NDT Basic Question Paper (700 Q & A) [PDF]

Zitiervorschau

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Code of Ethics 1. The code of ethics is ______upon every person issued a certificate by ASNT as an NDT level III a. Voluntary c. Binding e. Mandatory

b. Optional d. Negotiable

Answer: E () 2. The ultimate purpose served by the code of ethics is to a. Coerce ASNT NDT level III to stand by good moral principals b. Safeguard the life, health, property and welfare of public. c. Maintain integrity and high standards of skills & practices in the profession of NDT d. Both a & b above e. Both b & c above

Answer: E () 3. Which of the following is best concerning a report, statement or testimony made by an NDT level III?

a. subjective c. prejudicial

b. objective d. equivocal

Answer: B () 4. In a situation when an employer coerces an NDT level III to an act that may be counter to public safety the NDT level III a. should look for precautionary benefits b. should apprise proper authority c. should never sever relations with the employers d. all of the above are the right options e. both b & c of the above

Answer: E () 5. Accepting financial favors from equipment suppliers would be charged under the code of ethics with a. responsibility to public b. Improper conduct c. unauthorized practice d. conflict of interest

Answer: D () 6. Where an opportunity for conflict of interests exists, say for e.g. a close kin is a subcontracted under direct supervision the NDT level III should a. forthwith disclose the circumstances to the employer b. make no statement or declaration through maintain a professional attitude c. be guarded and be extremely critical with work performed by the contracted d. all of the above are acceptable

Answer: A () 7. Falsifying academic qualifications exaggeration of responsibility in previous assignments, misrepresenting pertinent facts in presentations are chargeable under: a. conflict of interest b. solicitation of employment c. improper conduct d. unauthorized practice

Answer: B () 8. Signing off reports / documents on which there is no personnel knowledge exists: a. is improper conduct c. is often required though improper

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b. is a necessity in administrative functions d. is justifiable

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 9. An NDT level III shall serve

a. the employer c. the public

b. the client d. all of the above

Answer: D () 10. Payment of commission to licensed employment agents is a. permissible c. unacceptable

b. a crime d. subject to scrutiny by the ethics committee

Answer: A () 11. As an elected public official an NDT level III shall perform review of work under his / her supervision a. with a professional altitude b. with a cursory altitude, as he/she is in the knowledge of issues c. without disclosing this fact d. none of the above

Answer: D () 12. Which of the following is true? an NDT level III shall: a. issue no public statements b. criticize NDT matters connected to public policy c. express no opinion on NDT matters d. issue no public statements inspired

Answer: B ()

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ CP- 189 1. Which of the following is not necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT records? a) c)

Academic qualifications Levels of certification

b) d)

Vision examination Record of previous experience

Answer: A (CP-189) 2. A trainee has logged the following hours in six months RT= 316 hrs; PT = 214hrs; MT=180 hrs; UT=154 hrs. At the end of this period he meets minimum experience requirements for: a. level I in PT, MT, RT b. level II in PT, MT, level I in RT c. level II in PT, level I in MT, RT d. both a & b of the above e. both a & c of the above

Answer: E (CP-189) 3. An examination used to demonstrate an individual's ability in conducting the NDT methods is called a. General Theory examination b. Specific Theory examination c. Practical Examination d. All of the above

Answer: C (CP-189) 4. The contents of documentation of records of certification shall include: a. At least a certification record, an experience record, a record of previous experience (if applicable), and a vision examination record. b. Dates of certification and expiration c. Signature, printed name, and title of the employer's certifying representative. d. All of the above

Answer: A (CP-189) 5.

The qualification requirement(s) of a 'Trainee' is/are:

A. B.

possess a vision acuity that meets or exceeds the requirements of the standard have skills & knowledge to perform specific calibration directly supervised by an NDT Level II or NDT Level— III both A & B above none of the above

C. D.

Answer: C (CP-189) 6. The minimum number of questions in a Level I magnetic particle inspection specific exam is? a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

Answer: B (CP-189) 7. An individual who was certified, has not performed the duties in the method for a consecutive period of twenty four month his/her certificate shall be a. revoked Page 3 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

suspended terminated with held

Answer: A (CP-189) 8.

What is the definition for method?

a. b. c. d.

One of the disciplines of NDT, within which various test techniques, may exist One of the NDT techniques, within which various test methods may exist. Technique and method are interchangeable with same meaning Method means the way of working

Answer: A (CP-189) 9.

The use of a mass spectrometer for leak testing is considered to be a?

a. b. c. d.

Test technique NDT discipline NDT method Test method

Answer: A (CP-189) 10. The procedure for qualification and certification of NDT personnel shall describe which of the following as minimum requirements for certifying personnel in each NDT method and the levels of qualification desired? a. b.

c. d.

Personnel duties and responsibilities including, designation of principal Level-III if the employer has more than one NDT Level-III for a specific method. Training, experience and examination requirements, records and documentation requirements, including control, responsibility, retention period, and recertification requirements. Both a & b Acceptance criteria

Answer: C (CP-189) 11. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take the Level II radiography exam (holds Level I) is? a) 270 b) 400 c) 800 d) 1200

Answer: D (CP-189) 12. The minimum number of questions in a Level II magnetic particle inspection specific exam is? a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

Answer: B (CP-189, Table-1, Page 11/18) 13. Certification that has been revoked may be reinstated by the employer with the individual successfully undergoing: Page 4 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A. B. C. D. E

additional training vision examination examinations appropriate to the Level all of the above both B & C

Answer: E (CP-189) 14. Which of the following is not a requirement for vision examination? A. B. C. D.

Read Jaeger number 1 at a distance of 12 inches with both eyes Distinguish & differentiate contrast among colors used Be administered at initial certification and annually thereafter for near vision acuity Distinguish and differentiate contrast among shades of gray used

Answer: D (CP-189) 15. Who is responsible for the content of the product technology welding presented as part of training of NDT personnel? a) b) c) d)

Metallurgist Welding engineer NDT instructor NDT Level III

Answer: D (CP-189) 16. CP189 details the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT personnel in how many methods? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10

Answer: C (CP-189) 17. Reinstatement of suspended certification shall be determined by? a. The employer b. The NDT Level III c. The outside agency d. Either the employer or the NDT level III may be correct dependent upon the NDT level to be reinstated

Answer: D (CP-189) 18. The employer has deemed an individual's conduct has been unethical and his certification is therefore? a. Revoked b. Suspended c. Terminated d. Invalidated

Answer: A (CP-189) 19. NDT Level BI personnel shall be recertified by the employer every five years by? a. Examination b. ASNT Level III points systems Page 5 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level III is current in each method for which recertification is sought Written documentation

Answer: C (CP-189) 20.

The determination of whether indications are relevant or non-relevant is

a. b. c. d.

Evaluation Interpretation Assessment Appraisal

Answer: B (CP-189) 21. The practical exam at Level I the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of a. b. c. d.

1 sample for each technique and the test sample shall be representative of the products that the candidate will encounter in performing the job functions. 2 sample for each method Both of the above None of the above, Level-I does not require practical

Answer: A (CP-189) 22. a. b. c. d.

What shall be done for the practical examination? For practical examinations, questions and answers shall be written For practical examinations, questions and answers need not necessarily be written Observations and results must be documented Both b & c

Answer: D (CP-189) 23. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to properly perform to a specified NDT level is defined as? a. b. c. d.

Qualification Certification Testimonial Proficiency

Answer: A (CP-189) 24.

Who shall administer Vision Test?

a. b. c.

NDT Level-III only Medical Practitioner only Vision examinations shall be administered in accordance with a procedure, and by personnel, approved by an NDT Level III designated by the employer. All of the above

d.

Answer: C (CP-189) 25. A Level-II individual's vision examination interval exceeds one year, his certification shall be? a. b. c.

Revoked Suspended Terminated

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

Invalidated

Answer: B (CP-189) 26. a. b. c. d.

A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as? Evaluation Interpretation Assessment Appraisal

Answer: A (CP-189) 27.

The required training hours to go direct to Level II in penetrant inspection is?

a) b) c) d)

8 16 24 40

Answer: B (CP-189) 28. The number of test techniques listed for leak testing is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Answer: C (CP-189) 29. When an employer deems on individual's conduct has been unethical, the certification shall be: a. revoked b. suspended c. terminated d. invalidated

Answer: A (CP-189) 30. In Level-II practical examination the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of samples a. b. c. d.

1 2 4 10

Answer: B (CP-189) 31. A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as? a) b) c) d)

Evaluation Interpretation Assessment Appraisal

Answer: A (CP-189) 32. The representative of employer who administers the level-III examinations shall: Page 7 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

be designated by the employer be certified to NDT Level-III in accordance with SNT-TC-lA posses written testimony from the employer possess an ASNT Level-III certificate

Answer: D (CP-189) 33. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take direct Level II radiography exam is? a. 400 b. 800 c. 1200 d. 1600

Answer: D (CP-189) 34. Where an employer engages the services of an outside NDT Level-III, the NDT Level-III A. B. C. D. E.

shall hold a valid endorsement in tile applicable method(s) shall be certified by the employer shall responsible for training and examining of NDT personnel in the methods for which the NDT Level III is qualified all of the above both A&C

Answer: E (CP-189) 35. Who is responsible for documentation of records of certification? a. Outside agency b. NDT Level III c. NDT Instructor d. Employer

Answer: D (CP-189) 36. The Individual's certifications shall expire up on: a. Termination b. Completion of 3 years for level 1 & 2 c. Suspension d. Both a & b

Answer: D (CP-189) 37. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in magnetic particle inspection is? a. 8 b. 16 c. 20 d. 40

Answer: C (CP-189) 38. A company requires and NDT instructor. The person in mind is a graduate of a 2year school of science. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT Level II or equivalent must the individual have attained? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years Page 8 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

10 years

Answer: C (CP-189) 39. Which of the following is (are) true regarding a practical examination for NDT level II certified for two techniques in UT? a. b. c. d.

Minimum of two samples to be tested Minimum of one sample per technique and minimum of four samples for the method to be tested Minimum of 1 sample per technique and a minimum of two samples for the method to be tested Both b and c

Answer: C (CP-189) 40.

Qualification is defined as;

a. b.

An organized and documented program of activities The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to properly perform to a specified NDT level Acquired practical experience to carry out the job An individual certified to Level-I or Level-II

c. d.

Answer: B (CP-189) 41. Appendix B relates to "Training Outlines. The NDT Level-III is empowered to: a. change the topics as is applicable to his organizational needs b. modify the amount of time & depth of coverage for each topic & approve the training outlines c. both A & B above d. none of the above

Answer: D (CP-189) 42. Where an individual has not performed the duties in the method certified for a continuous 12 months period, then the certificate shall be a. b. c. d.

suspended revoked reinstated terminated

Answer: A (CP-189) 43. The minimum number of questions in a Level II penetrant inspection specific exam is? a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

Answer: A (CP-189) 44. Which of the following is not necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT records? a. b.

Academic qualifications Vision examination

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Levels of certification Record of previous experience

Answer: A (CP-189) 45. If an individual has not performed the duties in the method for which he is certified during any consecutive 12-month period his certification shall be? a. b. c. d.

Revoked Suspended Terminated Invalidated

Answer: B (CP-189) 46. The skills, training, knowledge and experience required for personnel to properly perform to a specified NDT level is defined as? a) b) c) d)

Qualification Certification Testimonial Proficiency

Answer: A (CP-189) 47. A written practice requires the initial experience to be computed in line with CP 189. If an individual spends 50h, 50h, 40h, 20h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the first calendar month and 20h, 50h, 40h, 50h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the second calendar month , the credit for the initial experience for these two months will be; A 70 h, 100h, 80h, 70h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively B. 160 h, 320 h, 80 h, 160 h m RT, UT, PT, MT respectively C. 320 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively D. 160 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively. E none of the above

Answer: A (CP-189) 48. The skills, knowledge training and experience required to properly perform NDT is called a. certification b. qualification c. proficiency d. achievement

Answer: B (CP-189) 49. The minimum number of questions in a Level I radiography general theory exam is? a. 15 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

Answer: D (CP-189) 50. The required training hours to go direct to Level II in penetrant inspection is? a. b.

8 16

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

24 40

Answer: B (CP-189) 51. The minimum number of questions in a Level II magnetic particle inspection specific exam is? a) b) c) d)

15 20 30 40

Answer: B (CP-189, Table-1, page 11/18 ) 52. Who is responsible for the content of the product technology welding presented as part of training of NDT personnel? a. Metallurgist b. Welding engineer c. NDT instructor d. NDT Level III

Answer: D (CP-189) 53. Renewal of NDT Level BI personnel every five years by? a) b) c) d)

Examination ASNT Level III points systems Verifying the individuals ASNT NDT Level DI is current in each method for which recertification is sought Written documentation

Answer: C (CP-189) 54. The requirements for far distance vision are as follows? a. Jaeger J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually b. Jaeger J2 at not less than 12 inches administered annually c. Jaeger J1 at not less than 15 inches administered in-annually d. None of the above

Answer: D (CP-189) 55. How many levels of qualification are defined in CP 189? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

Answer: C (CP-189) 56. Assuming necessary organized training is imparted: a. b. c. d. e.

Mark is eligible to appear for PT level I exam & MT level I exam by end April Jack is eligible to appear for PT level II by end June Jack is eligible to appear for UT level I by end July Both A & B above All of the above are true

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: D (CP-189) 57.

The person responsible for content on casting in a training course is

a. b. c. d.

a metallurgist NDT Level III An NDT instructor All of the above

Answer: C (CP-189) 58. The practical examination at Level H the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of a. At least 1 sample for each technique b. 2 sample for each method c. Both of the above d. None of the above

Answer: C (CP-189) 59. Which of the following can be qualified as an `NDT Instructor', providing an NDT Level—BI designates him/her? A. An M. S. in mechanical engineering. B. A B.Sc.; in mathematics with adequate knowledge in the NDT to be taught C. A 12th standard NDT Level II with 15 years experience D. both A & B above E both B & C above

Answer: D (CP-189) 60. The employer's representative who administers the Level III examinations shall possess? a) Written testimony from the employer b) A company Level BI certificate c) ASNT Level III certification in the method for which the examination is administered d) Certification that the individual has met the applicable requirements of SNT-TC-1A

Answer: C (CP-189) 61. The practical examination at Level H the candidate shall demonstrate proficiency in the applicable NDT method on a minimum of samples? a) b) c) d)

1 2 4 10

Answer: B (CP-189) 62. a. b. c. d.

The requirements for near distance vision are as follows? Jaeger J1 at not less than 12 inches administered annually Jaeger 12 at not less than 12 inches administered annually Jaeger J1 at not less than 15 inches administered annually Jaeger J1 at not less than 15 inches administered bi-annually

Answer: A (CP-189) Page 12 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 63 If an individual has not performed the duties in the method for which he is certified during any consecutive 12-month period his certification shall be? a) b) c) d)

Revoked Suspended Terminated Invalidated

Answer: B (CP-189) 64. A company requires and NDT instructor. The person in mind has no academic credentials. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT Level II or equivalent must the individual have attained? a) b) c) d)

1 year 3 years 5 years 10 years

Answer: D (CP-189) 65. The employer has deemed an individual's conduct has been unethical and his certification is therefore? a) b) c) d)

Revoked Suspended Terminated Invalidated

Answer: A (CP-189) 66. Which of the following is necessary to a document as part of the individuals NDT records? a. b. c. d.

Academic qualifications Vision examination Levels of certification Bollib&c

Answer: D (CP-189) 67. Certifications that have been revoked (level I & level II) shall be reinstated a. b. c. d.

by examinations under no circumstances though initial certification process an one of the above as deemed necessary by the NDT level

Answer: A (CP-189) 68. NDT level BI shall be recertified a. every three years b. every five years c. by examinations d. bothb &c e. none of the above

Answer: B (CP-189) Page 13 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 69. A company requires and NDT instructor The person in mind has no academic credentials. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT Level II or equivalent must the individual have attained? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years

Answer: D (CP-189) 70. Who is responsible for administration and grading? a. b.

c.

d.

An NDT Level-BI is responsible even he does not have a valid ASNT Level-BI certificate for that method. The employer is responsible for having an individual possessing a current ASNT NDT Level-BI certificate to develop, administer, and grade Level III specific and practical examinations. An NDT Level-III shall be responsible for the administration and grading for NDT L-I and L-H personnel for those methods in which the NDT Level-HI has a valid ASNT Level-BI certificate. Bollib&c

Answer: D (CP-189) 71. Which of the following is not necessary to be included in the certification records of a level II? a. b. c. d.

Educational qualifications vision examination results current copies of examinations record of applicable previous experience.

Answer: A (CP-189) 72. Total number of hours in NDT to be eligible to take the Level H radiography exam (holds Level I) is? a. 270 b. 400 c. 800 d. 1200

Answer: D (CP-189) 73 CP189 details the minimum requirements for the qualification and certification of NDT personnel in how many methods? a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10

Answer: C (CP-189) 74. By end July, both Mark & Jack are not eligible to appear for Level H in any of the methods a. b.

True False

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: B (CP-189) 75. An NDT Level-DI shall have skills and knowledge to: a. establish techniques b. interpret codes, standards, and specifications c. verify adequacy of procedures d. conduct or direct training for Level I and II. e. all of the above are required for NDT Level-DI

Answer: E (CP-189) 76.

A determination of the significance of a relevant indication is defined as

a. b. c. d.

evaluation interpretation judgment decision

Answer: A (CP-189) 77. The required number of training hours t go direct to level II m electromagnetic testing is: a. b. c. d.

52 h 80 h 16h 64h

Answer: A (CP-189) 78. a. b. c.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the NDT level III? approve course outline for training approve a procedure for vision examination administer and grade level I practical examinations document certifications in accordance with the standard

Answer: D (CP-189) 79.

