming yet again, we fell to working our way along Millionaires’ Row in Kensington, questioning maids and chauffeurs about the foibles of their rich employers. This enterprise came to a stop after someone called the police.

E

This proved to be a foretaste of his favourite method of floating an idea. While the assembled

14 Happily the delightful Eve Chapman was deputed to hold my hand in this insane exercise. The bad news was that Eve, who went home nightly to her parents in Croydon, had never set foot in such a place in her life. We were reduced to raiding the society pages of the glossy magazines and ploughing through Who's Who in hopes of finding some important personage with an unusual hobby which could be fleshed out to the maximum twenty-five words. 15 The Spice of Life column itself ground to a halt after our supply of eminent people’s interesting pastimes petered out. feature writers clustered around his desk skimming the newspapers and intermittently quoting some story that might with luck yield a feature angle, Eilbeck would be scribbling away on his pad. Cockily trumpeting his newly minted headline – ‘WOULD YOU RISK A BLIND DATE HOLIDAY?’ or ‘CAN WOMEN BE TRUSTED WITH MONEY?’ – he would rip off the page and thrust it into the arms of the nearest writer – ‘Copy by four o’clock.’ F

This was for the benefit of one of the paper’s more irascible executives who was a passionate believer in it. It had been noticed that when he was told he would have a bad day he would react accordingly and his miserable colleagues would go through the day quaking in their shoes. My job was to doctor the entry to give his colleagues a more peaceful ride.

G

My month’s trial with the Mirror quickly expired without my having done anything to justify my existence on the paper, but since Eilbeck didn’t mention that my time was up, neither did I. I pottered on, still trying to find my feet. Occasionally opportunity would knock, but it was usually a false alarm. Not always, though.

H

But many of Eilbeck’s madder flights of fancy had no chance of panning out so well- even I could tell that. Seasoned writers would accept the assignment without demur, repair to a café for a couple of hours, and then ring in to announce that they couldn’t make the idea stand up.

Part 3:

PAGE 9 OF 11 You are going to read an article about four sportsmen. For questions 16-30, choose from the sportsmen (A-D). The sportsmen may be chosen more than once.

a time-consuming aspect of being well known in his sport? a career opportunity resulting from an achievement in sport? the financial rewards of success in his sport? a good result that went largely unnoticed? the importance of having a social life outside sport? enjoying a change of scene when training? difficulties in a relationship resulting from his lifestyle? enjoying being recognised by people in the street? attracting attention for things not directly connected to the sport? not finding the idea of fame attractive? regretting having to turn down invitations? the advantages and disadvantages of supporters coming to watch the sport? the time of day he has to go training? disappointment at not getting help as a result of an achievement? a feeling that his sporting career will be relatively short?

16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______ ______

DEDICATED TO THEIR SPORTS

Four young sports stars talk about their lives. A. Darius (runner)

C. Dieter (yacht racer)

I’ve always been sporty. I played a bit of everything at one time, but I was best at football and athletics. When I was 14, I had a trial for a professional football club, but eventually I opted to go down the athletics route instead. My biggest moment came when got to compete for my country in the youth team and got a medal. It didn’t result in much media attention, though, which was a shame. I’d been hoping some sponsorship would come out of it, because the training doesn’t come cheap. I train at home all winter and then go away for three weeks, usually Florida, before the season starts. It’s good fun – there are great athletics facilities there and the nightlife’s great too. You’ve got to be really disciplined, though. If friends ask me to go out the night before training, I have to say no. I wish I didn’t, but dedication pays in this sport. The main goal for me is to get to the next Olympics - that would be fantastic.

With five lads on a boat together, you have a good laugh. We’re very traditional and we always celebrate a win in great style. It’s been said that we act a bit childishly when we’re out, but we don’t actively go looking for media coverage. Sometimes the reporters actually seem more concerned about where you go out celebrating and what you get up to there than about where you came in the race. I’m away for eight months of the year, so it’s great to get back, go out with my mates from other walks of life and do the things they do. You can’t live, eat and breathe the sport all the time – it’s not healthy. I’m known within the world of sailing, but fortunately I can count the number of times I’ve been recognised in the street on the fingers of one hand. I’d hate to become some sort of celebrity. I get a lot of nice letters from people wanting signed pictures, though. It may take ages, but I reply to everyone. It would be cheeky to complain, even if it does take a bit of organising.

B. Gabriel (surfer)

D. Tomas (tennis player)

The surfing community is small, so you get to meet the same guys wherever you compete. Professional surfers are very serious and often the best waves are at dawn, so if you’re really going to get anywhere, you have to cut out late-night parties altogether. I don’t mind that so much, but I do love having a lie-in, and I usually have to give that up too. But it’s worth it, because without that kind of dedication I might not have won the National Championships last year. I make sure that a big night out follows any win, though, and if there’s cash involved in the winnings, I’ll go away somewhere really nice. And, of course, the sacrifices are worth it in the long run because winning that championship meant I got picked to present a surfing series on TV. I guess I’m a bit of a celebrity now.

It’s always a great thing to walk on court and feel that the crowd’s behind you. At the last tournament, though, it all got a bit crazy with people crowding around. Despite that, I have to admit that I do still get quite a thrill out of being spotted by fans when I’m out shopping or something. It has its downside though. My last girlfriend didn’t like it if I got too much attention from female fans. The thing is, tennis players have to travel quite a lot, and in the end that’s why we split up, I guess. That was hard, but you’ve got to make sacrifices in any sport; you’ve got to be serious and professional. Actually, it doesn’t really bother me too much. I’m content to concentrate on my game now and catch up on the other things in life once I’ve retired, because, after all, that comes pretty early in this sport.