An NDT Level — III shall:

A. B. C. D. E.

be an ASNT level — BI with valid endorsement undergo specific examination without exception undergo practical examination without exception both A and B all of the above

Answer: D (CP-189) 80. The employer's representative who administers the Level III examinations shall possess? a. b. c. d.

Written testimony from the employer A company Level BI certificate An ASNT Level DI certification Certification that the individual has met the applicable requirements of SNT-TC-1A

Answer: C (CP-189) 81.

If the employer has more than one NDT Level III for a specific method

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

The employer shall designate one individual as the principal NDT Level III for each such method Since all have same qualification, the employer shall not designate anybody as principal NDT Level III for each such method. The employer shall designate all as the principal NDT Level III for each such method None of the above, because only one NDT Level-DI shall be appointed by the employer.

Answer: A (CP-189) 82. is?

The minimum number of questions in a Level I radiography general theory exam

a) b) c) d)

15 20 30 40

Answer: D (CP-189) 83.

Reinstatement of suspended certifications shall be determined by:

a. b. c. d. e.

the employer the NDT Level-BI ASNT customer none of the above

Answer: E (CP-189) 84. A candidate for the post of NDT instructor has no documentary evidence to support his educational a. b. c. d.

1 year 5 years 10 years None of the above

Answer: C (CP-189) 85. An employer's 'Certification Record' may include: A. B. C. D. E

level of certification method to which certified& the test technique covered. dates of certifi.c_ation& expiration. dates of suspension& reinstatement none of the above

Answer: D (CP-189)

SNT-TC1 A 86. A written practice requires the initial experience to be computed on a 160 h, calendar month basis. If an individual spends 50 li, 50 11, 40 h, 20 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the first calendar month and 20 h, 50 h, 40 h, 50 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively in the second calendar month, the credit for the initial experience for these two months will be: A. 70 h, 100 h, 80 h, 70 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively B. 160 h, 320 h, 80 h, 160 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively Page 16 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ C. D. E

320 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively 160 h, 320 h, 320 h, 320 h in RT, UT, PT, MT respectively none of the above

Answer: A () 87. If an employer performs NDT to multiple codes, specification and `acceptance:' standards are it, necessary to include questions relating to each code, specification or, acceptance standards m this specific' examination? a. No, the level-BI examiner can select the questions from the code, standard of his choice. b. Yes, it, is the intent of SNT-TC-1A that the specific examination covers all the codes, specifications and acceptance criteria applicable to the employers activities c. May be selected based upon differencing job requirements of individual candidates. d. Both (b) and (c).

Answer: A () 88. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-IA currently applicable? a. b. c. d.

Thermography Tomography Visual testing None of the above

Answer: A () 89. In accordance with SNT-TC-TA 1996 which of the following is true for a level -III? a. b. c. d.

On the basis of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience and education the employer may waive examination for the level - III individual. The employer may delete the specific examination if the candidate has a valid ASNT NDT level al certificate in the method' and if documented evidence of experience exists. The employer shall recognize only the ASNT level' BI, certificate holder. All of the above are hue.

Answer: A () 90. Certifying agency is defined as:a. The Employer b. The Outside Agency c. The ASNT Level BI d. Both Employer and the ASNT Level III

Answer: A () 91. A candidate for re-examination must wait a minimum of:a. b. c. d.

20 Days 30 days Receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level DI before examination 30 Days and receive suitable additional training as determined by NDT Level BI before examination

Answer: A () 92. Outside training services must be in accordance with the employers written practice and are the responsibility ofa.

NDT Level BI

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Outside Agency Employer Customer

Answer: A () 91 Initial experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the candidate spends a minimum of of walk time on each method for which certification is sought. a. b. c. d.

20% 25% 33% 50%

Answer: A () 94. As per SNT-TC-1A is it intended that an employer may use level-III individuals in his direct employment and also use an outside agency for level-DI services? a. b. c. d.

No, an employer shall use only one agency at a time Yes, both the above and this situation may be used under circumstances as described in the employers' written practice.. Employer utilizing outside agency must not have a level III in his direct employment. ASNT does not permit the use of an outside agency

Answer: A () 95. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 7011 Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance, recommends infrared electrical inspections be conducted when the load is at least %of design maximum_ a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 95%

Answer: A () 96. When applying SNT-TC-1A 1996 Edition in strict accordance with the document, is it the Level III must be examined? a. No Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is the responsibility of the employer. b. No The employer can specify the requirements for a certification route without examination in the employer's written practice. c. Bath a and b d. Yes

Answer: A () 97. The written practice on qualification& certification of NDT personnel is: A. best reviewed& approved by the purchaser. B. best reviewed& approved by ASNT. C. best reviewed& approved by a panel of independent quality assurance auditors. D. all of the above E None of the above

Answer: A () 98.

For NDT Level-BI, the Basic examination is

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Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

Required for every additional method examination Only once when more than one method examination is taken Not required, only method and specific examination shall be taken Either a or c depends up on written practice

Answer: A () 99. An NDT Level DI faces a situation where the Health and Safety of the public are not protected. Which of the following actions shall be taken? a. Notify the proper authority b. Refuse to accept responsibility for the design c. If necessary sever relationship with the employer d. All of the above

Answer: A () 100. A candidate claims total experience of 210 hours in RT, UT, MT & PT. Out of which he claims 70 hours experience in RT and 80 hours in UT, 40 hours in MT and 20 hours in PT. Which of the following methods he is eligible for certification: a. RT, UT b. RT, UT, MT c. RT, UT, MT & PT d. None of the above

Answer: A () 101. A candidate has worked for 1 year doing thickness measurement using flaw detector. 85 percent of the time spent in thickness measurement and the rest of the time was used to practice in shear wave testing. Is he eligible for direct level-1I? a. b. c. d.

No, he has to spend 25% of time in shear wave testing Yes, he is eligible for direct level-II He is eligible for level-I only After passing level-I he is eligible for level-II

Answer: A () 102. Organized training: A. is required for initial certification. B. should include examinations as part of it to assess level of comprehension C. may be required for individuals not passing the re-examinations D. is meant to impart knowledge& skills necessary for qualification E all of the above

Answer: A () 101 The use of employment agencies for securing salaried positions and paying of a commission is considered? a. b. c. d.

Unacceptable Acceptable Open to ruling of the Ethics Committee A felony

Answer: A () 104 Mayan employer deviates from the guidelines given in SNT-TC lA to meet his specific needs? Page 19 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a.

b. c. d.

Yes: employer shall modify the guidelines to meet his needs, since it is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employer's circumstances or applications- . No, these guidelines shall be strictly followed. Yes, certain employer's are permitted to deviate from the guidelines. None of the above.

Answer: A () 105. Which of the following is (are) not recommended in the 2001 edition? A. B. C. D. E

Level II technician should possess skills & knowledge to establish teclmiques. All ASNT Level III holding a valid endorsement may also have to undergo examinations for certification. Specific examination may be deleted if the candidate (ASNT NDT Level BI) holds a valid endorsement bona A & B above both B & C above

Answer: A () 106. The requirement for vision examination are as follows:a. Jaeger J1 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered b. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 15 inches administered c. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered d. Jaeger J2 at a distance not less than 12 inches administered

armi annually annually bi-annually.

Answer: A () 107. Which of the following NDT Levels should be qualified to set up and calibrate equipment and to interpret and evaluate results with respect to applicable codes, standards and specifications? a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level II and Level BI

Answer: A () 108. Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-IA? a. This document is intended as a guideline for employers to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel. b. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification. c. SNT-TC-1A was last revised in 1992. d. All of the above.

Answer: A () 109. Which of the following statements is true? An NDT Level III shall a. b. c. d.

Issue no public statements Criticize NDT matters connected with public policy Issue no public statements, which are paid for by an interested party Express no opinion on NDT matters

Answer: A () 110. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the Written Practice? Page 20 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

The employer shall establish a written practice. The written practice should describe levels of responsibility. The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability. The written practice shall be maintained on file.

Answer: A () 111. The following results were obtained as a result of examination: Practical: 90% General Theory: 68% Specific Theory: 92% What is the composite grade and has the candidate passed or failed? a. b. c. d.

83.3% Pass 83.3% Fail 85.5% Pass 85.5% Fail

Answer: A () 112. Near vision Examination shall be administered by: a. Representative of NDT Level-DI b. NDT Level-BI c. Persoimel as per the employer's written practice, which should include details of the qualifications required of examiners. d.

Both a & b

Answer: A () 113. If an outside agency is engaged to provide level-BI service, the: a. b. c. d.

responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer utilizing outside services. Outside agency may, certify the personnel of the employer utilizing outside services Employer utilizing outside services must have a level-BI in direct employment Employer must obtain prior permission from the customer.

Answer: A () 114_ Which of the following is common to both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189? a_ b. c. d.

Both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189 are for employer-based certification programs. The employer does have the ability to modify either certification program to meet specific needs. SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice, CP-189 is a consensus standard that sets the minimum requirements for a personnel qualification and certification program Both a &b

Answer: A () 115. May a level-I person who has been Certified in accordance with SNT-TC- 1A1996, be permitted to evaluate, and sign for final acceptance of NDE examination? a. No, as per SNT-TC-IA the NOT level-I personnel is required to perform that test only and is not supposed to evaluate the test results. . b. Yes, a level-BI personnel may-delegate the powers to level-I for evaluation of test results. c. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the level-I person. May perform the above function provided they are in accordance with written procedures and so documented in the employer's written practice d. both (b) and (c) Page 21 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 116. To be considered for certification at Level BI a candidate should satisfy which of the following criteria? a. b. c. d.

Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus one years experience in NDT. Four years at college or university with a degree in engineering or science plus two years experience in NDT. Three years experience as NDT Level H and one years experience as NDT Level I. Five years experience as NDT Level n

Answer: A () 117. An employee was issued with a Level-I certification with 3 year validation Two years after certification he attempts a Level-II examination and fails. What is the status of his Level I certification? a. Since a higher level certification was attempted and failed, the existing lower level certification would be considered valid for the remainder of the certification period b. Since he failed, his level-1 certification is not valid and must take re-examination. c. He must take re-examination after 30 days d. His level-1 certificate is valid for 30 days and within that time frame he has to take reexamination.

Answer: A () 118. The code of ethics shall be upon every person issued a certificate by ASNT as an NDT Level III. a. b. c. d.

Binding Optional Negotiable Mandatory

Answer: A () 119. An NDT Level BI shall serve which of the following? a. Employer b. Client c. Public d. All of the above

Answer: A () 120. In preparing for qualification, the training times recommended for level-I in Magnetic Particle Testing are greater than for level Why? a. Some NDT methods require more initial training at level I because of differences in complexity and manipulative skills. b. Candidates for level-I generally have less formal education than those for level-II. c. No the candidates should always receive more training for level-I1 regardless of NDT method. d. both (a) and (b).

Answer: A () 121. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified? Page 22 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

yes, because SNT-TC-1A standard requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified. no, because SNT-TC-1A standard on personnel certification does not cover that specific operation. only if required by industry codes, standards, and specifications. it depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or client

Answer: A () 122. It was observed during an audit by purchaser on a supplier that an ASNT NDT Level III had been certified waiving examinations that were required by the supplier's written practice. The best option would be: A. No specific action is required as SNT -TC-1A indicates that an ASNT NDT Level — III may be certified waiving the examinations. B. This is a nonconformity against the written practice needs to be resolved with the customer. C. D.

It is best to amend the relevant portion of the written practice immediately to avoid such nonconformities. all of the above could be a possible option.

Answer: A () 121 A person who administered and graded an examination was identified on the examination and on the certification, and both are signed by the Level BI certifier, does the Level III need to issue a letter or statement delegating that person as their representative? a. Yes, the Level-BI certifier has to issue a letter designating that person as their representative. b. Need not be, A Level BI's signature on the examination or certification may be accepted as designation. c. No, the employer has to issue a letter designating that person as their representative. d. None of the above

Answer: A () 124 According to SNT-TC-1A 1996 which one of the following statement is correct for a level II? a. A graduate in Engineering shall undergo training for forty (40) hours and have work time experience of nine months to qualify as level - II in UT. b. A high school graduate shall undergo training for forty (40) hours and have work time experience of nine (9) months to qualify as level - II in UT. c. Both the above statements are true. d. Only (a) is true.

Answer: A () 125. Color contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and then:a. Annually b. At 2 year intervals c. At 3 year intervals d. At 5 year intervals

Answer: A ()

Page 23 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 126. To be in full compliance with ASNT TC-1A, certification must be based on which of the following: a. b. c. d.

Training, equipment, and having a certificate Training, experience, and testing Experience with certified training Level I, Level II and Level BI training

Answer: A () 127. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A it is recommended that a training programme for qualification and certification purposes should include: a. Organized training to become thoroughly familiar with `the principles and practices' of the specified test method related' to the level of certification desired b. Training applicable to the practices to be used and products to be tested. c. Sufficient examination to assure that the necessary information has, been comprehended. d. All of the above. e. Only (b) & (c).

Answer: A () 128. Who is responsible for the designation of representative for the administration and grading of examinations? a. The employer's written practice should identify the person b. When not specifically addressed in the written practice, designation of a representative becomes wholly the responsibility of the NDT Level III c. A Level IH's signature on the examination or certification may be accepted as designation. d. All of the above

Answer: A () 129. Should the employer's (designated) representative signing for certification, be a certified Level III examiner in the specific discipline? a. Yes b. No, It can be signed by an individual with no certification in that discipline but is a certified level BI examiner in a different NDT process. C. Whoever is identified by the employer in their written practice as the designated representative, may sign the record of certification. d. Only the certifying agency can sign the certification document

Answer: A () 130. According to Guidelines for personnel qualification and certification (ASNT TC1A) theimograplaers are certified by: a. ASNT b. The company from which they received their training c. Their employer d. National Certification Board of America (NCBA)

Answer: A () 131. SNT-TC-1A 2001 is applicable to how many NDT methods? a. 7 b. 8 Page 24 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

11 12

Answer: A () 132. In accordance with SNT-TC-IA 1996, Which of the following statements is not hue? a. An NDT level-BI shall be responsible for the administration and grading of examinations for NDT level I & II personnel. b. The administration and grading of examination may be delegated to a designated representative of NDT level -DI and so recorded. c. The percentage weights used in grading are recommended to total 1.0 d. For a level-I & I personnel a composite grade shall be determined by simple averaging of general, specific& practical examination results.

Answer: A () 131 The number of questions for Ultrasonic Testing at Level 1 General a. 20 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40

Theory is:

Answer: A () 134. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70E, Electrical safety for personnel, states that the "flash hazard" distance for high energy electrical equipment at 440/480V is what distance from the conductor? a. 1 foot b. 20 feet c. 4 meters d. 3 feet

Answer: A () 135. A candidate is required to be examined directly to Level II in PT. How many months experience must the candidate have? a. b. c. d.

1 2 3 6

Answer: A () 136. An NDT Level Ill who accepts gratuities from equipment suppliers for specifying their products may be charged under the code of ethics with? a. b. c. d.

Improper conduct Conflict of interest Unauthorized practice None of the above

Answer: A () 137. How many different techniques are identified in leak testing? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 Page 25 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

5

Answer: A () 138. To be in full compliance with ASNT TC-1A, certification must be based on which of the following: a. Training, equipment, and having a certificate b. Training, experience, and testing c. Experience with certified training d. Level I, Level II and Level III training

Answer: A () 139. As recommended in SNT:-TC-1A the physical examination requirements a intended to a. b. c. d.

assure natural, corrected, near distance acuity in at least one eye such that the applicant is, capable of reading a minimum of Jaeger Number 2, on a standard Jaeger Test Clint. Each employer's specific needs. Meet the specific sections ASME code. both (a) and (b)

Answer: A () 140. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified? a. yes, because ASNT-SNT-TC1A standard requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified. b. no, because ASNT-SNT-TC1A standard on personnel certification does not cover that specific operation. c. only if required by industry codes, standards, and specifications. d. it depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele.

Answer: A () 141. Which of the following is (are) not true with respect to the 2001 edition of SNTTC-1A? A Level-II individuals require higher education& experience in the applicable method than Level I individuals in the corresponding methods B. Vision acuity is to be checked with either a Jaeger chart or an Ortho-Rater chart only C. Recertification of an individual is automatic: and is solely based on his continued satisfactory performance D. all of the above E A & B above

Answer: A () 142. Any individual examination grade less than 70 percent should be failing grade? a. Yes b. No, if the composite grade is 80% he should be considered as pass c. The employer has to decide on this d. Both b and c

Answer: A () Page 26 of 113

considered a

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 141 An employer has to test or certify an outside Level III consultant? a. b. c. d.

Yes No, only review the Level-DI consultant's qualification No, the employer has to assure that the examination services are in accordance with employer's written practice Bothb &c

Answer: A () 144. Which of the following statements is true with respect to SNT-TC1A? a. This document specifies the requirements for establishment of qualification and examination program b. This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and certification program_ c. This document specifies the requirements for establishment of a qualification and certification program. d. This document provides guidelines for the establishment of qualification and examination program

Answer: A () 145. In order to qualify for ASNT NDT Level-DI a candidate with a bachelor's degree or higher is required to have: a. b. c.

d.

At least one year of experience in NDT in an assignment comparable to that of a Level If in the applicable NDT method. The Level 1111 candidate must pass in the Method examination. Successfully complete a Basic Examination covering personnel qualification and certification documents (Recommended Practice No SNT-TC-1A and ANSI/ASNT CP-189), material processes and technology, and 10 different NDT methods. All of the above

Answer: A () 146. When canying out practical examination at NDT Level II the minimum number of samples to be tested is? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Answer: A () 147. Should personnel that operate optical fibroscope for visual examination be qualified and certified? a. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A required that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified. b. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation c. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the need of the employer and the need of the employer's customers or clients. d. only if required by specific codes and standard.

Answer: A () 148. The employers certification shall be deemed when employment is terminated. a.

Suspended

Page 27 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Annulled Nullified Revoked

Answer: A () 149. What is the key difference between SNT-TC-1A and CP-189? a. SNT-TC-1A is a consensus standard, CP-189 is a recommended practice b. SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice, while CP-189 is a consensus standard that sets the minimum requirements for a personnel qualification and certification program c. SNT-TC-1A is an employer-based certification programs and CP-189 is a strict standard that is to be followed. d. The employer does have the ability to modify either certification program to meet specific needs in both SNT-TC-1A and CP 189.

Answer: A () 150. Use of SNT-TC-IA is mandatory when: a. Their material being tested is for an export contract. b. It has been specified by the customer. c. The material being tested by is as per ASME code. d. Any of the above cases occurred.

Answer: A () 151. Is the ASNT Level BI certificate endorsement limited to persons a. b. c. d.

tested by ASNT?

Yes No, Any body who posses' level-II is also endorsed Employer has to decide regarding this None of the above.

Answer: A () 152. According to Guidelines for personnel qualification and certification (ASNT TC-1A) thermographers are certified by: a. ASNT b. The company from which they received their training c. Their employer d. National Certification Board of America (NCBA)

Answer: A () 153 The responsibility of each level of certification for determining the acceptability of material: a. shall be in accordance with the applicable codes, standards, specification and procedures. b. should be in accordance with customers' requirements c. should be described in employers' written practice under all circumstances d. should be described in employers' written practice only if customer calls for it

Answer: A () 154. The responsibility for vision examination rests with: A the qualified representative of the NDT Level-BI B. the NDT Level III C. the candidate seeking certification D. the company's doctor Page 28 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ E

all of the above

Answer: A () 155. The American standard for the certification of nondestructive testing personnel is developed and maintained by: a. The American Society of Non-Destructive Testing (ASNT). b. standard committee composed of representatives from industry working under the auspice of CGSB. c. Natural Resources US (formally Energy, Mines and Resources) under the auspice of the American General Standards Board. d. a cooperative effort between various American regulatory bodies and Natural Resources.

Answer: A () 156. An employer, on deciding to establish a system for qualification &certifying,NDT personnel, should: A B. C. D. E

have an NDT Level III on his rolls have an ASNT NDT Level III with valid endorsement in all the applicable methods review the recommendations& modify, as necessary, to meet particular needs A & B above B & C above

Answer: A () 157. Which of the following may be ground for a charge of a violation ethics? a. b. c. d.

of the code of

Conviction of a felony Revocation of professional engineers license Suspension of professional engineers license All of the above

Answer: A () 158. For re-qualification of Level I and II NDT personnel, does the individual must keep continuous records by the hour showing that the individual has continuously spent at least 25 percent of his work time working in each method to which qualified? a. No, it is only the initial experience required and not applicable for re-certification. b. Yes, the individual has to maintain continuous record. c. No, It is the employer who decides this d. Re-certification experience is decided by the level-BI

Answer: A () 159. The number of questions for magnetic particle inspection at Level BI specific theory is: a. b. c. d.

15 20 30 40

Answer: A () 160. Is it possible to write a written practice to cover both the recommendations in SNT-TC-1A., and the requirements given in ANSI/ASNT CP-189? a.

No, because SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice and CP 189 is a standard that require minimum requirements. Page 29 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Yes, a written practice can cover both if it meets the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A To write a written practice to meet both SNT-TC-1A recommendations and CP-189 requirements, the minimum requirements of the CP-189 document would have to be met No, It is not permitted.

Answer: A () 161. An employer faced with the task of developing a written practice per Recommended Practice No SNT-TC-1A, Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing. Which of the following is true as per SNT-TC-IA? a. A written practice need to be written by a Level BI and approved by the employer b. The task of developing a WP should be given to the individual who is the most familiar with the various administrative aspects, which constitute an NDT personnel qualification and certification program. c. Regardless of who authors the written practice, it is always the employer who has the final approval of its contents. d. Both b & c

Answer: A () 162. Shall the NDT Level I, who was qualified in accordance with an early edition and continuing satisfactory performance, be required to take an additional examination evaluating the practical examination results, until next requalification, if their written practice stipulates the specific evaluation of acceptance for the NDT Level I? a. No b. Yes c. Level I certification is valid until the expiration date. At that time, the individual should be recertified according to the employer's guidelines d. Both a & c

Answer: A () 163. In accordance with SNT-TC-IA 1996 is it implied that an individual at maximum could be qualified only 4 methods? a. b. c. d.

Yes, because the individual requires to spend at least 25% of his work time on each method. No, the candidate may be qualified in as many methods as desired. The 25% work time experience only applies for the initial qualification in each level for each method. The 25% work time experience is not applicable and is not required for; the individual to remain qualified in particular method at a specific qualification level. both (b) and (c) are true.

Answer: A () 164. An NDT Level III must be completely in any professional report statement on testimony. a. Prejudiced b. Impersonal c. Objective d. Conventional

Answer: A () 165. Establishing a written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel, training, examination & certification: a. is the sale responsibility of the employer Page 30 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

is basically the responsibility of the NDT level III as per SNT-TC-TA shall be as dictated by the customer shall be in accordance with the guidelines given by an appropriate regulatory authority

Answer: A () 166. An outside agency that provides NDT Level III services could be: A an individual B. a company C. an individual or a company D. an individual or a company whose services are reviewed & approved by the user

Answer: A () 167. As a minimum, what should an employer, expect from an outside provider? a. b. c. d.

Level III service

For long time contract the Level III person should review all of current procedures and personnel, equipment/cahbration records. If the person is employed for just starting to perform nondestructive testing, then the Level DI should assist the employer in developing all of the necessary documentation Both a and b None of the above, the outside Level-BI should only sign the document

Answer: A () 168. As per SNT-TC-1A which of the statement is true concerning recertification? a. recertification level-I & II shall be at least once in three (3) years b. recertification for level-III shall be at least once in five (5) years. c. NDT personnel may be reexamined any time at the discretion of the employer and have the certificate extended or revoked d. all of the above are tnie e. Only (a) & (b) are true

Answer: A () 169. Table 63.1A contains the statement "Credit for experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more disciplines. The candidate must spend at least 25 percent of his work time on each discipline for which experience is being claimed. Over what time period does the term "simultaneously" apply? a. b. c. d.

Table 63.1B shall be followed The employer's written practice should specify the time period over which simultaneous experience shall be credited Time period does not matte, only the total experience counts. None of the above

Answer: A () 170. The composite grade for general, specific& practical examinations should be: A. as defined in the employer's written practice B. simple averaging of test results of general, specific and practical C. both A & B above D. None of the above

Answer: A () 171. In order to Obtain ASNT NDT Level-BI a candidate is required to have: Page 31 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c.

d.

At least one year of experience in NDT in an assignment comparable to that of a Level II in the applicable NDT method The Level III candidate must pass in the Method examination. Successfully complete a Basic Examination covering personnel qualification and certification documents (Recommended Practice No SNT-TC-1A and ANSI/ASNT CP-189), material processes and technology, and 10 different NDT methods. Bothb&c

Answer: A () 172. Written testimony of qualification is termed:a. Documentation b. Certification c. Testimonial d. Authentication

Answer: A () 171 When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III how many checkpoints are necessary to confirm an understanding of NDT variables and the employers procedural requirements? a. b. c. d.

1 5 10 15

Answer: A () 174. Is 25% minimum experience work time implies that a candidate can be qualified maximum of 4 methods? a. b. c. d.

No The candidate may be qualified in as many methods as desired. The 25 percent work time experience only applies to the work time experience required for initial qualification in each level for each method. The 25 percent is not applicable and is not required for the individual to remain qualified in a particular method at a specific qualification level. All of the above

Answer: A () 175. A Level-II candidate had Scores of 34, 50, 58 out of a total possible 50, 60, 70 in general, specific& practical respectively in an examination and failed. All other requirements being met, which of the following additional scores would have made him pass the exam? A B. C. D. R

1 in general, 1 in practical 2 in specific 1 in general, 1 in practical& in specific all of the above none of the above

Answer: A () 176. Which of the following statement is not true: A. SNT-TC-1A is intended for use by any industrial segment. B. SNT-TC-1A was not generated to satisfy any particular code or specification requirements. C. SNT=TC-1A was last revised in 1992. Page 32 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ D.

SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as strict specification.

Answer: A () 177. The employer A should have on his rolls, as a minimum one NDT Level — III for each of the applicable methods B. should have on his rolls, as a minimum, one NDT Level — III C. may purchase NDT Level — III services, as necessary D. none of the above

Answer: A () 178. Automatic termination of 'certification is recommended when the a. Temporarily assigned to a different job function. b. Take a leave of absence greater than ninety (90) days c. Terminates employment with the employer where certified d. Achieve a higher level of certification.

certified individual:

Answer: A () 179. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified? a. b. c. d.

yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified no, because SNT-TC-1A standard on personnel certification does not cover that specific operation. only if required by industry codes, standards, and specifications. it depends solely upon the needs of the employer and the requirements of the employer's customers or clientele.

Answer: A () 180. Conflict of interest with an employer? a. Is unacceptable b. May be acceptable if agreement on compensation can be made c. Shall be disclosed to the employer d. Shall not be made known

Answer: A () 181. An NDT Level III who reviewed work that was performed by himself on behalf of another employer when an employed public official would be considered? a. Ethical b. Improper conduct c. Conflict of interest d. Unauthorized practice

Answer: A () 182. Minimum number of questions for NDT Level-DI is a. Basic-135, Method-135 b. Basic-55, Method-65 c. Basic-55, Method-55, Specific-20 d. Basic-55, Method-65, Specific-20

Answer: A () Page 33 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ OTHER NDT METHODS 181 When checking for imperfections on rolled slabs which of the following viewing techniques will give the sharpest image? a. Television image from a vidicon b. Television image from a charged coupled device c. Photographic image d. Television image from a vidicon and television image from a charged coupled device

Answer: A () 184. Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other inspection techniques? a. Detects geometric form of defects b. Requires stress c. Less material sensitive d. More geometry sensitive

Answer: A () 185. Eddy current testing requires that the material tested be a. b. n d.

magnetic non-magnetic conductive both b and c

Answer: A () 186. For type-2 exposure devices using a flexible metal drive cable to position the isotope, the isotope capsule is attached to a a. zircalloy tube b. pigtail n depleted uranium shield d. quick disconnect coupling

Answer: A () 187. Which of the following is an advantage of the post-emulsification fluorescent penetrant process? a. is very good on rough surfaces such as sand castings. b. involves fewer operations than with other penetrant processes. c. can be used on anodized surfaces. d. can be used to detect wide, shallow defects.

Answer: A () 188. What water path is needed when using a straight beam transducer with a 4-inch (101 mm) focus to place focal spot at a bond line 17 mm deep in copper? (Velocity in copper=0.18cm/s and Velocity in water=0.584) a. 4.12in b. 2.06in n 2.06 mm d. 20.6m

Answer: A () Page 34 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 189. Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and the extent a liquid penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and other small openings? A. The hardness of the specimen being tested B. The surface condition of the specimen being tested C. The color of the penetrant D. The conductivity of the specimen being tested

Answer: A () 190. The measurement of radiant energy in the visible spectrum, based on a standard observer response, is called: A photometry. a spectrometry. C. geniometry. D. spectrodiomehy.

Answer: A () 191. Which of the following faults is more likely to be found in a forged product? a. b. n d. n

Lap Porosity Cold shut Shrinkage Both lap and porosity

Answer: A () 192. The simultaneous comparison of a standard lamp and an unknown light source is called: A B. C. D.

absolute photometry. relative photometry. direct photometry. substitution photometry.

Answer: A () 193. An indication, in magnetic particle inspection, that is held mechanically and not magnetically, is known as: a. a forging burst b. a non-relevant indication n a false indication d. magnetic writing

Answer: A () 194. Should an isotope camera be found to be leaking radioactive material subsequent to a wipe test a. the depleted uranium is to be replaced b. all exposures since the last wipe test are to be recalled n the source is to be destroyed d. none of the above

Answer: A () 195. Which of the following would normally be considered the best fill-factor for eddy current inspection of straight tubing with an encircling or feed-through coil? Page 35 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

1.75 095 0.50 025

Answer: A () 196. Which cells in the human body are most affected by ionizing A. White blood cells. B. Red blood cells. C. Plasma cells. D. Lens of the eye.

Radiation?

Answer: A () 197. Which of the following would be classed as an in service fault? a. Shrinkage crack b. Fatigue crack c. Grinding crack d. All could be service faults

Answer: A () 198. Converting old units to SI units, 100 rads = 1 gray (GY) How many mGys are there in 1 rad? A. B. C. D.

0.10 1.00 10.00 10090

Answer: A () 199. Which of the following is an advantage of the pressure change measurement test method? a. Requires no special tracer gas b. Can be used for measuring total leakage rate on either evacuated or pressurized systems c. Can be used to measure total leakage rate on any size system d. All of the above apply

Answer: A () 200. The light from common sources, particularly light from incandescent lamps, is often compared with light from a theoretical source. This theoretical source is called a: A B C. D.

gray body photometer. blackbody. light comparator.

Answer: A () 201. When using a camera for visual inspection within an extremely high radiation area which of the following types would be chosen? a. Vidicon tube b. Charged coupled device c. Metal oxide semi conductor d. Orthicon tube Page 36 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 202. Why do prod tips need to be kept clean and free from contaminants? a. The contamination reduces the resistance so increasing current flow b. Clean prod tips have less chance of arcing c. Clean prods conduct current through scale much better d. The increase in resistance with dirty prods reduces the current output e. Both clean prod tips have less chance of arcing and the increase in resistance with dirty prods reduces the current output

Answer: A () 203. A tool that uses the wavelength of light as a unit to measure the surface contour is called: A surface comparator. B. metallurgical microscope. C. interference microscope. D. polarized microscope

Answer: A () 204. When thorough demagnetization is to be accomplished by placing the part in a coil energized with AC of decreasing amperage, the following orientation of the long axis of the part is most advantageous: A East-West B. North-South C. Irrelevant (no difference) D. South-West

Answer: A () 205. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given conditions of exposure with the film located at a distance of 36 inches from the target of the x-ray tube. If the film is now placed only 18 inches from the target and all exposure conditions except time are held constant, the new exposure time will be: A Unchanged. B. Longer by approximately 80 percent. C. Shorter by approximately 55 percent. D. Only about 25 percent as long as the original exposure time

Answer: A () 206. During manual fihn processing, the purpose of the stop bath is to: A change the exposed silver salts to black metallic silver. B. neutralizes the developer and stop the developing process. C. eliminate most water spots and streaks. D. none of the above.

Answer: A () 207. Ultrasonic waves transmitted into and received from the test material in the form of repetitive bursts of acoustic energy is called: A Pulse-echo testing B. Continuous wave testing C. Resonance testing Page 37 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ D.

None of the above

Answer: A () 208. When a sound beam travels from a liquid into a metal through a contoured surface, the sound beam inside the metal will: A B. C. D.

Have larger beam diameter Have same beam diameter Not be effected by the part geometry Be convergent if the surface is concave, and divergent if the surface is convex

Answer: A () 209. The principle of solid-state image devices is based on: A. B. C. D.

photoelectric effect and the free electrons that are created in a region of silicon illuminated by photons. generation of train of electrical pulses that represent light intensities present in an optical image. the amount of charge in each packet that stays substantially the same. an electron beam that is used to scan a photoconductive target.

Answer: A () 210. In immersion testing, the near field effects of a transducer may be eliminated by: A B. C. D.

Increasing transducer frequency Use of larger diameter transducer Using an appropriate water path Use of a focused transducer

Answer: A () 211. The wavelength of an ultrasonic wave is: A. directly proportional to velocity and frequency. B. directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to frequency. C. inversely proportional to velocity and directly proportional to frequency. D. none of the above.

Answer: A () 212. Radiation particles and photons lose their energy primarily through which of the following processes? A Radioactive decay B. Ionization C. Atomic absorption D. Thermionic emission

Answer: A () 213. Although there may be other reasons for using calcium tungstate screens in industrial radiography, they are most usually used to: A a C. D.

Improve definition and resolution in radiographic images. Improve contrast in radiographic images. Decrease exposure time Make films respond to multimillion-voltradiation.

Answer: A () Page 38 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 214. Which of the following parts could NOT be tested by the liquid penetrant method? A. An iron casting if An aluminum forging C. A part made from a porous material D. A part made from a non-porous material

Answer: A () 215. The kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube affects: A the quality of the beam. B. the intensity of the beam. C. both A and B above. D. neither A nor B above.

Answer: A () 216. Preventing the decrease of sensitivity close to a wall, which is parallel to the beam direction, the probe used should be: A B. C. D.

As small as possible Of as low frequency Both A and B above Large and with a frequency as high as possible

Answer: A () 217. Which of the following is not a basic component of eddy current equipment? A Amplifier B. Coil C. Liquid Couplant D. Detector

Answer: A () 218. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70E, Electrical safety for personnel, states that the "flash hazard" distance for high energy electrical equipment at 440/480V is what distance from the conductor? a. b. c. d.

1 foot 20 feet 4 meters 3 feet

Answer: A () 219. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the wavelength of the beam transmitted through a medium, and it: A. increases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased. fi decreases if the frequency or crystal diameter is decreased. C. increases if the frequency is increased and crystal diameter decreased. D. decreases if the frequency is increased and crystal diameter is decreased.

Answer: A () 220. A test specimen used as a basis for calibrating test equipment or as a comparison when evaluating test results is referred to as a: A Null-balancer. B. Phase shifter. Page 39 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ C. D.