PAGE 10 OF 11 SECTION FIVE: WRITING (65 points)

Part 1:

Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before.

1. The news that he would be going to university pleased his parents very much. The news of ________________________________________________________________________________ 2. We must think about ways of improving the transport system. Thought must ______________________________________________________________________________ 3. It isn’t possible that Jane was absent from work today. Jane ______________________________________________________________________________________ 4. I haven’t been swimming for nearly a year. The _______________________________________________________________________________________ 5. It doesn’t matter which chemical you put into the mixture first. The result will be the same. It makes ___________________________________________________________________________________

Part 2: Write a new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the original sentence, using the word in capital letters. This word must not be altered in any way. 1. Telephone has brought convenience to people all over the world. (CONVENIENT) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 2. A man with high ambition will never find leisured time in his life. (AMBITIOUS) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 3. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. (NAME) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 4. David played the main role when the proposal was drafted (INSTRUMENTAL) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. The house shouldn’t be left unlocked for any reason. (ACCOUNT) __________________________________________________________________________________________

Part 3: Executive positions in the ACME Oil Company The column graph shows the percentage of men and women employed in executive positions in LALIBA Oil Company from November 2011 to September 2012 inclusive. Write a report for a teacher describing the information shown in the graph. You should write at least 150 words. NOTES: Officer A: Highest; Officer E: Lowest

100 80 60 W omen Men

40 20 0 O fficer G rade E

O fficer G rade D

O fficer G rade C

O fficer G rade B

O fficer G rade A

_____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________

PAGE 11 OF 11 _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________

Part 4: Many headmasters are considering a new school rule: ‘Mobile phones are not allowed at school’. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this rule?

Write an essay of about 250 words to support your answer. (You may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space). _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________________________

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ THANG ĐIỂM

SECTION ONE: LISTENING (30 points) Part 1 (8 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1C

2B

3B

4C

5C

6B

7A

8A

Part 2 (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 9 tunnels 12 climbing 14 lamp

10 space (and) fresh air 11 Wales 13 (hard) hat 15 (strong) boots 16 all ages 17 special interest

18 competitions

Part 3 (5 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 19 E

20 F

21 C

22 D

23 B

Part 4 (7 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 24 A 28 A

25 C 29 C

26 B 30 B

27 A

SECTION TWO: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (40 points) Part 1: Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to complete each of the sentences. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

D C B A B

6. B 7. D 8. C 9. C 10. D

11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. A

16. C 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D

Part 2: Use the correct form of the words given in brackets to fill in the space (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. biosphere 2. stabilization 3. countless 4. dwellers 5. consumption

6. infrastructure 7. biodiversity 8. hardwood 9. totalling 10. remainder

Part 3: Insert the, a(n) and (0) article where necessary. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. Ø 2. the 3. the 4. Ø 6. the 7. a 8. Ø 9. an

5. Ø 10. Ø

Part 4: In this part of the test you have to find one word to complete gaps in three different sentences. There are ten questions in this section. Think of one word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. such 6. board

2. call 7. half

3. took 8. gray

4. best 9. low

5. clear 10. stand

SECTION TWO: USE OF ENGLISH (35 points) Part 5: Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. C 6. B

2. B 7. A

3. B 8. C

4. D 9. A

5. C 10. B

Part 2: Read the text with 15 words missing. This text is about hormones and love. For questions 1-15 read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (15 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. of 6. which 11. puts

2. concerned 3. than 7. another 8. reverse 12. By 13. on

4. long 9. tend 14. neither

5. play 10. those 15. term

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Find them and correct them. Write your answers in the space provided below the passage. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. obviously 2. in 3. come 4. read 5. prove

→ obvious → at → comes → reading → proven

6. exercises 7. relating 8. intellectual 9. in 10. boring situation

→ exercise → related → intellectually → of → a boring situation

SECTION THREE: READING (30 points) Part 1: You are going to read an extract from a novel. For questions 1-8, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. (8 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. B 5. A

2. A 6. C

3. D 7. B

4. C 8. B

Part 2: You are going to read an extract from an autobiography. Seven paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap (27-33). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Mark your answers on the separate answer sheet. (7 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 9. E

10. H 11. C 12. F 13. G 14. B 15. D

Part 3: You are going to read an article about four sportsmen. For questions 16-30, choose from the sportsmen (A-D). The sportsmen may be chosen more than once. (15 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 16. C 21. A 26. A

17. B 22. D 27. D

18. B 23. D 28. B

19. A 24. C 29. A

20. C 25. C 30. D

SECTION FOUR: WRITING (65 points) Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. The news of his going to university pleased his parents very much. 2. Thought must be given to ways of improving the transport system. 3. Jane must have been at work today. 4. The last time I went swimming was nearly a year ago. 5. It makes no difference which chemical you put into the mixture first. Part 2: Write a new sentence so that it has the same meaning as the original sentence, using the word in capital letters. This word must not be altered in any way. (10 points – 1 point for each correct answer) 1. Telephone has been convenient to people all over the world. 2. Highly ambitious man never finds leisured time in his life. 3. He is making a name for himself as an interviewer. 4. David was instrumental in drafting the proposal. 5. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked Part 3:

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information in the graph below. You should write at least 150 words. Allow yourself 20 minutes for this task. (20 points – 1 point for

each correct answer) NB – The test consists of 3 sections: Phonology including 2 parts (2 pts), grammar & reading comprehension including 10 parts (10 pts), and writing including 3 parts (8 pts).