Reference standard. High pass filter.

Answer: A () 221. What metal is the target made of when producing thermal neutrons in a van de graaf generator? a. Lithium b. Beryllium c. Cobalt d. Tungsten

Answer: A () 222. Volume change due to thermal expansion or contraction of a constant volume system during a pressure change measurement test? a. b. c. d.

Does not affect the leakage rate calculations Is automatically accounted for by the corrections Is not normally significant Has a very significant error on the leakage rate results

Answer: A () 223. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for interpretation is a measure of the: A subject contrast of a radiograph. 11 sensitivity of a radiograph. C. latitude of a radiograph. D. definition of a radiograph.

Answer: A () 224 For one person to use prods unaided which of the following would be the most suitable approach? a. Hold both prods in one hand with the detaching medium in the other b. Use the residual technique as the detecting medium can be applied after the magnetizing force c. Use a magnetic leech attachment to one prod with the other in one hand and the detecting medium in the other d. Prods should not be used by one person due to safety precautions

Answer: A () 225. The cause for poor image definition could be: A too short source-to-film distance 11 screens and film not in close contact. C. iflm graininess. D. all of the above.

Answer: A () 226. Filters placed between the x-ray tube and specimen tend to reduce scatter radiation undercutting the specimen: A by absorbing the longer wavelength components of the primary beam 11 by absorbing the shorter wavelength components of the primary beam C. by absorbing backscatter radiation. Page 40 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ D.

decreasing the intensity of the beam_

Answer: A () 227. Lines of flux are thought to leave a magnet at: A the North Pole. B. the South Pole. C. both north and south poles. D. none of the above.

Answer: A () 228. What is the decibel difference between 2 signals on the display with one at 85% full screen height and the other at 17% full screen height? a. 7db b. 14db c. 2db d. 15db

Answer: A () 229. Which of the following gases is not particularly useful as an infrared tracer gas? a. b. c. d.

Natural gas SF6 Nitrous oxide CO2

Answer: A () 230. In order to detect defects in different directions in a material by magnetic particle inspection, it is best to use: A two or more fields in different directions. a only one field. C. other probe locations. D. a high frequency field.

Answer: A () 231. In an eddy current testing situation, which of the following can provide sources of noise? A Instrumentation electronic circuits B. Nonspecific variations within the test object C. Electrical interference D. All of the above

Answer: A () 232. The reference holes required to produce a 3 mm FBH DAC are: A Flat-bottomed holes B. Concave-surface holes C. Convex-surface holes D. Conical-shaped holes

Answer: A () 233. It is possible for a discontinuity smaller than the transducer to produce indications of fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being performed in the: Page 41 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A. 11 C. D.

Fraunhofer zone Near field Snell field Shadow zone

Answer: A () 234. If an indication is formed when using the residual method as well method, it is most likely: A a C. D.

as the continuous

very deep and tight very shallow and open to the surface. a relevant indication. a nonrelevant indication.

Answer: A () 235. Lamb waves can be used to detect: A Laminar-type defects near the surface of a thin material a Lack of fusion in the center of a thick weldment C. Internal voids in diffusion bonds D. Thickness changes in heavy plate material

Answer: A () 236. When using an eddy current test system for sorting, it is generally recommended that: a. b. c. d.

all parts other than the part being tested be kept at least 12 inches from the test coil the test coil be kept away from large motors and transformers. the table on which the parts are placed be equipped with a nonmagnetic top. all of the above may be important.

Answer: A () 237. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given exposure conditions with a tube current of 5 milli-amperes and an exposure time of 12 minutes. If other conditions are not changed, what exposure time would be required if the x-ray tube current could be raised to 10 milli-amperes? A B. C. D.

24 minutes. 12 minutes. 6 minutes. 3 minutes.

Answer: A () 238. Embrittlement, caused by a physical or chemical change in the metal, is a reduction in: A ductility. B. hardness. C. hydrogen D. all of the above.

Answer: A () 239. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden change in: A inductance. a resistivity. C. capacitance. Page 42 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ D.

permeability.

Answer: A () 240. The lead symbol "B" is attached to the back of the film holder to determine: A B. C. D.

sensitivity. whether excessive backscatter is present. radiographic contrast. density

Answer: A () 241. An oscillator used in generating time varying current in an ECT instrument usually supplies currents at frequencies from a. 1 Hz to 20 kHz b. 50 Hz to 60 Hz c. 1 kHz to 2 MHz d. 0.5 MHz to 4 GHz

Answer: A () 242. Which of the following radiation types could make some materials A B. C. D.

radioactive?

X-rays. Neutron bombardment. Alpha particles. All the above.

Answer: A () 243. As the pulse length of the excitation voltage is shortened the transmitted pulse a. b. c. d.

frequency spectrum broadens frequency spectrum shortens increases energy output increases penetration ability

Answer: A () 244. When a body tissue cell is damaged by radiation: A The cell may lose its ability to reproduce. B. The cell may die. C. Damage is caused by knocking an electron out of the orbit of its parent atom_ D. All of the above.

Answer: A () 245. In radiation heat transfer which of the following material important? a. Density b. Emissivity c. Specific heat d. Diffusivity

properties is most

Answer: A () 246. Metal blocks, which contain one or more drilled holes to simulate discontinuities, are called: Page 43 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A B. C. D.

Scrubbers Crystal collimators Single plane angulators Reference blocks

Answer: A () 247. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the electromagnetic coupling between a test specimen and a probe coil when the distance of separation between them is varied is: A B. C. D.

if ll factor. edge effect. end effect. lift-off

Answer: A () 248. When testing by the eddy current method, discontinuities will be most easily detected when the eddy currents are: A. coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity. B. perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity. C. parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity. D. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the coil.

Answer: A () 249. Which of the following radioactive isotopes produce thermal a. Iridium 192 b. Californium 252 c. Cobalt 60 d. Caesium 137

neutrons?

Answer: A () 250. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the material is referred to as: A Reflection B. Refraction C. Reproducibility D. Attenuation

Answer: A () 251. The quantity (activity) of a radioactive source in which the number of nuclear disintegrations per second is a standard definition, which directly applies to: A B. C. D.

Sievert (Sv) Gray (Gy) Curie (Ci) Becquerel (Bq)

Answer: A () 252. If a penetrant test is to be conducted using a visible dye penetrant in pressurized spray cans, the temperature of the test area should not be lower than: a. 30(C Page 44 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

15(C 5(C -7(C

Answer: A () 253. When testing a part with a rough surface; as compared to a similar part with a smooth surface, one should generally use: a. b. c. d.

a higher frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant a lower frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant a higher frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant a lower frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant

Answer: A () 254. Which of the following particles or rays have the highest ionizing effect in air? A Alpha particles B. Beta particles C. Neutrons D. Gamma and X rays

Answer: A () 255. If a modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed: A B. C. D.

before the emulsifier tank. after the developer tank. before the developer tank. after the wash unit

Answer: A () 256. Continuous linear discontinuities along the length of a drawn bar classified as: A. stringers B. seams C. laps D. slivers

Answer: A () 257. 5.669 x 10-8 W/m2 is the value for: a. b. c. d.

Stefan-Boltzmannconstant Wien's constant Coefficient of cooling k value for aluminum oxide

Answer: A () 258. EMAT applied sound waves are generated within the a. coil b. Material c. liftoff d. Piezo-electric crystal

Answer: A () Page 45 of 113

would probably be

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 259. The fillet weld size is based on the: A effective fillet weld throat. B. length of fillet weld. C. theoretical throat. D. length of fillet weld leg.

Answer: A () 260. In Ultrasonics, knowledge of the velocity of sound in a given material is necessary in determining: a. the specific acoustic impedance of the material. b. the angle of refraction in the material. c. the depth of an indication in the material. d. all of the above

Answer: A () 261. The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating a discontinuity is: A Shear wave B. Longitudinal wave C. Surface wave D. Compression wave

Answer: A () 262. In a betatron, acceleration of electrons into circular path is achieved by a. a rotating magnetic field b. traveling wave guides c. the Villard doubling circuit d. venturi tubes

Answer: A () 263. Because it is frequently supplied as a water-soluble compound, which of the following is considered to have an additional radiological hazard potential associated with it? A. Cobalt-60 11 Thulium-170 C. Indium-192 D. Cesium-137

Answer: A () 264.

Factors, which must be considered when interpreting an indication, are:

A. 11 C. D.

the direction of the magnetic field. the strength of the leakage field at the indication. the orientation and shape of the indication. all of the above.

Answer: A () 265. A. 11

Unexposed boxes of x-ray film should be stored: flat. on edge or end.

Page 46 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ C. D.

m a pile. it doesn't matter.

Answer: A () 266. Localized reduction in an area of a bolt that is under overload conditions is referred to as: A. sizing. 11 necking down. C. erosion. D. elongation.

Answer: A () 267.

Asymmetricalplate waves are

a. b. c. d.

faster then shear waves, but slower than compressional waves slower than shear waves as fast as Rayleigh waves. none of the above because Asymmetrical plate waves does not exist in immersion testing.

Answer: A () 268. The equation describing wavelength in terms of velocity and frequency is: A. B. C. D.

Wavelength = Velocity x Frequency Wavelength = Z (Frequency x Velocity) Wavelength = Velocity / Frequency Wavelength = Frequency + Velocity

Answer: A () 269. The principal biological effect of infrared radiation is: A. thermal fatigue. 11 hypothermia. C. blue hazard. D. ultraviolet hazard.

Answer: A () 270. The deterioration of a metal by chemical or electrochemical reaction with its environment is called: A. 11 C. D.

corrosion. erosion. IGSCC. none of the above.

Answer: A () 271. The eddy current probe is most simply a a. coil of copper wire b. semiconductor c. capacitor d. ceramic resistor

Answer: A () Page 47 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 272. For the highest possible sensitivity when using the continuous method which of the following application techniques should be used? a. Apply current whilst applying wet magnetic ink by spray b. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink followed by removal whilst current still flows c. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink Stop flow of current whilst removing d. All the above give the same sensitivity

Answer: A () 273. The angle of vision and the distance of the eye from the test surface determine the minimum angular separation of two points resolvable by the eye. This is known as the eye's: A fi C. fi

sensitivity. resolving power. vision power. discrimination.

Answer: A () 274. The part is an Aluminium forging. Description—the indication is shag), half-moon shape, NOT deep, and is called a: A 11 C. fi

lap. center line porosity. heat-treat crack false indication.

Answer: A () 275. In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed: A. Between the intensifying screen and the film_ B. On the source side of the test object. C. On the fihn side of the test object. fi Between the operator and the radiation source.

Answer: A () 276. An x-ray film having wide latitude also has, by definition: a. b. c. d.

poor definition low contrast high speed none of the above

Answer: A () 277. In order to decrease the effect on conductivity readings due to variations in test part thickness: A the test frequency should be increased. 11 the test frequency should be decreased. C. the fill factor should be decreased. fi there is no practical method for decreasing this effect.

Answer: A ()

Page 48 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 278. The part is a V2" thick Aluminium plate with a Vee weld. Description the indication appears in an area that is somewhat dish-shaped. The indication extends out from the center in a spoke formation. The indication is: A fi C. fi

shrinkage. non-relevant. a quench crack a crater crack

Answer: A () 279. A. B. C. D.

Express 2220 GBqs in TBqs: 0222 2220 2/22 222.0

Answer: A () 280. Resonance testing equipment generally utilizes: A Pulsed longitudinal waves B. Continuous longitudinal waves C. Pulsed shear waves fi Continuous shear waves

Answer: A () 281. A. fi C. fi

Which of the following is a commonly used classification for penetration Post-emulsifiable penetrant Nonferrous penetrant Chemical etch penetrant No aqueous penetrant

Answer: A () 282.

The permeability of a material describes:

A fi C. fi

The ease with which it can be magnetized The depth of the magnetic field in the part. The length of time required demagnetizing it The ability to retain the magnetic field.

Answer: A () 283. When a body tissue cell is damaged by radiation: A. B. C. D.

The cell may lose its ability to reproduce. The cell may die. Damage is caused by knocking an electron out of the orbit of its parent atom_ All of the above.

Answer: A () 284. A linear indication is observed at a change in section between thin and thick material. What is the most probable cause for this bleedout? a. Cold shut b. Shrink cracks c. Porosity Page 49 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d. e.

Hot Tear Both shrink cracks and hot tear

Answer: A () 285. Which of the following gases is not particularly useful as an gas? a. b. c. d.

infrared tracer

Natural gas SF6 Nitrous oxide CO2

Answer: A () 286. A generally accepted method for removing excess non water-washable penetrant is: A. Repeatedly dipping the test specimen in a cleaner. B. Soaking the test specimen in hot detergent water. C. Blowing the excess penetrant off the surface of the part with compressed air. D. Wiping and cautiously cleaning the test specimen with a cleaner-dampened cloth.

Answer: A () 287. Material properties such as specific heat, density, thermal conductivity, thermal diffisivity and temperature will affect? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Conduction and convection

Answer: A () 288. Ferromagnetic material is: A Strongly attracted by a magnet. B. Capable of being magnetized. C. Both A and B. D. Not capable of being magnetized.

Answer: A () 289. When testing a part with a rough surface, as compared to a similar part with a smooth surface, one should generally use: a. b. c. d.

a higher frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant a lower frequency transducer and a more viscous couplant a higher frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant a lower frequency transducer and a less viscous couplant

Answer: A () 290. A large forging is repaired by welding. Magnetic particle inspection of the repair weld reveals an irregular indication running parallel with the weld passes. It is located near the center of the bead and starts and ends by turning off slightly from the axial direction. This indication is indicative of A inclusions. B. crater cracks. C. weld shrinkage cracks. D. surface checking. Page 50 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 291. The temperature at which a blackbody must be operated, so that it's output is the closest approximation to a perfect color match with the output of the selective radiator is called: A B. C. D.

blackbody temperature. correlated temperature. selective temperature. color temperature.

Answer: A () 292. The angle of vision and the distance of the eye from the test surface determine the minimum angular separation of two points resolvable by the eye. This is known as the eye's: A sensitivity. fi resolving power. C. vision power. D. discrimination.

Answer: A () 293. Which of the following parts could NOT be tested by the liquid penetrant method? A fi C. D.

An iron casting An aluminum forging A part made from a porous material A part made from a non-porous material

Answer: A () 294. The principle of solid-state image devices is based on: A. photoelectric effect and the free electrons that are created in a region of silicon illuminated by photons. B. generation of train of electrical pulses that represent light intensities present in an optical image. C. the amount of charge in each packet that stays substantially the same. D. an electron beam that is used to scan a photoconductive target

Answer: A () 295. Should an isotope camera be found to be leaking radioactive material subsequent to a wipe test a. b. c. d.

the depleted uranium is to be replaced all exposures since the last wipe test are to be recalled the source is to be destroyed none of the above

Answer: A () 296. Metal blocks, which contain one or more drilled holes to simulate discontinuities, are called: A Scrubbers B. Crystal collimators C. Single plane angulators D. Reference blocks

Answer: A () Page 51 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 297. Which of the following radiation types could make some materials radioactive? A X-rays. B. Neutron bombardment. C. Alpha particles. D. All the above.

Answer: A () 298. The quantity of a radioactive source in which the number of nuclear disintegrations per second (activity) is one" is a standard definition, which applied to: A B. C. D.

Sievert (Sv) Gray (Gy) Curse (Ci) Becquerel (Bq)

Answer: A () 299. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a change in the electromagnetic coupling between a test specimen and a probe coil when the distance of separation between them is varied is: A fi C. D.

ifll factor. edge effect. end effect. ilft-off

Answer: A () 300. When working with flat-bottomed holes for calibration or evaluation purposes, what is the relationship between a #6 FBH and a #3 FBH ? a. b. C. d.

5% 25% 50% 100%

Answer: A () 301. Which of the following radioactive isotopes produce thermal a. b. c. d.

neutrons?

Iridium 192 Californium 252 Cobalt 60 Caesium 137

Answer: A () 302. In order to detect defects in different directions in a material by magnetic particle inspection, it is best to use: A a C. D.

two or more fields in different directions. only one field. other probe locations. a high frequency field.

Answer: A () 303. The part is an Aluminium forging. Description—the indication is sharp, half-moon shape, NOT deep, and is called a: Page 52 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A B. C. D.

lap. centre line porosity. heat-treat crack false indication.

Answer: A () 304. Express 2220 GBqs in TBqs: A. 0222 B. 2220 C. 2/22 D. 222.0

Answer: A () 305. The best method for testing ball bearings is: A. along one axis using a coil. B. two shots using a coil at the X and Y-axis. C. two head shots along the X and Y-axis. D. induced current shots along X Y, and Z-axis, rotating 360 degrees during each shot

Answer: A () 306. In which situation is infrared the least appropriate means of measuring a surface temperature? a. Monitoring the change in temperature of a fender of a vehicle during a burn test b. Profiling cross tread temperatures while a vehicle is in motion c. Observing the temperature distribution of midstream airflow after it has passed d. through the radiator of an operating vehicle e. Trending the temperature change of a gas line as it passes over the axle during

Answer: A () 307. When using a camera for visual inspection within an extremely high radiation area which of the following types would be chosen? a. b. c. d.

Vidicon tube Charged coupled device Metal oxide semi conductor Orthicon tube

Answer: A () 308. Subjecting a ferromagnetic material to a magnetising force which reserves in a polarity whilst at the same time remains the same strength, has what effect? a. b. c. d.