Part 4:

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information in the graph below. You should write at least 150 words. Allow yourself 20 minutes for this task. (15 points – 1 point for

each correct answer)

Essay writing: (... pts)

Marking scheme

The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. -HẾT-

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO THÀNH PHỐ CẦN THƠ Đề chính thức (Đề thi gồm 9 trang)

KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG LỚP 12 THPT DỰ THI CẤP QUỐC GIA - NĂM HỌC 2013-2014 Khóa ngày 25 tháng 9 năm 2013

MÔN TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

I. LISTENING ( 15 points) Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe: Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây. Thí sinh có 5 phút để đọc qua các phần trước khi nghe. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe. PART 1: For questions 1-5, listen to a piece of news from VOA about Bryan's Bambike company and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided. 1. From the environmental perspective, bamboo grows quickly and ______________________ carbon dioxide. 2. Bambike's workers cut, treat and process the material into _________________________ 3. According to Bryan, keeping jobs at home- in the rural provincial areas- enables the workers to stay with their families and ____________________________. 4. Victoria's farmers are planting bamboo _______________________________. 5. In Brian’s opinion, bamboo is arguably the greatest building material on earth because it is _______________________________. PART 2: For questions 6-10, listen to a talk given by Peter Powell about how to give up smoking and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided. Ways to give up smoking 6. To stop smoking, it is important to remember that there __________________. 7. Having willpower means having the determination to_____________________. 8. Starting a hobby or ______________________ a friend can help take your mind off smoking. 9. Another way to keep on track is to find suitable _____________________ such as nicotine patches. 10. You may experience ________________ as your body becomes accustomed to less nicotine.

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Part 3: For questions 11-15, listen to a part of the lecture about tiredness. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Tiredness is increasing Coming to work when ill Evidence High number of complaints to doctors

Other reasons Low level of

Popularity of (11)_____________________

(14)________________________ at work

Increase use of (12)____________________

Poor diet

stimulants.

Dr Mansfield

Dr Liebhold

Solutions to sleep loss:

Believes tiredness due to:

Regular walking and sleeping hours.

Financial pressure

Limit (15)__________________intake.

(13)___________________________________

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (20 points) PART 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer ( A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. (10pts) 16. We have yet to find an ________ means to divide the profits we made from the bazaar. A. equable B. equivocal C. equilateral D. equitable 17. My brother has a ________ for pink items, so he loves strawberry ice-cream. A. favour B. preference C. keenness D. temptation 18. Two days ______without any trace of water- we were beginning to lose hope. A. elated B. elaborated C. eclipsed D. elapsed 19. When I looked at the exam questions, my mind went _________. A. crazy B. blank C. wrong D. down 20. What is the word for it? I can't remember it . Oh dear, it's on the tip of my _______. A. mind B. thought C. head D. tongue 21. Pete: My boss just congratulated me on my report. Should I ask him for a pay rise now? Jane: _________________. A. Sure. A bird in hand is worth two in the bush. B. Of course, you pays your money and you takes your choice. C. Yes, go on. Strike while the iron is hot. D. Why not? You should pay him back with interest. 22. I'm sorry to ________ the party but it's getting very late. A. break up B. hit on C. finish with D. cut off 23. Could you help me to ________ his handwriting? A. pronounce B. understand C. detach D. decipher 24. The employees are ________ against the new manager of the company. A. compelled B. prejudiced C. repelled D. humiliated 25. The story was blown out of ________ by the media. A. proportion B. contortion C. distortion D. presentation 16

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PART 2. Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space on the same line. Write your answer in the numbered box. (10 pts) Rebuilding Coventry In the late 30s, (26)_____knew that the centre of the historic town of ANALYSE Coventry in the West Midlands needed to be redeveloped. Plans had to be (27)_____when the Second World War started in 1939. However, the SHELF architects' opportunity (28)_____when the city centre was practically destroyed during the war. Many buildings were (29)_____damaged and demolition work began. Aiming to create a much more (30)_____area for (31)_____to work and shop in, town planners came up with a radical idea.

MATERIAL REPAIR SPACE RESIDE

They would make the city more (32)_____by pedestrianising the centre, INHABIT preventing cars entering. There were (33)____from local shopkeepers, who OBJECT thought that it would have an impact on trade, but the planners went ahead. What was once a (34)_____ populated area became a pleasant, attractive DENSE place to visit. It was a real (35)______ achievement, one that many British ARCHITECT towns have emulated since. 26 27 28 29 30

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III. READING : (30 points) PART 1 : Read the following passage and decide which answer (A,B,C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (10pts) The Prime Minister's comments yesterday on education spending miss the point, as the secondary education also needs a major overhaul. Firstly, the system only views the weakest learners as having special (36)______. The brightest and most (37)______ students are not encouraged to develop their full potential. Secondly, there's too much testing and not enough learning. My fifteen-year-old daughter, for example, has just spent the last month or so _______(38) for exams. These aren't even real, important exams, as her GCSEs will be next year. They're just (39)______ exams. Is the work she's been doing really to make her more (40)______ about her subjects, or will she forget it all tomorrow? I suspect the latter. Thirdly, the standard (41)_____ doesn't give students any (42)______ in developing practical work-related, living and social skills, or in skills necessary for higher education. How many students entering university have the first idea what the difference between (43)______ someone else's work and making good use of someone else's ideas? Shouldn't they have been taught this at school? How many of them are really able to go about self-study- a skill that’s (44)______ at university because there are no teachers to tell you what to do - in an efficient way? Indeed, how many students graduate from university totally unable to spell even simple English words correctly? The system is (45) ______ our children down. 36. A requests B. desires C. needs D. wants 37. A inattentive B. ignorant C. intensive D. conscientious 38. A cramming B. lecturing C. reading D. practising 39. A false B. mock C. fake D. artificial 40. A knowledgeable B. intellectual C. academic D. intelligent 41. A timetable B. lecture C. seminar D. curriculum 42. A lesson B. subject C. tuition D. tutorial 43. A writing B. going over C. plagiarising D. repeating Page 3 of 9

44. A flexible 45. A making 36

37

B. mutual B. doing 38

39

C. special C. letting 40

41

D. essential D. holding 42

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PART 2: (8 pts) Read the following passage. Choose from the list A-I the one that best summarises the associated paragraph to fill in each gap 46-53. There is one extra title which you do not need to use. A. Avoiding human contact B. Forced to remain C. The loneliest place on Earth

46. ________

D. A choice of routine E. Freezing temperatures F. Alternative routes

G. Looking ahead H. A varied community I. The need for human contact

DARK DAYS 50.___________

The last ship of the season has left; the next will not be here until December. There will be eight months of isolation, cut off from the rest of the world on the edge of the world's coldest, remotest continent: Antarctica. 47._________ The people who spend the winter at Davis Station in Antarctica regard the departure of the last ship not with fear but with something like a feeling of relief. Gone are the busy days of summer, the helicopters, and the crowd of people. Now life starts again. 48.___________ There are more than 40 research projects being carried out in Antarctica but many of the scientists have left by the time winter arrives. The station is home to physicists, biologists, weather observers, mechanics, communications technicians, electricians, carpenters, plumbers, a doctor and a chef. There is also a station leader whose job is to keep everyone happy and productive and to look after all the paperwork. When most of the team arrive each year in December, the sun never sets. By the beginning of the following June it will never rise, so people have to get used to many dark days. 49.__________ It does not matter what hours people choose to walk so long as the work gets done, so they can start and finish work at whatever times suit them. The first real meal of the day, a hot breakfast, is served at 10 A.M. There is a hot lunch and a hot supper but putting on weight is a potential problem for many people. The doctor is there to advise on diet and exercise and a gym is available to help people keep fit.

Inevitably, small social groups develop within this isolated community. There is usually a group of smokers, a group of video watchers, a group of people who sit and chat. As people try to maintain contact with home so the cost of phone bills increases, but in any case there is nothing else to spend money on. 51.___________ It is quite common for the sea to freeze during April and instead of waves lapping the beach, thick plates of ice lift and move with the tide. Once the sea ice has been checked to see if it is strong enough to walk on, one can ski over and fish through the holes. Eventually it becomes strong enough for vehicles to drive on it and the researchers can open up a new road system to enable them to drive around the coast in minutes to huts which could only be reached after hours of walking in summer. 52.___________ Trips to the huts are the only means of physically escaping from life on the station. Some trips are for science, others for recreation and a way of having some personal and private space. Some trips can be made on foot or skis, but in winter they are usually in vehicles. 53.__________ There are no animals as they all leave for the winter, but in spring seals and seabirds and penguins arrive. Only humans stay in Antarctica for the full year, and although their lives are comfortable they are still isolated and imprisoned. They have good food, comfortable buildings, telephones, entertainment, the internet, but for many months at a time no chance of leaving.

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PART 3: Write one word in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (8 pts) Crying A boyfriend or girlfriend we love dumps us. How do we react? Most of us go through a period of crying our eyes (54)______. But have you ever wondered why humans cry? Most mammals produce tears to clean and lubricate the eyes but humans are unique - perhaps with the exception of gorillas and elephants - in producing tears in response (55)______ emotional stimuli. We might feel like crying when we hear sad news, or even cry (56)_______ happiness. Scientists are unsure what, if any, benefits there are from crying as it seems to have little or no immediate effect on the situation that has produced the tears. However, many people do say that they feel the benefits of a good cry in (57)______ after it they are emotionally stronger, so it's possible that crying does in some way help us to get (58)_______difficult emotional situations. Some societies look down on adults crying. This attitude is sometimes seen in the society's language. Expressions such as 'there's no point crying over (59) ______ milk' and '(60)_____and bear it' in English reflect a culture that - at least historically - does not value adult crying. Crying can also be used as a means of deception. If you cry 'crocodile tears', you are (61)______on an act - pretending to be upset when in fact you are not. 54

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PART 4 : (from question 62-70) (9pts) Everybody looks forward to progress, whether in one’s personal life or in the general society. Progress signifies a person’s ability to reshape the way he is living at the moment. The collective elucidation given to change from the lower and upper echelons of society is something that is positive and can only have rewarding outcomes. Progress must lead to a better life and a better way of doing things. All these, however, remain true only in so far as people want to embrace technology and move forward by finding new and more efficient ways of doing things. However, at the back of the minds of many people, especially those who miss the good old days, efficiency comes with a price. When communication becomes more productive, people are able to contact one another no matter where they are and at whatever time they wish to. The click of a button allows people miles apart to talk or see each other without even leaving their homes. With these new communication gadgets, people often do not take the effort to visit one another personally. A personal visit carries with it the additional trait of having to be in the person’s presence for as long as the visit lasts. We cannot unnecessarily excuse ourselves or turn the other person off. With efficiency also comes mass production. Such is the nature of factories and the success of industrialisation today. Factories have improved efficiency. Menial tasks are left to machines and products are better made and produced with greater accuracy than any human hand could ever have done. However, with the improvements in efficiency also comes the loss of the personal touch when making these products. For example, many handicrafts are now produced in a factory. Although this means that the supply is better able to increase demand, now that the supply is quick and efficient, the demand might fall because mass production prunes the quality of the handicrafts and it is difficult to seek peerless designs on each item. Many tourists opt to visit the indigenous people in their natural habitats and purchase souvenirs from them than from the shops amidst the cities. Perhaps, blood, sweat and tears do make a difference to what is being produced. Nonetheless, we must not commit the mistake of analysing progress only from one point of view. Ironically, it is progress that has allowed tradition to persevere. It is only with progress and the invention of new technology that many old products can be refurnished to their old state. New technology is required Page 5 of 9