Demagnetisation Magnetisation None of the above Either demagnetisation or magnetization

Answer: A () 309. Which of the following statements is false? a. X rays are attenuated more by elements of high atomic number b. X rays are attenuated more by materials of high density c. Neutron attenuation are generally attenuated less with increasing atomic number Page 53 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

Hydrogen, lithium and boron are not attenuated by thermal neutrons

Answer: A () 310. If a modular equipment has been obtained for a penetrant inspection system using fluorescent post-emulsifiable penetrant and wet developer, the dryer should be placed: A before the emulsifier tank B. after the developer tank C. before the developer tank. D. after the wash unit p>

Answer: A () 311. The TOFD principle is based on evaluation of the a. Diffraction Signals at Crack Edges b. Amplitude of the echo height c. Sound attenuation d. Frequency

Answer: A () 312. What is the decibel difference between 2 signals on the display with one at 85% full screen height and the other at 17% full screen height? a. 7db b. 14db c. 2db d. 15db

Answer: A () 313. Which of the following techniques has been found to be effective for aiding penetration in certain instances in commercial application? A Heating the penetrant. B. Vibration C. Vacuum and pressure. D. Ultrasonic pumping.

Answer: A () 314. Which of the following faults is more likely to be found in a forged product? a. Lap b. Porosity c. Cold shut d. Shrinkage e. Both lap and porosity

Answer: A () 315. The time it takes to reestablish the electric field intensity required in a G-M counter after the counter has been paralyzed by ion avalanche is called a. resolving time b. dead time c. quench time d. dwell time

Answer: A () Page 54 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 316. Generation of ultrasound waves with EMATs is possible in a. Electric conductive materials b. All types of materials c. Ferromagnetic materials d. for a and c

Answer: A () 317. When a sound beam travels from a liquid into a metal through a contoured surface, the sound beam inside the metal will: A Have larger beam diameter B. Have same beam diameter C. Not be effected by the part geometry D. Be convergent if the surface is concave, and divergent if the surface is convex

Answer: A () 318. The light from common sources, particularly light from incandescent lamps, is often compared with light from a theoretical source. This theoretical source is called a: A. gray body B. photometer C. blackbody. D. ilght comparator.

Answer: A () 319. The eddy current probe is most simply a a. coil of copper wire b. semiconductor c. capacitor d. ceramic resistor

Answer: A () 320. The lead symbol "B" is attached to the back of the film holder to determine: A sensitivity. B. whether excessive backscatter is present. C. radiographic contrast. D. density.

Answer: A () 321. Asymmetrical plate waves are a. faster then shear waves, but slower than compressional waves b. slower than shear waves c. as fast as Rayleigh waves. d. none of the above because Asymmetrical plate waves does not exist in immersion testing.

Answer: A () 322. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70B, Recommended Practice for Electrical Equipment Maintenance, recommends infrared electrical inspections be conducted when the load is at least % of design maximum_ a. 10% b. 20% Page 55 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

40% 95%

Answer: A () 323. Although there may be other reasons for using calcium tungstate screens in industrial radiography, they are most usually used to A Improve definition and resolution in radiographic images. B. Improve contrast in radiographic images. C. Decrease exposure time D. Make films respond to multimillion-volt radiation.

Answer: A () 324. In an eddy current testing situation, which of the following can provide sources of noise? A Instrumentation electronic circuits. B. Non-specific variations within the test object. C. Electrical interference. D. All of the above. 325. For a given thickness the most effective protection from X or gamma radiation is: A B. C. D.

bricks concrete barium plaster lead

Answer: A () 326. Factors, which must be considered when interpreting an indication, are: A the direction of the magnetic field. B. the strength of the leakage field at the indication. C. the orientation and shape of the indication. D. all of the above.

Answer: A () 327. When testing by the eddy current method, discontinuities will be most easily detected when the eddy currents are: A coplanar with the major plane of the discontinuity. B. perpendicular to the major plane of the discontinuity. C. parallel to the major plane of the discontinuity. D. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the coil.

Answer: A () 328. Lamb waves can be used to detect: A Laminar-type defects near the surface of a thin material a Lack of fusion in the center of a thick weldment C. Internal voids in diffusion bonds D. Thickness changes in heavy plate material

Answer: A () 329. The half-life is a useful characteristic of a radioisotope. After six half-lives, the amount of decaying atoms is reduced to approximately what percent of the amount at the beginning? Page 56 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A B. C. D.

2 per cent 3 per cent 6 per cent 1 per cent

Answer: A () 330. Which of the following is classed as ionizing radiation? A X-rays. B. Gamma-rays. C. Alpha particles. D. All the above.

Answer: A () 331.

5.669 x 10 8 W/m2 is the vakic fix:

iii Vrtecon-Relt.anaaneefistat4 b. Wiens coir,tant c. Coefficient of cooling 41--k-Aialue-for-gui4inuna-Gxiclg

Answer: A () 332. The cause for poor image definition eould bc: A. R C. D.

too short course to film distance. screens and film not in elosc contact. iflm grainincr.c all of thc above.

Answer: A () 333. The part is an Aluminium casting with a very complex design_ In one section a flat area having a thickness of 1/8" exists. In the centre of this area is a round section, 2" thick and 1" in diameter. Linear indications about half the distance around the base where the thin section is joined are referred as: A B. C. D.

dross. hot tear. micro shrinkage. porosity.

Answer: A () 334. In film radiography, penetrameters are usually placed: A B. C. D.

Between the intensifying screen and the fihn On the source side of the test object. On the filin side of the test object. Between the operator and the radiation source.

Answer: A () 335. The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the material is referred to as: A Reflection B. Refraction C. Reproducibility D. Attenuation Page 57 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 336. Localized reduction in an area of a bolt that is under overload conditions A B. C. D.

sizing. necking down. erosion elongation.

Answer: A () 337. Which of the following particles or rays have the highest ionizing effect in air? A B. C. D.

Alpha particles Beta particles Neutrons Gamma and X rays

Answer: A () 338. Thulium-170 emits which of the following gamma-ray energies? A a C. D.

1.33 and 1.17 MeV 0.084 and 0.052 MeV 0.310 and 0.470 MeV 0.110 and 0.150 MeV

Answer: A () 339. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden change in: A B. C. D.

inductance. resistivity. capacitance. permeability.

Answer: A () 340. Electrostatic or Van de Graff generators have their advantage in that they a. operate in the 1 to 2 MeV region b. have relatively small focal spots c. have reasonably high output d. all of the above

Answer: A () 341. The following is a definition, A flaw which exceeds the minimum acceptability level. Which of the following is correct? a. Discontinuity b. Indication c. Defect d. Crack

Answer: A () 342. The principal biological effect of infrared radiation is: A thermal fatigue. B. hypothermia. C. blue hazard. Page 58 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ D.

ultraviolet hazard.

Answer: A () 343. Converting old units to SI units, 140 rads = 1 gray (Gy). How many mGys are there in 1 rad? A 0.10 B. 1.00 C. 10.00 D. 100.00

Answer: A () 344. When referring to ASME XI to what type of inspection does VT-2 a. Mechanical and structural conditions k Leakage from pressure retaining components c. Presence of surface corrosion d. All of the above

relate?

Answer: A () 345. In immersion testing, the near field effects of a transducer may be eliminated by: A B. C. D.

Increasing transducer frequency Use of larger diameter transducer Using an appropriate water path Use of a focused transducer

Answer: A () 346. Radiation particles and photons lose their energy primarily through which of the following processes? A Radioactive decay B. Ionization C. Atomic absorption D. Thermionic emission

Answer: A () 347. The range of thickness over which densities are obtained that are satisfactory for interpretation is a measure of the: A subject contrast of a radiograph. B. sensitivity of a radiograph. C. latitude of a radiograph_ D. definition of a radiograph.

Answer: A () 348. The ratio of the response or amplitude from signals of interest to the response or amplitude of indications that contain no useful information for the test being conducted is referred to as: A R C. D.

Poisson's ratio. Signal-to-noise ratio. The conductivity-to-permeability ratio. The reactance-to-resistance ratio.

Answer: A () Page 59 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 349. The simultaneous comparison of a standard lamp and an unknown light source is called: A B. C. D.

absolute photometry. relative photometry. direct photometry. substitution photometry.

Answer: A () 350. A test specimen used as a basis for calibrating test equipment or as a comparison when evaluating test results is referred to as a: A. B. C. D.

Null-baianrer. Phase shifter. Reference standard. High pass filter.

Answer: A () 351. Eddy current testing requires that the material tested be a. b. c. d.

magnetic non-magnetic conductive both b and c

Answer: A () 352. The measurement of radiant energy in the visible spectrum, based on a standard observer response, is called: A photometry. B. spectrometry. C. geniometry. D. spectrodiomeny.

Answer: A () 353. When checking for imperfections on rolled slabs which of the following viewing techniques will give the sharpest image? a. b. c. d.

Television image from a vidicon Television image from a charged coupled device Photographic image Television image from a vidicon and television image from a charged coupled device

Answer: A () 354 Embrittlement, caused by a physical or chemical change in the metal, is a reduction in: A. B. C. D.

ductilityhardness. hydrogen all of the above.

Answer: A () 355 The kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube affects: A the quality of the beam. Page 60 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ fi C. D.

the intensity of the beam. both A and B above. neither A nor B above.

Answer: A () 356. Which of the following is a characteristic of acoustic emission compared with other inspection techniques? a. Detects geometric form of defects b. Requires stress c. Less material sensitive d. More geometry sensitive

Answer: A () 357. The ratio of the response or amplitude from signals of interest to the response or amplitude of indications that contain no useful information for the test being conducted is referred to as: A B. C. D.

Poisson's ratio. Signal-to-noise ratio. The conductivity-to-penneabilityratio. The reactance-to-resistanceratio.

Answer: A () 358. Which of the following is not a basic component of eddy current equipment? A Amplifier B. Coil C. Liquid Couplant D. Detector

Answer: A () 359. Because it is frequently supplied as a water-soluble compound, which of the following is considered to have an additional radiological hazard potential associated with it? A B. C. D.

Cobalt-60 Thulium-170 Iridium-192 Cesium-137

Answer: A () 360. Why do prod tips need to be kept clean and free from contaminants? a. The contamination reduces the resistance so increasing current flow b. Clean prod tips have less chance of arcing c. Clean prods conduct current through scale much better d. The increase in resistance with dirty prods reduces the current output e. Both clean prod tips have less chance of arcing and the increase in resistance

Answer: A () 361. The wavelength of an ultrasonic wave is: A. B.

directly proportional to velocity and frequency. directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to frequency.

Page 61 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ C. D.

inversely proportional to velocity and directly proportional to frequency. none of the above.

Answer: A () 362. Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and the extent a liquid penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and other small openings? A The hardness of the specimen being tested 11 The surface condition of the specimen being tested C. The color of the penetrant D. The conductivity of the specimen being tested

Answer: A () 363. What metal is the target made of when producing thermal neutrons in a van de graaf generator? a. Lithium b. Beryllium c. Cobalt & Tungsten

Answer: A () 364. A test specimen used as a basis for calibrating test equipment or as a comparison when evaluating test results is referred to as a: A B. C. D.

Null-balancer. Phase shifter. Reference standard. High pass filter.

Answer: A () 365. Resonance testing equipment generally utilizes: A Pulsed longitudinal waves B. Continuous longitudinal waves C. Pulsed shear waves D. Continuous shear waves

Answer: A () 366. Which of the following would be classed as an in service fault? a. Shrinkage crack b. Fatigue crack c. Grinding crack & All could be service faults

Answer: A () 367. EMAT applied sound waves are generated within the a. coil b. Material c. liftoff & Piezo-electric crystal

Answer: A () 368. The retentivity of a material describes: Page 62 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A B. C. D.

The ease with which it can be magnetized. The depth of the magnetic field in the pat The length of time required demagnetizing it The ability to retain the magnetic field.

Answer: A () 369. An excellent radiograph is obtained under given conditions of exposure with the film located at a distance of 36 inches from the target of the x-ray tube. If the film is now placed only 18 inches from the target, and all exposure conditions except time are held constant, the new exposure time will be: A. Unchanged. B. Longer by approximately 80 percent. C. Shorter by approximately 55 percent. D. Only about 25 percent as long as the original exposure time

Answer: A () 370. In order to decrease the effect on conductivity readings due to variations in test part thickness: A the test frequency should be increased. fi the test frequency should be decreased. C. the fill factor should be decreased. fi there is no practical method for decreasing this effect

Answer: A () 371. The fillet weld size is based on the: A effective fillet weld throat 11 length of fillet weld. C. theoretical throat. fi length of fillet weld leg.

Answer: A () 372. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70E, Electrical safety for personnel, states that the "flash hazard" distance for high energy electrical equipment at 440/480V is what distance from the conductor? a. b. c. d.

1 foot 20 feet 4 meters 3 feet

Answer: A () 373. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that: A radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the time spent near the focal spot fi radiation intensity varies proportionally with distance from the focal spot C. radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the distance from the radiation source fi none of the above

Answer: A () 374 Filters placed between the x-ray tube and specimen tend to reduce undercutting the specimen: Page 63 of 113

scatter radiation

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ A. fi C. fi

by absorbing the longer wavelength components of the primary beam_ by absorbing the shorter wavelength components of the primary beam_ by absorbing backscatter radiation. decreasing the intensity of the beam_

Answer: A () 375. A tool that uses the wavelength of light as a unit to measure the surface contour is called: A surface comparator. fi metallurgical microscope. C. interference microscope. fi

polarized microscope.

Answer: A () 376. Wien's Law predicts what? a. The maxiimuntemperature at a given wavelength b. The peak wavelength emitted by a blackbody at a given temperature c. The range of wavelengths emitted by a surface at a given temperature d. The quantity of heat energy radiated by an object at a given temperature

Answer: A () 377. During manual film processing, the purpose of the stop bath is to: A change the exposed silver salts to black metallic silver. 11 neutralizes the developer and stop the developing process. C. eliminate most water spots and streaks. fi none of the above.

Answer: A () 378. For the highest possible sensitivity when using the continuous method which of the following application techniques should be used? a. Apply current whilst applying wet magnetic ink by spray b. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink followed by removal whilst c. current still flows d. Apply current whilst part is immersed in wet ink Stop flow of current whilst e. removing

Answer: A () 379. Which of the following is a commonly used classification for A. 11 C. D.

penetration?

Post-emulsifiablepenetrant Nonferrous penetrant Chemical etch penetrant Nonaqueous penetrant

Answer: A () 380. If an indication is formed when using the residual method as well method, it is most likely: A 11 C.

very deep and tight very shallow and open to the surface. a relevant indication.

Page 64 of 113

as the continuous

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ D.

a nonrelevant indication.

Answer: A () 381. Why are magnetic particles available in different colors? A For color contrast with the part surface. 11 To enhance the detection of indications. C. For both A and B. D. Different colors are used with different magnetic flux values.

Answer: A () 382. What water path is needed when using a straight beam transducer with a 4-inch (101 mm) focus to place focal spot at a bond line 17 mm deep in copper? (Velocity in copper=0.18cm/s and Velocity in water=0.584) a. 4.12in b. 2.06in c. 2.06 mm d. 20.6m

Answer: A () 383. These are the most common probes used for Air Force NDI applications. a. Reflective b. Differential c. Absolute d. Surface

Answer: A () 384. The purpose of the is to increase the radiation striking the film or to decrease the scatter radiation reaching the fihn. A 11 C. D.

Filter Diaphram Screen Penetrameter

Answer: A () 385. When performing the concentration check for fluorescent particles, the reading for particles settled at the bottom of the centrifuge tube should be? a. b. c. d.

40-45% 100 mike 12-2.4 m1/100 ml 0.1-0.4 m1/100 ml

Answer: A () 386. Resonance testing methods are used for: a. b. c. d.

determining Poisson's ratio lfaw detection thickness testing all of the above

Answer: A () Page 65 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 387. Thermo luminescent Dosimeters (TLDs) are worn where? a. b. c. d.

Between the neck and waist Inside your pocket Outside of the lead apron Any of the above

Answer: A () 388. When dealing with the automatic film processor, most film or equipment problems can be traced back to A Poor lubrication of racks and rollers 11 Burned out or under rated flues C. An inappropriate maintenace schedule D. Dirt in the equipment

Answer: A () 389. Instrument frequencies in the range of detection. a. 50 to 5,000 Hz b. 500 to 50,000 Hz c. 5MHz to 500 MHz d. 50MHz to 5,000MHz

to

are generally suitable for crack

Answer: A () 390. When hand processing film, the recommended development time is minutes at A 10 mumutes at 68 fi 5 minutes at 65 C. 5 minutes at 68 fi 8 minutes at 65

o F.

Answer: A () 391. There are many general requirements that must be met in order to x-ray in an unshielded facility. For instance, there must be at least one fully certified radiographer present and enough monitors and assistants on hand to prevent unauthorized access to the radiation area In addition to personnel requirements, certain equipment must be available for use at the site Which statement below is NOT an equipment requirement? a. Two survey meters authorized by AS 455 and calibrated within the past 180 days b. Inverse Square Law calculation chart and calculator c. X-ray interlock assembly d. Radiation warning beacon

Answer: A () 392. At what energy level does pair production occur? a. 1.02 MeV b. 1.02 Kv c. 120 MeV d. 120 Kv

Answer: A () 391 Nucleons may also be referred to as Page 66 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

subatomic building blocks atomic mass units protons and neutrons neutrons and electrons

Answer: A () 394 One line of magnetic force is called a a. b. c. d.

Maxwell Gauss Line Flux Line Magnetograph

Answer: A () 395. The ease with which a metal or metallic part can be magnetized is called a. Retentivity b. Permeability c. Hysteresis d. Coercive Force

Answer: A () 396. Fluorescent penetrant indications should be inspected under: a. lfuorescent light b. any light c. black light d. neon light

Answer: A () 397. Bending of a sound wave upon entering a new medium is explained by: a. Krautkramer's law b. Snells's law c. Boyle's law d. Hooke's law

Answer: A () 398. The symbol for magnetic field intensity is H and the unit of measure is the a. Gauss b. Oersted c. Dyne d. Maxwell

Answer: A () 399. Film should never be stored in an area that exceeds A 50% B. 65% C. 75% D. 77%

Answer: A () 400. The effective magnetic field induced by a coil Page 67 of 113

% humidity.