for old products to stay old. Vinyl records are a classic example. Many might have been destroyed if not for the ability to store them properly. Additionally, players for these records have also been restored. They look and work exactly like their original state but it is technology that has given them this new lease of life. It is people’s attitude towards progress that causes the type of impact that technology has on society. Technology is versatile. There is no fixed way of making use of it. Everything depends on people’s mindset. The worst effects of progress will fall on those who are unable to rethink their attitudes and views of society. We can reminisce about the past but lamenting the effects of progress will cause the past to stagnate in our minds. When we embrace progress and adapt it to suit out needs, a new ‘past’ is created. Answer the questions 62-66 by choosing A, B, C or D. Write your answers in the numbered box. 62. It can be inferred from the passage that ……… . A. production of handicraft in profusion escalates the price of items B. progress allows decrepit ways to plough on C. it is impartial to say that progress comes with solely impediments D. progress is the only thing with which tradition can flourish 63. Which of the following points is made in the second paragraph? A. All progress is harmful in some way. B. Inferior tasks are usually done by machine. C. Efficiency, to many people, is not without its downsides. D. New communication gadgets encourage personal visits. 64. What is not referred to when the author uses the phrase ‘the good old days’ in the second paragraph? A. The times before the excessive use of technology. B. The positive impacts of old times. C. The times when manufactured production was unavailable. D. The time of increased productivity. 65. Which of the following is stated as a negative impact of manufactured production? A. The quantity of products has drastically improved. B. The luxuriance of goods remains unchanged. C. Streamlined productions allow greater accuracy. D. The authenticity of goods is shrunken. 66.The term “refurnished” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ……… . A. predated B. perceived C. precluded D. rehabilitated 62

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For each of the following sentences 67-70, decide whether they are true (T), false (F), or not given in the passage (NG). 67. _________ Shaping progress to serve our needs produces more supreme way of life. 68. _________ It is a recurrent mistake of people to regard progress only from the negative viewpoint. 69. _________The very worst effects of progress befall those incapable of adapting to changes. 70. _________Change is regarded with solely positivity. III/ WRITING : (20 points) PART 1: (10pts) For questions 71-80, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. Page 6 of 9

Here is an example: What type of music do you like best? FAVOURITE What IS YOUR FAVOURITE type of music? 71. Without access to the statistics, I will not be able to complete the report.

HOLD

Unless_____________________________________________________________________completed. 72. The head teacher is well known for his reliability and dedication.

REPUTED

The head teacher_______________________________________________________________ person. 73. Managers intend to consult their staff about job descriptions.

ARE

Staff ___________________________________________________ job descriptions by their managers. 74. She really enjoys going for a swim every morning.

ON

What she _________________________________________________ going for a swim every morning. 75. Louise is an expert in all aspects of the business except marketing.

OF

With ________________________________________________________in all aspects of the business. 76. When faced with a fierce opponent, even the most skilled swordsmen must be careful. FROM In _________________________________________________________________ has to be careful. 77. We suppose the new models are about ten thousand dollars.

VICINITY

The new models _____________________________________________________ten thousand dollars. 78. We are having problems because we did not take out medical insurance.

COST

We are______________________________________________________________________taken out. 79. The students in his class come from many different places, which makes the place very special. WIDE The students in his class ________________________________________________________which makes the place very special. 80. I do not expect another accident of the same type to happen here again.

STRIKE

It is not my _____________________________________________________________________twice. PART 2: Write a composition of between 300 and 500 words on the following topic: "Without goals and plans to reach them, you are like a ship that has set sail with no direction," Fitzhugh Dodson once said. How important are goals in one's life? Explain your answer.(10pts) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….… Page 8 of 9

………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………. --- The End --Page 9 of 9

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH YÊN BÁI

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2013 - VÒNG 1

Môn thi: Tiếng Anh Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 22/10/2012

Đề chính thức (Đề gồm 10 trang)

Điểm của bài thi

Họ, tên và chữ kí của giám khảo

Bằng số:

Giám khảo 1:

Bằng chữ:

Giám khảo 2:

Số phách (do chủ tịch HĐCT ghi)

PART I: LISTENING (4 points) There are two sections, each will be played twice There is a piece of music at the beginning and at the end of the listening part Before you listen, you have 1 minute to read the questions Section 1: Listen to a man calling a catering company and do the tasks that follow. Complete the form Five-star Caterers Customer Booking Form Event: Customer name: Daytime telephone number: Contact after 5 pm:

party Mr 1. _____________ 2. ________________ call the above number or 3. ________________ 4. ________________ 5. ________________

Number of guests: Date: Seating Shape: Size: Number of tables:

6. ________________ 7. ________________ 8. ________________

Choose the correct answer 9. The man decides to book _____ A. a three-course meal B. a buffet 10. The man will have to pay _____ A. £750 tomorrow B. £100 per head Your answers