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

is dependent upon the strength of the magnetizing force employed increases as resistance decreases extends from 6 to 9 inches on either side of the coil all of the above

Answer: A () 401. Shear (transverse) waves have a velocity of about (compressional) wave in the same material. a. b. c. d.

that of longitudinal

115 V2 9/10 1/3

Answer: A () 402. Which is NOT an advantage of alternating current (AC) equipment? a. b. c. d.

Easily finds subsurface defects Peak amperages are obtained AC equipment is usually lower in cost Better adapted for portable applications

Answer: A () 401 Under no circumstance should you take conductivity measurements if a. the temperature between the test part and the standards differ by 10° Fahrenheit or more b. part temperature is less than 68°degrees Fahrenheit c. part temperature has not stabilized for at least ten minutes. d. All of the above

Answer: A () 404 The method whereby sound is transmitted through a plate from a transmitter on one side to a receiver on the other: a. is used to characterize flaws b. is called an intensity method c. is used to determine flaw depth d. all of the above

Answer: A () 405. a. b. c. d.

is the rate at which electrons pass a given point in a conductor. resistance current voltage amperage

Answer: A () 406. The length of the near zone is not dependent upon which of the following? a. b. c. d.

The diameter of the transducer The frequency of the transducer The velocity of sound in the test material The relative acoustic impedance of the coupling medium

Page 68 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 407. As voltage increases current a. increases b. decreases c. resistance decreases d. amperage increases

Answer: A () 408. This silver recovery method is the most inexpensive and when used as directed, recovers 99% of the available silver. a. b. c. d.

Metallic replacement Chemical precipitaion Electrolysis Metallic Extraction

Answer: A () 409. When the Sonic BondMaster has been out of service for an extended period, you should a. b. c. d.

Accomplish all process control checks Allow a 30 minute warm-up prior to use Send the unit to PMEL for calibration Perform a visual and electrical inspection prior to use

Answer: A () 410. Two basic types of plate (Lamb) waves exist. These are the: a. synnnetricaland dilational. b. syrametticaland asymmetrical. c. asymmetricaland rotational. d. perpendicular and normal.

Answer: A () 411. The intensity of the fluorescent hght emitted depends upon? A The type of compound used to make the fluorescent screen. fi The intensity of the incident radiation C. The background intensity of the lead screens in place D. All of the above

Answer: A () 412. As frequency increases in ultrasonic testing the angle of beam divergence of a given diameter crystal: a. b. c. d.

decreases remains constant increases varies uniformly through each wavelength

Answer: A () 413. How are X-rays produced in a tubehead? a. High speed electrons are stopped by the target material in the anode b. High speed electrons are stopped by the target material in the cathode Page 69 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Random disintegration of a radioisotope None of the above

Answer: A () 414. If a penetrant test is to be conducted using a visible dye penetrant in pressurized spray cans, the temperature of the test area should not be lower than: a. 30EC b. 15EC c. SEC d. -7EC

Answer: A () 415. The key to an effective through-transmission inspection is? a. Proper frequency selection b. Proper couplant application c. Transducer alignment d. Wave mode selection

Answer: A () 416. An advantage of is that they can be heated and reformed into different shapes. a. b. c. d.

Thermoplastics Thermosets Polymers Ceramics

Answer: A () 417. Unless you are using low-level radiation, what should you do with the survey meter? a. Adjust the selector switch to the 3mrlhr position b. Adjust the selector switch to the 300mr/hr position c. Remove the end cap from the unit d. Leave the end cap on the unit

Answer: A () 418. The half skip distance on a 16mm thick plate with a 70E probe is: a. 24nnn b. 33nnn c. 44mm d. 64mm

Answer: A () 419. Waste oil may be stored in the lab, but must not exceed a. 2 Gallons b. 5 Gallons c. 10 Gallons d. 50 Gallons

Answer: A () 420. is defined as how well the transducer can single out two or more defects and display them as separate signals on the CRT. Page 70 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

Verticle Linearity Horizontal Linearity Sensitivity Resolution

Answer: A () 421. Which of the following is NOT helpful with the interpretation of film when searching for Foreign Object Debris (FOD) in an aircraft. A An experiencedNDl person B. Consultations with other aircraft maintainers C. A technique chart D. The previous x-rays of the same area on the same plane.

Answer: A () 422. Cobalt-60 is reported to have a half life of 5.3 years. By how much should exposure time be increased (over that used initially to produce excellent radiographs when the cobalt-60 source was new) when the source is two years old? a. no change in exposure time is needed. b. exposure time should be about 11% longer. c. exposure time should be about 37% longer. d. exposure time should be from 62 to 100% longer.

Answer: A () 423 Magnetic particles used in the Air Force are commercial products, carefully selected for optimum performance based on being the proper size, having ideal retentivity, and a. high sensitivity b. high contrast c. cost efficiency d. good magnetic permeability

Answer: A () 424 If fluorescent penetrant is applied after an acid precleaning treatment: a. the penetrant should dwell for twice the time specified b. marking of the test piece may be evident c. a decrease in brilliance of the penetrant may occur d. an increase in brilliance of the penetrant may occur

Answer: A () 425. The a. b. c. d.

is the simplest structure that uses an adhesive application.

Lap joint Honeycomb sandwich Doubler Lamina

Answer: A () 426. Measured in ohms, a. Impedance b. Resistance c. Inductive Reactance Page 71 of 113

is an opposition to either AC or DC current.

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

Reluctance

Answer: A () 427. A five turn rigid coil is used to test a 180 mm long by 30 mm diameter bar. If the `I(' value is 22000, the minimum current is: a. b. c. d.

73.3 amps RMS 51.8 amps RMS 733 amps RMS 518 amps RMS

Answer: A () 428. The amount of magnetizing force necessary to reduce flux density to zero in a saturated ferromagnetic material is called a. Hysteresis b. Coercive Force c. Permeability d. Retentivity

Answer: A () 429. is a term used to describe a distortion on a radiograph not being in direct line with the x-ray beam_ A B. C. D.

Layover Penumbral shadow Casting Triangulation

Answer: A () 430. Which is NOT an advantage of the Wet Magnetic Particle Method? a. Capable of detecting defects entirely below the surface of a Part b. Most sensitive for finding very fine surface cracks c. Magnetic particles have better mobility in a liquid suspension d. Solution is easily recovered and reused

Answer: A () 431. (Sin al) (C2) = (Sin a2) Cl) is a form of: a. Krautkramer's law b. Snell's law c. Boyle's law d. Hooke's law

Answer: A () 432. The magnetic field is strongest when: a. the magnetising voltage is flowing b. the magnetising current is flowing c. the material exhibits high coercive forces d. the magnetising current is not flowing

Answer: A () 433. A Lissajous orbit that has a long elliptical (cigar shape) appearance is an indication of Page 72 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

unbalance. misalignment an oil whirl. a rub event.

Answer: A () 434. The sharpness of the outline in the image of the radiograph is a measure of: a. b. c. d.

subject contrast. radiographic definition. radiographic contrast iflm contrast.

Answer: A () 435. When conducting a penetrant test, spherical indications on the surface of a part could be indicative of a. b. c. d.

fatigue cracks porosity weld laps hot tears

Answer: A () 436. The presence of small traces of halogen vapors in the halogen diode detector: a. increases the emission of negative ions. b. decreases the emission of positive ions. c. increases the emission of positive ions. d. decreases the emission of negative ions.

Answer: A () 437. When radiographing to the 2-2T quality level, an ASTM penetrameter for 2.5in. steel has a thickness of a. 0.5 in_ b. 2.5 mils. c. 5 mils. d. 50 mils.

Answer: A () 438. A torr is defined as: a. 14.7 psia. b. 1 mm of Hg. c. 11760 of a standard atmosphere. d. 760 mmof Hg.

Answer: A () 439. The dimension indicated on the sketch of a micrometer is: a. 0.128 in b. 0235 in c. 0.126 in d. 0328 in

Answer: A () Page 73 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 440. Most leaks detected during a halogen sniffer test could have been detected and usually can be verified by: a. b. c. d.

a bubble leak test an ultrasonic examination. a visual examination. a pressure change test.

Answer: A () 441. When testing a bar with an UD ratio of four in a ten-turn coil, the required current would be: a. is c. d.

45,000 A unknown; more information is needed. 18,000 A 1,125 A.

Answer: A () 442. The number of times the acoustic emission signal exceeds a preset threshold during any selected portion of a test is called the: a. is c. d. e.

acoustic emission response. acoustic emission count acoustic emission count rate. acoustic emission energy. none of the above.

Answer: A () 443. As a visual examiner, you shall have your eyes checked at least: a. every 3 months. is every 6 months c. every year. d. every 3 years.

Answer: A () 444. The impedance of an eddy current test coil will increase if the: a. test frequency increases. is inductive reactance of the coil decreases. c. inductance of the coil decreases. d. resistance of the coil decreases.

Answer: A () 445. Which of these cracks may appear as an irregular, checked, or scattered pattern of fine lines usually caused by local overheating? a. is c. d.

fatigue cracks grinding cracks crater cracks HAZ cracks

Answer: A () 446. The vibration amplitude is really a response that is: a.

inversely proportional to the dynamic resistance in the system.

Page 74 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ si c. d.

proportional to the amount of displacement in the signal. not related at all to the dynamic forces in the system_ meaningless unless it has been initially taken in acceleration units.

Answer: A () 447. If a copper conductor is placed through a ferrous cylinder and a current is passed through the conductor, then the magnetic field (flux density) in the cylinder will be: a. the same intensity and pattern as in the conductor. si greater than in the conductor c. less than in the conductor. d. the same regardless of its proximity to the cylinder wall.

Answer: A () 448. One set of internal dry bulb temperature data for a pressure change leakage rate test is: (TI + T2 -h T3)13 = 71.87 1F (T4 + T5)/2 = 7232 IF (T6 -F T7)/2 = 72.68 IF (T8 -h T9 + T10)/3 = 73.07 IF For each of these four sections of this system, the respective weighting factors are 027, 0.18, 022 and 0.31 The mean absolute dry bulb temperature of system air for this test data point is: a. si c. d.

532.53 1R. 345.53 1K 532.48 1R. 532.48 1K

Answer: A () 449. The helium mass spectrometer detector-probe pressure-test technique is: a. a quantitative test. si a qualitative test c. a semiautomatic test d. none of the above.

Answer: A () 450. When a system's internal dry bulb's internal temperature and, in turn, total pressure, increase during a pressure change leakage-rate test, the water vapor pressure in the system under test would normally: a. increase. si remain the same. c. decrease. d. oscillate.

Answer: A () PROCESS TECHNOLOGY 451. Which of the following is not a characteristic of plaster mold casting? a. Only non-ferrous metals are cast in plaster molds. si The mold materials can be reused. c. A uniform structure in the casting is obtained because of slow cooling. d. Plaster molds are well-suited to the use of chills, which permit close control of thermal gradients in the molds.

Answer: A () 452. Galvanizing is a process of applying to iron and steel products a protective layer of Page 75 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. si c_ d.

tin and tin compounds. zinc and zinc compounds. aluminum and aluminum compounds. copper and copper compounds.

Answer: A () 453. Wrought products invariably exhibit: a. high susceptibility to corrosion. si lower strength than their cast counterparts. c. directional properties. d. poor weldability.

Answer: A () 454. Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or star-shaped cracks and will usually be found: A. By magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks are always subsurface. B. Anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted. C. In the natural crater formed between the two plates in a typical fillet weld. D. In the root area of a multiple pass weld where the weld metal failed to flow completely into the root opening.

Answer: A () 455. In 'open die' forging, the top and bottom dies are called, respectively: a. tup and anvil si cope and drag c. head and foot d. hammer and anvil

Answer: A () 456. A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be caused by the splashing, surging, interrupted pouring, or the meeting of two streams of metal coming from different directions is called: A B. C. D.

A burst. A cold shut. Flaking. A blow hole.

Answer: A () 457. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types? a. si c. d.

Shallow, deep, and intermittent Longitudinal, transverse, and crater Laminar, through, and oblique Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent

Answer: A () 458. A casting discontinuity which is caused by gas release or the evaporation of moisture during solidification is: a. microslarinkage si porosity c. porous segregation Page 76 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

hydrogen induced porosity

Answer: A () 459. Which of the following product forms is generally selected for high strength and controlled property directionality? a. Castings b. Extrusions c. Hot-rolled flat stock d. Forgings

Answer: A () 460. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all: a. b. c. d.

have the same strength characteristics. utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted. are fusion-type weldments. utilise liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity within the joint

Answer: A () 461. Splashes of hydraulic fluid in the eyes must be treated by: a. b. c. d.

immediately going to the nearest hospital immediately irrigating the eyes thoroughly with cold clean water gently dabbing the eyes with a clean tissue gently wiping the eyes with a clean damp tissue

Answer: A () 462. The welding process most widely used because of its versatility is: a. gas metal-arc welding. b. shielded metal-arc welding. c. gas tungsten-arc welding. d. submerged-arc welding.

Answer: A () 463. Hydrogen cracking, due to the break down of water molecules creating hydrogen which dissolves in the weld metal and RAZ; is most likely to occur in which of the following welding processes? a. TIG b. MEG c. sub-arc d. MMA

Answer: A () 464. Gross worm hole porosity which breaks the surface of a submerged arc weld is most likely caused by: a. damp flux b. poor current connection c. work oxide fihus d. variation in joint fit-up

Answer: A () Page 77 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 465. The welding process most widely used because of its versatility is: a. b. c. d.

gas metal-arc welding. shielded metal-arc welding. gas tungsten-arc welding. submerged-arc welding.

Answer: A () 466. The welding process which would be chosen for its rapid high welding speeds and deep penetration quality joints is: a. electroslag b. manual metal arc c. submerged arc d. TIG

deposition rates,

Answer: A () 467. Which of the following is a discontinuity which might be found in sand castings? A A Incomplete penetration. 11 Undercut C. Pipe. D. Shrinkage.

Answer: A () 468. The failure of turbine blades at the junction of the blade and larger section where it will be attached to the rotor; can often be ascribed to cyclical stresses which are concentrated in this region. The failure mechanism is called: a. stress rupture b. intergranular fretting corrosion c. fatigue d. hot tearing

Answer: A () 469. The hardenability of a steel can be tested by the: a. Iominy test. b. Impact test. c. Rockwell test d. Tensile test.

Answer: A () 470. Tapping is a cutting operation which produces: a. holes in sheet metal. b. threads in a hole (inside threads). c. threads on a solid shaft (outside threads). d. both b) and c).

Answer: A () 471. Killed steel is steel that has been: a. demagnetized b. D.C. magnetized c. deoxidized Page 78 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

quenched in oil

Answer: A () 472. A definite break in the material caused by excessive working of the metal during the forging, rolling or extruding operation is called a: a. b. c. d.

cold shut seam. burst hot tear.

Answer: A () 473. In its original shape porosity would appear: a. elongated. b. irregular. c. round or nearly round. d. all of the above.

Answer: A () 474. For the preparation of metal surfaces for adhesive bonding: a. a two-step cleaning method is used for each type of metal or alloy b. all surfaces are usually prepared in the same way no matter what the material is c. different metals may be prepared using any one of several different multi-step methods specific to eacls d. vapour degreasing is usually sufficient since the surface preparation is not critical.

Answer: A () 475. Discontinuities in plate, sheet, or strip caused by pipe, inclusions or blowholes in the original ingot which after rolling are usually flat and parallel to the outside, are called: a. b. c. d.

S PA mc laminations. cracks. laps.

Answer: A () 476. Which of the following should not be in the list? a. ingot b. bloom c. billet d. slab

Answer: A () 477. What effect is caused by a surface notch on a part in service, where local overstressing starts? a. b. c. d.

A stress concentration effect A stress dilution effect A stress reduction effect None of the above answers

Answer: A () Page 79 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 478. Which of the following statements is true of plastics following initial polymerisation? a. thermoplastics soften when reheated b. thermosetting plastics do soften when reheated but also char and deteriorate c. all plastics are synthetic and contain no natural materials d. all of the above are true

Answer: A () 479. A hole produced during the solidification of metal due to escaping gases is called: A A burst. 11 A cold shut. C. A flaking. D. A blow hole.

Answer: A () 480. A slag inclusion can result from which of the following? A. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the electrode in the gas Itungsten arc process. B. Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multipass weldment C. Excessive undercut on intermediate passes in a multipass weldment. D. B and C above.

Answer: A () 481. Metal forming such as rolling results in: a. b. c. d.

plastic flow of the metal. elongation of existing defects perpendicular to the rolling direction. directional properties which are always beneficial for secondary forming operations. the flattening out of defects which makes them more easily detectable by most NDT methods.

Answer: A () 482. Which of the following discontinuities could be classifed as a primary processing or inherent discontinuity often found in wrought material? a. Fatigue crack b. Stress-corrosion crack c. Porosity d. Machining tear

Answer: A () 483. Which of the following welding processes uses a nonconsumable electrode with the arc maintained in an atmosphere of inert gas? A. 11 C. D.

Gas Tungsten Arc Welding. Submerged Are Welding. Gas Metal Arc Welding. Electroslag Welding.

Answer: A () 484. Wrought products invariably exhibit: a. high susceptibility to corrosion. b. lower strength than their cast counterparts. c. directional properties. Page 80 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

poor weldability.