C. a banquet C. £1,500 on the day of the party

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1

Section 2: Listen to the lecturer talking about America and do the tasks that follow. Choose the correct answer 1. Students should complete their work on the 1950s _____ A. if they want to be allowed to continue attending classes. B. because they will appreciate the information about the 1960s more. C. otherwise, they face the possibility of being failed for the coursework. 2. According to the lecturer, the "baby boom" happened _____ A. because of relaxed attitudes in the 1960s. B. during a time of war. C. because people feel more secure. 3. In the sixties, the USA had 70 million _____ A. teenagers B. babies C. adults 4. According to the lecturer, compared to the 1950s, the 1960s were _____ A. less conservative B. more conservative C. just as conservative 5. According to the lecturer, literature changed the way women _____ A. over 40 were treated by society. B. viewed issues of race in society. C. felt about their roles in society. 6. The rate of crimes in the sixties _____ A. rose nine percent during the decade. B. was nine times higher than in the fifties. C. was nine times lower than in the fifties. 7. What happened at the start of the 1960s? A. the first heart transplant B. the introduction of the Internet C. the invention of laser Complete the summary below, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each blank In October, 1962, US President Kennedy met advisors to discuss 8. ___________which proved that the Cubans were installing nuclear missiles, presumably against the US. Kennedy was faced with three choices: to try to resolve the crisis diplomatically; to block the delivery of further weapons into Cuba; or to attack Cuba. Kennedy chose the 9. ___________ option, which prevented the build-up of more missiles and led to the withdrawal of existing ones. Most historians agreed that a 10. ___________ was narrowly avoided by Kennedy's decision. Your answers 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points) Section 1: Choose the best answer to complete the questions. 1. I have been working very hard, I hope I will _____ my math exam. A. get through B. get round C. get through to D. get up 2. Dolphins are sometimes caught and killed in commercial fishing nets _____ they often swim in schools with other fish, such as tuna. A. therefore B. so C. because D. however 3. Mary is now in hospital. She was _____by car last week. A. knocked down C. climbed down B. bent down D. pulled down 2

4. _____ ants live in colonies, keep farms, go to war, carry off slaves, and have a society somewhat like human beings do. A. Studies of ant life show that C. That is studied B. Studies of ant life that D. That the studies of ant life 5. For me, the film didn’t _____ all the enthusiastic publicity it received. A. live up to B. come up C. turn up to D. live up 6. As she is so heavily overworked, there is a _____ possibility that will have a nervous breakdown. A. distinctive B. distinct C. little D. manifest 7. After the accident, there was considerable doubt _____exactly what had happened. A. in the question of B. as to C. in the shape of D. for 8. Many athletes have reached their _____ by the time they are twenty. A. summit B. top C. point D. peak 9. He works hard _____ his children’s happiness. A. for the sake of B. because of C. due to D. thanks to 10. Because of its warm tropical climate, Hawaii _____ subzero temperature. A. almost experiences never B. experiences never almost C. almost never experiences D. experiences almost never Your answers 1.

2.

3.

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5.

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10.

Section 2: Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Hurricanes are one of the most (1.destroy) _____ natural forces on the face of the planet. By (2.define) _____, they are also known as tropical cyclones. They manifest themselves in the warm waters of the Atlantic Ocean, usually in the form of a (3.press) _____ weather system. Due to minimal, high (4.atmosphere) _____ winds, those near the surface of the water begin to spin and spiral in a (5.clockwise) _____ direction, feeding on the heat from the ocean. With (6.increase) _____ rotation, more water is absorbed into the system and is then released in the form of showers and thunderstorms. Once the system becomes stronger and more defined, and sustained wind speeds eclipse speeds of seventy-five miles per hour, the storm can then be (7.class) _____ as a true hurricane. They pose the (8.great) _____ threat to human populations when they track (9.east) _____ to the tepid waters of the Gulf of Mexico, where the islands of the Caribbean and the flats of the southeastern United States lie (10.vulnerability) _____ to its path of destruction, which is usually determined by two major factors: storm surge and movement. Your answers 1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Section 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakess. Underline and correct them. Write your answers in the space provided on the right. 3

Since the world became industrial, the number of animal species that either have become extinct or have near extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once had roamed the jungles in vast amount, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2020, it is estimated that they would become extinct. What is alarmed about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers, who according to some resources, are not always interested in material gain but in impersonal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributed to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as the Bengal tiger, as long as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be acted to ensure their survival – and the survival of our planet.

1. ________________ 2. ________________ 3. ________________ 4. ________________ 5. ________________ 6. ________________ 7. ________________ 8. ________________ 9. ________________ 10. _______________

PART III: READING (6 points) Section 1: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Rock carvings suggest that Stone Age people were hunting whales for food as early as 2200 B.C. Such (1)________ hunting is still practiced today in a number of (2)________including the Inuit people of Greenland and North America. Whaling became big business from the seventh century as the (3)________for whalebone and whale oil rose, and humpback and sperm whales were hunted in (4)________ large numbers. But just as stocks of these species began to fall, the explosive harpoon-gun was (5)________. This weapon, together with the development of steam-power ships, (6)________ the whalers to hunt the fast-moving fin and blue whales. In 1905 the whaling (7)________ moved to the waters of Antarctica. The introduction of massive factory ships enabled the whales to be processed at sea. As a result, the blue whale had (8)________ disappeared by the 1950s. In 1946 the International Whaling Commission was established to maintain the declining whale populations. Quotas were (9)________ but these were often (10)________ and numbers continued to fall. Hunting of many species continued until 1986 when the IWC finally responded to international pressure and a ban on commercial whaling was introduced. 1. A. survival 2. A. groups 3. A. demand 4. A. repeatedly 5. A. invented 6. A. managed 7. A. lines 8. A. virtually 9. A. made 10. A. refused Your answers

B. essential B. societies B. desire B. frequently B. discovered B. employed B. troops B. possibly B. set B. denied

C. basic C. races C. request C. continually C. assembled C. enabled C. staff C. uniquely C. placed C. ignored

D. subsistence D. nationalities D. reliance D. increasingly D. applied D. empowered D. fleets D. commonly D. done D. exempted

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2.