Answer: A () 485. Small, isolated indications, of high density and irregular. angular form, on a radiograph of a sand cast aluminium component are most likely due to: a. porosity or gas pores b. shrinkage sponge c. hot tears d. inclusion

Answer: A () 486. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality and cost of a product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following is true? a. designers, by their training and education, are sufficiently well informed about NDT that they are able to formulate NDT procedures and acceptance criteria b. when NDT appears necessary in a design, the designer should select the NDT method and technique to be used after reference to NDT handbooks c. designers should depend solely on NDT personnel to establish defect acceptance criteria d. none of the above is true

Answer: A () 487. Discontinuities which originate in the cast ingot can often be reduced by a process which closes and welds the voids, as well as breaking up inclusions. This process is: a. b. c. d.

machining welding forging cold extrusion

Answer: A () 488. The heat treatment process which is employed to give a soft ductile product, by recrystallisation of the material, is termed: a. b. c. d.

tempering hardening stress relieving annealing

Answer: A () 489. Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld: A. 11 C. D.

Argon, helium and carbon dioxide. Neon, tritium and helium. Sulphur dioxide, argon and oxygen. Argon, nitrogen and hydrogen.

Answer: A () 490. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types? a. b.

Shallow, deep, and intermittent Longitudinal, transverse, and crater

Page 81 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Laminar, through, and oblique Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent

Answer: A () 491. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often can be completed in a series of draws, each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might effectively reduce the number of draws required? a. Recrystallization b. Pickling c. Etching d. Hardening heat treatment

Answer: A () 492. Which of the following will not be found in a TIG welded joint? a. porosity b. slag c. crater cracking d. incomplete penetration

Answer: A () 493. Which of the following techniques is often used to speed-up the steel-making process? a. Adding large amounts of carbon to the molten metal. b. Reducing the amount of scrap steel that is often added to the molten metal. c. Adding oxygen to the molten metal. d. Converting the old open-hearth furnaces into electric furnaces.

Answer: A () 494. Heat treatment of steel may be done to: a. remove stresses induced by cold working. b. decrease hardness and increase ductility. c. change or modify its magnetic properties. d. accomplish any of the above.

Answer: A () 495. Poor forging temperature or too great a reduction in section can give rise to rupturing of the material, this is called a: a. lap b. seam c. burst d. inclusion

Answer: A () 496. Which of the following gauges and measuring instruments is greatest accuracy of measurements? a. b. c. d.

Air gauge Steel scale (ruler) Vernier caliper Vernier micrometer

Answer: A () Page 82 of 113

capable of the

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 497. A cause of gas porosity in welds is: a. welding at too low a temperature. b. improper cleaning or preheating of the plates to be welded. c. the use of insufficient filler metal. d. restriction of the movement of the material dining heating or welding.

Answer: A () 498. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often can be completed in a series of draws, each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might effectively reduce the number of draws required? a. Recrystallization b. Pickling c. Etching d. Hardening heat treatment

Answer: A () 499. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all: a. have the same strength characteristics. b. utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted. c. are fusion-type weldments. d. utilize liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity within the joint

Answer: A () 500. Which of the following product forms is generally selected for high strength and controlled property directionality? a. b. c. d.

Castings Extrusions Hot-rolled flat stock Forgings

Answer: A () 501. Which of the following properties of a material can be used to predict the deflection of a certain size beam under known loads? a. b. c. d.

Tensile strength Elastic limit Younges modules Ductility

Answer: A () 502. A flaw that is deemed to be unacceptable standards is called? a. A discontinuity b. A defect c. An indication d. A blemish

Answer: A () 501 Which of the following is classed as a Physical property? a. Density b. Conductivity c. Melting point Page 83 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

All of the above

Answer: A () 504. Solid solubility is NOT affected by? a. Crystal structure b. Atom size c. Ionic charge d. Chemical difference between solute and solvent atoms

Answer: A () 505. Which of the following is not a form of case hardening? a. Sphernidizing b. Carburizing c. Flame hardening d. Nitriding

Answer: A () 506. Products of oxidation are termed? a. Skull b. Non metallic inclusions c. Exogenous inclusions d. Indigenous inclusions

Answer: A () 507. When a metal is very brittle which test is used to replace the tensile test? a. The shear test b. The transverse rupture test c. The compression test d. The endurance test

Answer: A () 508. A method of increasing the yield from an ingot is? a. b. c. d. e.

Fitting an 'hot top' Use of an insulating insert Increasing casting temperature Both fitting an 'hot top' and use of an insulating insert All of the above

Answer: A () 509. Which of the following can be determined on an unetched microspecimen? a. b. c. d.

Crystal structure Degree of decarburization Grain size Presence of non metallic inclusions

Answer: A () 510. The bonding process giving very high efficiency is? a. Fusion bonding b. Pressure bonding c. Flow bonding Page 84 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

Atomic bonding

Answer: A () 511. Planes of weakness in an ingot can be controlled by? a. Mould design b. Casting at high temperatures c. Casting at low temperatures d. Fitting an hot top

Answer: A () 512. Calculate the factor of safety given that a materials has a working stress of 15, 000 lbs per square inch and an elastic limit of 60, 000 lbs per square inch? a. b. c. d.

2 4 6 8

Answer: A () 513. Ingot corner segregation can be minimized by the use of a. Low pouring speeds and low casting temperatures b. High pouring speeds and high casting temperatures c. High pouring speeds and low casting temperatures d. Low pouring speeds and high casting temperatures

Answer: A () 514. Of the following, which is considered the most important structural non-ferrous metal? a. Copper b. Zinc c. Tin d. Aluminium

Answer: A () 515. Which point on the iron carbon diagram is the eutectoid point? a. Point B b. Point C c. Paint D d. Paint E

Answer: A () 516. The fundamental difference between macro examination and micro examination is? a. Micro examination can be regarded as the overall picture b. Macro examination is the detailed structure c. Micro structure examination are conducted at higher magnification d. Macro examination are conducted at higher magnification

Answer: A () 517. Which of the following impact tests are used to determine transition temperatures? a. IZOD Page 85 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Charpy Hounsfield tensometer Both Charpy and Hounsefield tensometer

Answer: A () 518. As the carbon equivalent increases the? a. Preheat temperature increases b. Preheat temperature decreases c. Hardness of the weld decreases d. Hardenability decreases

Answer: A () 519. Impact forging is more commonly known as a. Open die forging b. Drop forging c. Closed die d. Rotary swaging

Answer: A () 520. Which of the following metals can be magnetized? a. Martensitic stainless b. Ferritic stainless c. Austemfic stainless d. Martensitic stainless and Femtic stainless e. None of the above

Answer: A () 521. Which of the following discontinuities could be classified as a primary processing or inherent discontinuity often found in wrought material? a. b. c. d.

Fatigue crack Stress-corrosion crack Porosity Machining tear

Answer: A () 522. Stringers are a type of discontinuity sometimes found in: a. weldments. b. castings. c. forgings. d. none of the above.

Answer: A () 523. Segregation is associated with serious metallurgical defects including? a. Non-metallic inclusions b. Shrinkage cavities c. Hydrogen cracks d. Non metallic inclusions and shrinkage cavities e. Non metallic inclusions, shrinkage cavities and hydrogen cracks are correct

Answer: A () Page 86 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 524. Rolled mild steel sheet that is held for some time at room temperature will result in the carbon and nitrogen atoms to diffuse and lock the dislocations. This is known as? a. b. c. d.

Stain ageing Precipitation hardening Work hardening Precipitation ageing

Answer: A () 525. Consider a time temperature transformation diagram. Which of the structures is last to form? & Coarse Pearlite b. Upper bainite c. Low bainite d. Martensite

following

Answer: A () 526. Which of the following metals forms a thin impervious film of oxide that resists oxidation? a. b. c. d.

Iron Molybdenum Aluminium Magnesium

Answer: A () 527. Which of the following would be considered to be viewing aids metallography? a. Microscope b. Baroscope c. Fiber optics d. All of the above

when carrying out

Answer: A () 528. At which temperature does pure iron become non magnetic? a. Al b. A2 c. A3 d. A4

Answer: A () 529. Which of the following is a crystal lattice that has nine atoms, eight at each corner and one centrally between them? a. Hexagonal close packing b. Body centered cubic c. Face centered cubic d. Body centered tetragonal

Answer: A () 530. What effect is caused by a surface notch on a part in service, where local overstressing starts? Page 87 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

A stress concentration effect A stress dilution effect A stress reduction effect None of the above answers

Answer: A () 531. Shrinkage grooves located in the weld root of pipe work are considered to be? a. b. c. d.

Lack of root fusion Root concavity Burn through Root undercut

Answer: A () 532. Tool and die steels are classed as? a. Low carbon steels b. Medium carbon steels c. High carbon steels d. Alloy steels

Answer: A () 533. A heat treatment process that requires a material to be heated above its critical temperature for some period of time for carbon to unite in solid solution with iron in the gamma or F.C.C. lattice is known as? a. Spherodizing b. Annealing c. Austentitization d. Normalizing

Answer: A () 534. Failure by corrosion fatigue is generally? a. Brittle failure b. Cleavage failure c. Intergranular d. Transgranular

Answer: A () 535. Which of the following is classified as an inert gas? a. Hydrogen b. Helium c. Oxygen d. All of the above e. Hydrogen and helium only

Answer: A () 536. What term is used to define the change of state directly from solid to gas? a. Crystallization b. Vaporization c. Sublimation d. None of the above Page 88 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 537. Cementite has the chemical formulae? a. FeC b. Fe2C c. Fe3C d. FeC3

Answer: A () 538. What is the approximate carbon content of Pig iron? a. 1-2% b. 2-3% c. 3-4% 4-5% d.

Answer: A () 539. A cause of gas porosity in welds is: a. welding at too low a temperature. b. improper cleaning or preheating of the plates to be welded. c. the use of insufficient filler metal d. restriction of the movement of the material during heating or welding

Answer: A () 540. Which of the following is a Notched Bar test? a. b. c. d. e.

Tensile impact test Chaipy test hod test Charpy test and Izod test All the above

Answer: A () 541. Mill work covers many products. Which below would be classed as a mill product? a. b. c. d. e.

Pipe Tube Casting Pipe and tube None of the above

Answer: A () 542. What is required to form a fusion bond? a. Melting of parent metals b. A filler rod c. Pressure d. All of the above

Answer: A () 543. Multiple cooling rates can have adverse affects on weld areas. What can be done to offset this problem? a. Use different alloy rods to control temperature Page 89 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Using a pre-heat Use different alloy rods to control temperature and using a pre-heat Nothing can be done to offset the problem

Answer: A () 544 The hardenability of a steel can be tested by the: a. Iominy test. b. Impact test. c. Rockwell test d. Tensile test.

Answer: A () 545. Stretcher stains are? a. Surface marks b. Luder lines c. Grain boundary deformation d. Both surface marks and luder lines are correct

Answer: A () 546. Secondary pipe of an ingot is? a. Considered more detrimental than primary pipe b. Free from oxide and so opposite walls can be welded together during the rolling process c. Suspect to cracking if the ingot is stressed d. Both free from oxide and so opposite walls can be welded together during the rolling process and suspect to cracking if the ingot is stressed

Answer: A () 547. An alloy steel is steel containing one or more? a. Elements b. Atoms c. Mixtures d. Components

Answer: A () 548. What materials are required for reinforced plastic molding? a. b. c. d. e.

Filler Resin Wood Shavings Filler and Resin All of the above

Answer: A () 549. Season cracking is a form of intergranular corrosion that occurs in which of the following metals? a. Chromium b. 7.intPage 90 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Brass Copper

Answer: A () 550. Which of the following is classed as a chemical property? a. Electrical conductivity b. Thermal conductivity c Corrosion resistance d. Machine resistance

Answer: A () 551. Flow bonding is a particular type of bond, which listed below would be classed as a flow bond? a. b. c. d.

Fusion welding Braze welding Metal arc welding None of the above

Answer: A () 552. Sulphur printing is used to determine the degree of segregation in steel and uses photographic film dipped into a solution of? a. b. c. d.

3% nitric acid 3% hydrochloric acid 3% sulphuric acid 3% acetic acid

Answer: A () 553. Which materials can best be anodized? a. Steel b. Copper c. Aluminium d. Brass

Answer: A () 554. Where gas is used as a shield for the welding process the gas is a. b. c. d. e.

commonly?

Argon Helium Hydrogen Argon and Helium All of the above

Answer: A () 555. Manufacturing is a term used generally to describe the of a bulk material. a. b. c. d.

Designing Production Shape changing Casting

Answer: A () Page 91 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 556. The load carrying ability of an engineering structure can be reduced below the tensile strength of the material if it contains stress concentrations. This recognition led to the concept of a material property called? a. b. c. d.

Crack opening displacement Linear elastic fracture mectorices Notch toughness Yield stress

Answer: A () 557. The letters N/C in machine work stand for? a. Numerical control b. Number cycle c. Numerical cutting d. Number counting

Answer: A () 558. The superficial Rockwell test is carried out on materials that? a. Only allow very small surface blemishes b. Are very ductile c. Have very large surface areas d. None of the above

Answer: A () 559. Which of the following materials exhibits better compressive strength than tensile strength? a. b. c. d. e.

Cast iron Concrete Wood Concrete and wood All the above

Answer: A () 560. Which of the following is required - in theory - for two perfectly matched faces? a. Atomic cleanliness b. Atomic closeness c. Pressure d. Atomic cleanliness and atomic pressure e. All the above

Answer: A () 561. Loads that are most likely to cause failure are? a. b. c. d.

Single direction Multi directional Duo directional Phase orientated

Answer: A () 562. What material is usually used in injection molding? a. Thermosetting plastics Page 92 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Thermoplastics Ceramics Powder metals

Answer: A () 563. Tapping is a cutting operation which produces: a. b. c. d.

holes in sheet metal. threads in a hole (inside threads). threads on a solid shaft (outside threads). both b and c.

Answer: A () 564. If a material is loaded until its elastic limit is exceeded, what condition will occur? a. b. c. d.

The material may fracture The material may be work hardened The material will show no harmful effects The material may fracture and the material may be work hardened

Answer: A () 565. The letters EDM stands for? a. Electronic digital meter b. Electra discharge motor c. Electrical discharge machinery d. Electra dispensing machine

Answer: A () 566. Of these methods listed below which will eliminate the need for an ingot? a. Hot rolling b. Continuous casting c. Extrusion d. None of the above

Answer: A () 567. Which of the following is NOT a form of hardness test? Top of Form 1 a. b. c. d.

Brinell Jominy Rockwell Vickers

Answer: A () 568. Welding electrode coatings provides a. A shield for the arc against the atmosphere b. Added heat input c. Additional stresses to the weld d. None of the above

Answer: A () 569. Which of the following could be considered a discontinuity? a. Crack Page 93 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Change of section Drilled holed All the above

Answer: A () 570. Which weld process has a non-consumable electrode? a. Manual metal arc b. Metal inert gas c. Tungsten inert gas d. Manual metal arc and metal inert gas

Answer: A () 571. Sulphur printing is used to determine the degree of segregation in steel and uses photographic film dipped into a solution of? a. 3% nitric acid b. 3% hydrochloric acid c. 3% sulphuric acid d. 3% acetic acid

Answer: A () 572. A concave depression formed at the top of an ingot on cooling is termed? a. b. c. d.

Concavity Primary pipe Secondary pipe Solidification shrinkage

Answer: A () 573. Which of the following manufacturing processes is the most economical method of producing complex shapes? a. Casting b. Forging c. Rolling d. Welding

Answer: A () 574. How might a weld arc be shielded from oxidation? a. Flux powders b. Welding rod coatings c. Inert gases d. Welding rod coatings and inert gases e. All of the above

Answer: A () 575. When a change of wall thickness is required in a casting what would give the best design results? a. b. c. d.

Sudden section change Small radii Large radii All of the above

Page 94 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 576. Which of the following alloying additions are used to produce tool and die steels? a. Nickel b. Chromium c. Manganese d. All of the above e. Both Chromium and Manganese

Answer: A () 577. Elements with completed outer electron shells are? a. Highly reactive b. Inert c. Metallic in nature d. High melting point materials

Answer: A () 578. Fracture mechanics is used to? a. Determine critical defect size b. Select material type c. Determine important regions to inspect d. All of the above

Answer: A () 579. Heating to just below AC, and holding at this temperature for termed? a. Spheroidizing b. Process annealing c. Normalizing Anneal d. Both Spheroidizing and process annealing are correct

several hours is

Answer: A () 580. Which of the following metallic structures exhibits good ductility and high electrical conductivity? a. Body centered cubic b. Face centered cubic c. Hexagonal close packed d. Tetragonal

Answer: A () 581. Improved properties can be achieved by? a. Cold rolling b. Hot rolling c. Extrusion d. All of the above

Answer: A () 582. Practically all steel is made with the use of? a. Hydrogen is Oxygen Page 95 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Nitrogen Helium

Answer: A () 583. During the bending process what stresses are produced within the material? a. Compressive b. Shear c. Tensile d. Compressive and Tensile e. All of the above

Answer: A () 584. Which of the following may be considered as a flat product of the steel mill? a. Sheet b. Plate c. Strip d. Sheet and Strip e. All of the above

Answer: A () 585. NDT is generally not rained out on cast irons because? a. is c. d.

Cast iron is inherently free from major defects Due to the high carbon content cast iron can withstand high tensile stresses It is generally used in applications where the loads are principally comprehensive The low cost of cast iron cannot justify the high cost of NDT

Answer: A () 586. To what angle should a bend test be normally bent? a. 180 degrees b. 150 degrees c. 90 degrees d. None of the above

Answer: A () 587. The upper half of a flask is called? a. is c. d.

A drag A cope A draft A mould

Answer: A () 588. A typical application of powder metallurgy parts is? a. b. c. d.