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10.

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Section 2: Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer. Some forms of marriage have been found to exist in all human societies, past and present. Their importance can be seen in the elaborate and complex laws and rituals surrounding them. Although these laws and rituals are as varied and numerous as human social and cultural organizations, some universals do apply. The main legal function of marriage is to ensure the rights of the partners with respect to each other and to ensure the rights and define the relationships of children within a community. Marriage has historically conferred a legitimate status on the offspring, which entitled him or her to the various privileges set down by the tradition of that community, including the right of inheritance. In most societies marriage also established the permissible social relations allowed to the offspring, including the acceptable selection of future spouses. Until the late 20th century, marriage was rarely a matter of free choice. In Western societies love between spouses came to be associated with marriage, but even in Western cultures (as the novels of writers such as Henry James and Edith Wharton attest) romantic love was not the primary motive for matrimony in most eras, and one’s marriage partner was carefully chosen. Endogamy, the practice of marrying someone from within one’s own tribe or group, is the oldest social regulation of marriage. When the forms of communication with outside groups are limited, endogamous marriage is a natural consequence. Cultural pressures to marry within one’s social, economic, and ethnic group are still very strongly enforced in some societies. Exogamy, the practice of marrying outside the group, is found in societies in which kinship relations are the most complex, thus barring from marriage large groups who may trace their lineage to a common ancestor. In societies in which the large, or extended, family remains the basic unit, marriages are usually arranged by the family. The assumption is that love between the partners comes after marriage, and much thought is given to the socioeconomic advantages accruing to the larger family from the match. By contrast, in societies in which the small, or nuclear, family predominates, young adults usually choose their own mates. It is assumed that love precedes (and determines) marriage, and less thought is normally given to the socioeconomic aspects of the match. In societies with arranged marriages, the almost universal custom is that someone acts as an intermediary, or matchmaker. This person’s chief responsibility is to arrange a marriage that will be satisfactory to the two families represented. Some form of dowry or bride wealth is almost always exchanged in societies that favour arranged marriages. In societies in which individuals choose their own mates, dating is the most typical way for people to meet and become acquainted with prospective partners. Successful dating may result in courtship, which then usually leads to marriage. 1. Which of the following is NOT true about the main legal function of marriage? A. It ensures the rights of the partners. B. It prevents couples from divorce. C. It entitles the offspring to some rights. D. It confers a status on the offspring. 2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “universals” in paragraph 1? A. some popular forms of marriage B. laws and rituals of marriage C. common characteristics of marriage D. social and cultural organizations 3. According to the passage, in the 20th century Western cultures _____ A. love was not the only reason for marrying B. love always ended in marriage C. marriage was a matter of free choice D. love came before marriage 5

4. It is stated in the passage that marriages inside the group have resulted from _____. A. limitation of transportation in the area B. natural consequences of parents’ problem C. the desirable tradition of a society D. culture and limitation of communication 5. The purpose of exogamy is _____ A. to prevent marriages of people from the same ancestors B. to help people increase the tribal population C. to encourage more communication among peoples D. to spread a new breed of people 6. Marriage is usually a matter of free choice in societies where _____ A. there are more large families B. there are more arranged marriages C. small families are in the majority D. extended families predominate 7. It is generally assumed that love comes after marriage in societies where there are _____ A. nuclear families B. arranged marriages C. small families D. voluntary marriages 8. It is mentioned in the passage that arranged marriages usually involve _____ A. a lot of arrangements B. more responsibilities for couples C. two satisfactory families D. a matchmaker and property 9. Which of the following is the order applying to voluntary marriages? A. Dating, courting, and marrying B. Matchmaking, dating, and marrying C. Courting, dating, and marrying D. Dating, marrying and courting 10. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? A. Marriages the World Over B. What is Happy Marriage? C. Marital Customs and Laws D. Social Problems of Marriage Your answers 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

Section 3: Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. A. Besides the earth’s oceans, glacier ice is the largest source of water on earth. A glacier is a massive stream or sheet of ice that moves underneath itself under the influence of gravity. Some glaciers travel down mountains or valleys, while others spread across a large expanse of land. Heavily glaciated regions such as Greenland and Antarctica are called continental glaciers. These two ice sheets encompass more than 95% of the earth’s glacial ice. The Greenland ice sheet is almost 10,000 feet thick in some areas, and the weight of this glacier is so heavy that much of the region has been depressed below sea level. Smaller glaciers that occur at higher elevations are called alpine or valley glaciers. Another way of classifying glaciers is in terms of their internal temperature. In temperate glaciers, the ice within the glacier is near its melting point. Polar glaciers, in contrast, always maintain temperatures far below melting. B. The majority of the earth’s glaciers are located near the poles, though glaciers exist on all continents, including Africa and Oceania. The reason glaciers are generally formed in high alpine regions is that they require cold temperature throughout the year, in these areas where there is little opportunity for summer ablation (loss of mass), snow changes to compacted firm and then crystallized ice. During periods in which melting and evaporation exceed the amount of snowfall, glaciers will retreat rather than progress. While glaciers rely heavily on snowfall, other climatic conditions including freezing rain, avalanches and wind, contribute to their growth. One year of below average precipitation can stunt the growth of a glacier tremendously. With the rare 6

exception of surging glaciers, a common glacier flows about 10 inches per day in the summer and 5 inches per day in the winter. The fastest glacial surge on record occurred in 1953, when the Kutiah Glacier in Pakistan grew more than 12 kilometers in three months. C. The weight and pressure of ice accumulation causes glacier movement. Glaciers move out from under themselves, via plastic deformation and basal slippage. First, the internal flow of ice crystals begins to spread outward and downward from the thickened snow pack also known as the zone of accumulation. Next, the ice along the ground surface begins to slip in the same direction. Seasonal thawing at the base of the glacier helps to facilitate this slippage. The middle of a glacier moves faster than the sides and bottom because there is no rock to cause friction. The upper part of a glacier rides on the ice below. As a glacier moves it carves out a U-shaped valley to a riverbed, but with much steeper walls and flatter bottom. D. Besides the extraordinary rivers of ice, glacial erosion creates other unique physical features in the landscape such as horns, fjords, hanging valleys, and cirques. Most of these landforms do not become visible until after glaciers have receded. Many are created by moraines, which occur at the sides and front of a glacier. Moraines are formed when material is picked up along the way and deposited in a new location. When many alpine glaciers occur on the same mountain, these moraines can create a horn. The matter horn, in the Swiss Alps is one of the most famous horns. Fjords, which are very common in Norway, are coastal valleys that fill with ocean water during a glacial retreat. Hanging valleys occur when two or more glacial valleys intersect at varying elevations. It is common for waterfalls to connect the higher and lower hanging valleys, such as in Yosemite National Park. A cirque is a large bowl-shaped valley that forms at the front of a glacier. Cirques often have a lip on their down slope that is deep enough to hold small lakes when the ice melts away E. Glacier movement and shape shifting typically occur over hundreds of years. While presently about 10% of the earth land is covered with glaciers, it is believed that during the last Ice Age glaciers covered approximately 32% of the earth’s surface. In the past century, most glaciers have been retreating rather flowing forward. It is unknown whether this glacial activity is due to human impact or natural causes, but by studying glacier movement, and comparing climate and agricultural profiles over hundreds of years, glaciologists can begin to understand environmental issues such as global warming Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph I. Glacial continents V. II. Formation and growth of Glaciers VI. III. Glacial Movement VII. IV. Glaciers in the last Ice Age VIII. 1. Paragraph A ________ 2. Paragraph B ________ 3. Paragraph C ________ 4. Paragraph D ________ 5. Paragraph E ________

Glaciers through the years Types of Glaciers Glacial Effects on Landscape Glaciers in National Parks

Write T (true), F (false) or NG (not given) before each statement 6. ______ Glaciers exist only near the north and south poles. 7. ______ Glaciers are formed by a combination of snow and other weather conditions. 8. ______ Glaciers normally move at a rate of about 5 to 10 inches a day. 9. ______ All parts of the glacier move at the same speed. 10. _____ During the last Ice Age, average temperatures were much lower than they are now.

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Match each definition with its term A. B. C. D.

fjord alpine glacier horn polar glacier

E. F. G. H.

temperate glacier hanging valley cirque surging glacier

11. a glacier formed on a mountain 12. a glacier with temperatures well below freezing 13. a glacier that moves very quickly 14. a glacial valley formed near the ocean 15. a glacial valley that looks like a bowl. Your answers

______ ______ ______ ______ ______

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

PART IV: WRITING (5 points) Section 1: Chart writing The chart gives information about the amount of time students in Fantasia spend on different activities in a week from 2009 to 2012. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 200 words.

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_____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________

Section 2: Essay writing Some people think that parents should teach their children how to become good members of society. Others, however, believe that school is the place for them to learn this. Which view do you agree with? Write an essay of about 300 words to give your opinion. Use reasons and examples to support your ideas.

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_____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________________ THE END 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TỈNH YÊN BÁI

KỲ THI LẬP ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA THPT NĂM 2013 - VÒNG 12010

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM - ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN TIẾNG ANH PART I: LISTENING (4 points) Section 1: 2 points 1. Sanders 2. 4456786 3. leave a message 6. round 7. large 8. 5/five Section 2: 2 points

4. 50/fifty 9. B

5. 25 June 10. A

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. A

5. C

6. B

7. C

8. evidence

9. the 2nd/ second

10. (nuclear) war

PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points) Section 1: 1 point 1. A

2. C

3. A

4. A

5. A

6. B 7. B Section 2: 2 points

8. D

9. A

10. C

1. destructive

6. increased

2. definition

7. classified

3. low-pressure

8. greatest

4. atmospheric

9. eastwards

5. counterclockwise Section 3: 2 points

10. vulnerable

1. industrial → industrialized

6. resources → sources

2. near → neared

7. impersonal → personal

3. amount → number

8. contributed → contributing

4. would → will/ will have

9. long → well

5. alarmed → alarming

10. acted → enacted

PART III: READING ( 6 points) Section 1: 1 point 1. D

2. B

3. A

4. D

5. A

6. C 7. D Section 2: 2 points

8. A

9. B

10. C

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. D

5. A

6. C 7. B Section 3: 3 points

8. D

9. A

10. C

1. VI

2. II

3. III

4. VII

5. V

6. F

7. T

8.T

9. F

10. NG

11. B

12. D

13. H

14. A

15. G

PART IV: WRITING (5 points) Section I: 2 points Organisation: 0,4 Content: 0,8 Language use : 0,4 Spelling and grammar: 0,4 Section IV: 3 points Organisation: 0,4 Content: 1,4 Language use : 0,6 Spelling and grammar: 0,6