Cutting tools Castings for human implants Extrusion of thin sections Metal fabrication of minute welds

Answer: A ()

Page 96 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 589. Where holes or cavities are required in the finished casting a is used in the molding stage? a. Chill b. Ingate c. Riser d. Core

Answer: A () 590. Electra plated surfaces are usually quite thin. Which common NDT measure the plate thickness? a. MT b. UT c. ET d. PT

method is used to

Answer: A () 591. One type of forging operation uses? a. b. c. d.

Rolling Casting Open dies Extrusion

Answer: A () 592. Abrasive finishing could be classified by which of the following methods? a. Wire brush is Polishing c. Buffing d. All of the above

Answer: A () 593 Which of the following structures is considered to be tetragonal? a. Austenite is Ferrite c. Pearlite d. Martensite

Answer: A () 594. Shrinkage occurring in the casting process can be divided into how many stages? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Answer: A () 595. Which is the main alloying element with respect to stainless steel? a. Nickel is Chromium c. Carbon d. Molybdenum Page 97 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 596. Angular distortion may occur in a weld when? a. Restraints are used b. Multi-pass welds are used c. Single pass welds are used d. Multiple welds and single pass welds are used

Answer: A () 597. Which of the following is not a characteristic of plaster mold a. b. c. d.

casting?

Only non-ferrous metals are cast in plaster molds. The mold materials can be reused. A uniform structure in the casting is obtained because of slow cooling. Plaster molds are well-suited to the use of chills, which permit close control of thermal gradients in the molds.

Answer: A () 598. The first crystals to form on solidification of a liquid metal are? a. Columnar grains b. Equiaxed crystals c. Chill crystals d. Solidification crystals

Answer: A () 599. Wells outside the normal finished casting are there to allow for? a. Gas evolution is Sand erosion c. Shrinkage d. Airlocks

Answer: A () 600. To join two metals which of the following is essential? a. Atomic closeness is Atomic cleanliness c. Melting d. Atomic closeness and cleanliness e. All the above

Answer: A () 601. A non-destructive test is usually classified as a? a. Indirect test is Direct test c. Destructive test d. Indirect and direct test

Answer: A () 602. One of the major drawbacks of magnesium alloys is? a. Poor corrosion resistance is Notch sensitivity c. High density Page 98 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

More expensive than using beryllium, which exhibits similar properties

Answer: A () 603. The temperature at which bonds between atoms are broken and the atoms are free to move from their fixed positions is known as? a. Liquidation temperature is Latent heat of fusion c. Melting paint d. Freezing point

Answer: A () 604 Which of the following is classified as a non-ferrous light alloy? a. b. c. d.

Beryllium base Zinc base Tin base Copper base

Answer: A () 605. A definite break in the material caused by excessive working of the metal during the forging, rolling or extruding operation is called a: a. cold shut. b. seam. c. burst. d. hot tear.

Answer: A () 606. It is generally understood that the principal alloying elements of brass are? a. Copper and tin b. Copper and zinc c. Bronze and tin d. Tin and zinc

Answer: A () 607. Which of the following must be considered when choosing an engineering material for a particular application? a. b. c. d. e.

Cost Loading Mechanical properties Inspection costs Any of the above

Answer: A () 608. A stress caused by forces at an angle to the plane is known as a? a. b. c. d.

Comprehensive stress Tensile stress Normal stress Shear stress

Answer: A () Page 99 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 609. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality weldments because: a. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low conductivity which results in weld defects due to localized heat build up. b. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high conductivity which results in lack of fusion defects as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone. c. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high temperature gradients are produced, causing stresses during cooling. d. none of the above.

Answer: A () 610. Heat treatment of steel may be done to: a. remove stresses induced by cold working. b. decrease hardness and increase ductility. c. change or modify its magnetic properties. d. accomplish any of the above.

Answer: A () 611. Cold cracks are formed in steel castings? a. As a result of large contraction stresses b. With carbon contents greater than 0.1% c. By alloying additions that hinder the formation of Maatensite d. All of the above

Answer: A () 612. Which welding process takes place in a vacuum? a. b. c. d.

Plasma arc welding Electron beam welding Friction welding Explosion welding

Answer: A () 613. Which extrusion process uses less pressure due to lower build-ups container and billet? a. Direct hot walking b. Indirect cold working c. Indirect hot working d. Direct cold working

of friction

Answer: A () 614. Of the following metals which is most susceptible to corrosion by seawater? a. b. c. d.

Gold Copper Zinc Lead

Answer: A () 615. The bottom part of the flask is known as the? a. Cope Page 100 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Bottom board Drag Runner

Answer: A () 616. Mutual attraction of positive and negative ions results in? a. Ionic bonds b. Covalent bond c. Metallic bond d. Van der waals bonds

Answer: A () 617. Which of the following welding processes is most prone to lack of fusion type defects? a. b. c. d.

Manual metal arc Submerged arc Electroslag Oxy gas welding

Answer: A () 618. Fixed gauges are used? a. Only on single purpose applications b. To measure internal bores c. Shape relationships d. All of the above

Answer: A () 619. Which of the following has an essentially rectangular cross-section? a. b. c. d.

Bar Bloom Slab Billet

Answer: A () 620. When using basic symbols for NDT what letters are used to denote liquid penetrant testing? a. b. c. d.

LPT EFT PT RPT

Answer: A () 621. Wormholes and blowholes greater than 1.5mm diameter are formed by? a. The carbon monoxide mechanism b. The water vapor mechanism c. Both carbon monoxide and vapor mechanisms d. Airlocks

Answer: A () 622. Which of the following is classed as permanent deformation? Page 101 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d. e.

Twinning Rotational deformation Slip Twinning and Slip All of the above

Answer: A () 623. Which of the following will affect the result of a tensile test? a. Size of test piece b. Orientation of test piece c. Method of machining d. All of the above

Answer: A () 624 Hardenability increases as? a. b. c. d.

Alloying elements increase Carbon equivalent increases Rate of cooling increases All of the above

Answer: A () 625. Excessive reinforcement of a butt weld may cause? a. b. c. d.

Stress raiser Fatigue Misalignment Both stress raiser and fatigue are correct

Answer: A () 626. The melting point of the parent plate and its subsequent removal by the force of the welding process is known as? a. Misalignment b. Lack of penetration c. Undercut d. Inadequate Capping

Answer: A () 627. The carbon content of high carbon steel is? a. 6-25 points of carbon b. 25-50 points of carbon c. 50-160 points of carbon d. Over 160 points of carbon

Answer: A () 628. Which of the following product forms is generally selected for high strength and controlled property directionality? a. b. c. d.

Castings Extrusions Hot-rolled flat stock Forgings

Page 102 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 629. Killed steel is steel that has been: a. demagnetized b. D.C. magnetized c. deoxidized d. quenched in oil

Answer: A () 630. In explosive forming? a. Gun powder is used b. High explosive is used c. Slow burning propellants are used d. High explosive and slow burning propellants are used

Answer: A () 631. Which of the following must be avoided to avoid cracking in a weldment? a. b. c. d. e.

Stress Martensite Hydrogen All of the above Martensite and hydrogen

Answer: A () 632. In steels that do not exhibit yield points; the stress at which plastic deformation begins corresponding to a small permanent strain is termed? a. b. c. d.

Elastic limit Transition point Proof stress Younges modulus

Answer: A () 633. Bonding of the metal powders into a solid mass during solid phase sintering is usually achieved by: a. b. c. d.

fusion. diffusion. interlocking. all of the above.

Answer: A () 634. Internal stress is associated with? a. High temperature gradients and rapid cooling b. Low temperature gradients and rapid cooling c. High temperature gradients and slow cooling d. Low temperature gradients and slow cooling

Answer: A () 635. Explosion welding is generally used to join? a. Two or more metals of different composition b. Butt welds Page 103 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ c. d.

Very think titanium sheeting Plastics

Answer: A () 636. The casting process which produces bar is known as? a. Centrifugal casting b. Last wax process c. Continuous casting d.

Plaster mold casting

Answer: A () 637. What do the letters AISI? a. American Institute of Steel Industries b. American Iron and Steel Industries c. American Industries of Steel Institutes d. American Iron and Steel Institute

Answer: A () 638. In modern manufacturing industries which of the following factors considered? a. b. c. d. e.

are

Markets Product life Design Manufacturing process All of the above

Answer: A () 639. The examination of a fracture surface is considered to be? a. b. c. d.

Macro examination Micro examination Macro etching Metallography

Answer: A () 640. Which of the following non-ferrous metals is almost exclusively die-cast? a. Aluminium b. Copper c. Magnesium d. Zinc

Answer: A () 641. segregation is associated with serious metallurgical defects including? a. b. c. d.

Secondary pipe Non metallic inclusions Skull All of the above

Answer: A () 642. One of the effects of alloying is termed? Page 104 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

Coring Dendritic growth Homogenous structure Inter-dendritic growth

Answer: A () 643. Which of the following solid inclusion is most likely in TIG weld? a. Slag b. Flux c. Tungsten d. Oxide

Answer: C () 644. Austenitic stainless steel most typically contains? a. 18% Chromium8% Nickel b. 15% Chromium10% Nickel c. 10% Chromium15% Nickel d. 8% Chroraium18% Nickel

Answer: A () 645. Equilibrium diagrams are plot of a. TemperatureV Time b. CompositionV Time c. TemperatureV Composition d. Solid CompositionV Liquid Composition

Answer: A () 646. Spot welding is commonly used in which of the following applications? a. Car manufacturing b. Seam welding c. Shipbuilding d. Fabrication yards

Answer: A () 647. Galvanizing is a process of applying to iron and steel products a protective layer of a. b. c. d.

tin and tin compounds. zinc and zinc compounds. aluminum and aluminum compounds. copper and copper compounds.

Answer: A () 648. Cavities elongated in the direction of which gas is escaping are termed? a. b. c. d.

Pores Wormholes Pipes Wormholes and Pipes are correct

Answer: A () 649. In its original shape porosity would appear: a. elongated. Page 105 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

irregular. round or nearly round. all of the above.

Answer: A () 650. Which of the following is classed as a manufacturing process? a. b. c. d. e.

Casting Welding Machining Rolling All of the above

Answer: A () 651. A bonding process where only very small amount of the base metal a. b. c. d.

is used is called?

Fusion bonding Pressure bonding Flow bonding Cold bonding

Answer: A () 652. Which two NDT methods are usually used to inspect Magnesium components? a. Radiography and penetrant b. Radiography and magnetic particle c. Ultrasonic and magnetic particle d. Ultrasonic and penetrant

Answer: A () 653. Thennoplasting can be? a. Melted down and re-used without loss of properties b. Softened by heat c. Will char when heated d. Melted down and re-used without loss of properties and softened by heat

Answer: A () 654. The fundamental difference between macro examination and micro examination is? a. b. c. d.

Micro examination can be regarded as the overall picture Macro examination is the detailed structure Micro structure examination are conducted at higher magnification Macro examination are conducted at higher magnification

Answer: A () 655. The ultimate strength of material is? a. Lower than the breaking strength for ductile materials b. Lower than the rupture strength for ductile materials c. The same as the breaking strength for brittle materials d. None of the above

Answer: A () 656. Automatic welding under a flux is more commonly known as? Page 106 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

TIG welding Manual metal arc welding Submerged arc welding Stick welding

Answer: A () 657. Which NDT method can be used to give general sorting of Aluminium alloys? a. b. c. d.

UT MT RT ET

Answer: A () 658. Precipitation hardening is most commonly carried out on which of the following materials? a. b. c. d.

Carbon steel Lead Copper Aluminium

Answer: A () 659. Pipe and tube may be manufactured using which technique? a. Extruding b. Rolling c. Resistance welding d. Extruding and Rolling e. All of the above

Answer: A () 660. The incubation period for hairline cracks if generally considered to be of the order of from the time the forging first cools below 100 degrees Celsius? a. 24 hours b. 3 days c. 7 days d. 14 days

Answer: A () 661. Which of the following is a hole making operation? a. Splitting b. Parting c. Blanking d. Notching

Answer: A () 662. Which of the following metals has very little ductility? a. b. c. d.

Copper Steel Iron Aluminium

Page 107 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ Answer: A () 663. Which of the following processes could be performed using oxyacetylene equipment? a. Flame cutting b. Brazing c. Soldering d. Brazing and Soldering e. All of the above

Answer: A () 664. The shearing operation has many forms - names - of those listed below which is a shearing operation? a. b. c. d.

Bending Drawing Forming Parting

Answer: A () 665. Which metal is most used in electrical work, wiring, etc? a. Copper b. Brass c. Aluminium d. Steel

Answer: A () 666. The casting process, which gives improved material density towards the outside of, the mold is? a. Centrifugal casting b. Investment casting c. Continuous casting d. Permanent mold casting

Answer: A () 667. Which of the following metals is the most noble? a. Chromium b. Aluminium c. Platinum d.

Zinc

Answer: A () 668. Annealing will achieve which of the following properties? a. Increase ductility and decrease hardness b. Increase ductility and increase hardness c. Decrease ductility and increase hardness d. Decrease ductility and decrease hardness

Answer: A () 669. Point B on the iron carbon diagram is the? a. Peritectic point Page 108 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ b. c. d.

Peritectoid point Eutectic point Eutectoid point

Answer: A () 670. Which welding process is generally used to weld the ends of heavy round bars or tubes? a. b. c. d.

Ultrasonic welding Electroslag welding Plasma arc welding Friction welding

Answer: A () 671. Which of the following would be considered to be viewing aids when carrying out metallography? a. Microscope b. Boroscope c. Fibre optics d. All of the above

Answer: A () 672. Which of the following is NOT a form of hardness test? a. Brinell b. Jommy c. Rockwell d. Vickers

Answer: A () 673. When using gas metal are welding what range of filler wire diameter is available? a. b. c. d.

0.1-0.5mm 0.5-3nun 0.1-30mm 0.5-10mm

Answer: A () 674. Which of these defects can be found in fusion welds? a. Porosity b. Slag c. Cracks d. All of the above

Answer: A () 675. A process used to decrease hardness, increase ductility and occasionally improve machinability of high carbon steels is called? a. b. c. d.

Annealing Austenitization Spheroidizing Stress relieving

Answer: A () Page 109 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ 676. An advantage of the shore sclerescope over other methods of hardness testing is? a. Portability b. No damage to surface of item being hardness tested c. Accuracy and repeatability on soft materials d. Both portability and no damage to surface of item being hardness tested

Answer: A () 677. Which of the following is not a service defect? a. forging crack b. fatigue crack c. stress-corrosion crack d. intergranular corrosion

Answer: A () 678. Internal forces acting upon imaginary planes cutting the body being loaded are? a. b. c. d.

Stresses Pressures Strain Fatigues

Answer: A () 679. Which of the following could affect the properties of an engineering material? a. Composition b. Heat treated condition c. Crystal structure d. Composition and heat-treated condition e. Composition, heat treated condition and crystal structure

Answer: A () 680. Where an unacceptable condition occurs in a material, due to local variations in material continuity the term given specifically to this is? a. b. c. d.

A discontinuity A flaw A defect Any of the above

Answer: A () 681. Pattern makers shrinkage occurs in? a. Liquid state of casting b. Solidification state of casting c. Solid state of casting d. All of the above

Answer: A () 682. After solidification of a casting, the internal granular structure consists of three layers - outer, intermediate and central. The central layer consists of a. a mixture of large and small grains with random shape and orientation. b. large columnar grains. c. large equiaxed grains. Page 110 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

small equiaxed grains with random shape and orientation_

Answer: A () 683 Which of the following should not be in the list? a. ingot b. bloom c. billet d. slab

Answer: A () 684. Low temperature heating giving rise to small-scale readjustments the atoms is known as? a. Recrystallization b. Recovery c. Grain growth d. Annealing

in the position of

Answer: A () 685. The principal NDT method to locate internal discontinuities in forgings is? a. UT b. RT c. ET d. MT

Answer: A () 686. In the machining process metal is removed in the form of a. Swarf b. Chips c. Fillings d. Turnings

Answer: A () 687. The welding process most widely used because of its versatility is: a. gas metal-arc welding. b. shielded metal-arc welding. c. gas tungsten-arc welding. d. submerged-arc welding.

Answer: A () 688. Why is it advisable to leave final inspection of a weld until well after welding has finished? a. b. c. d.

Because the welds will be too hot to test Due to the possibility of distortion Due to the possibility of post weld cracking All of the above

Answer: A () 689. When carrying out a tensile test the maximumload to fracture is 3.2 tons and the test piece is 0.5 inches diameter. What is the tensile strength? Page 111 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ a. b. c. d.

6.4 tons per square inch 4.07 tons per square inch 1629 tons per square inch 8.80 tons per square inch

Answer: A () 690. A property of a fine grain material is that it will? a. b. c. d.

Machine more easily than coarse grain Case harden more easily than coarse grain Have higher strength than coarse grain All the above

Answer: A () 691. Reshaping of a material whilst in a plastic or semi-solid form is called? a. Casting b. Rolling c. Extrusion d. All of the above e. Rolling and Extrusion

Answer: A () 692. Fatigue failure may initiate from? a. An area of corrosion b. An internal flaw c. A surface notch d. All the above

Answer: A () 693. Metal forming such as rolling results in: a. b. c. d.

plastic flow of the metal. elongation of existing defects perpendicular to the rolling direction. directional properties which are always beneficial for secondary forming operations. the flattening out of defects which makes them more easily detectable by most NDT methods.

Answer: A () 694. Which of the following is an advantage of the continuous casting process? a. Removes the requirement for ingots b. Reduces wastage of material c. Can produce intricate cross sections d. Removes the requirement for ingots and reduces wastage of material e. All of the above

Answer: A () 695. Which of the following statements is 'rile with regard to a galvenic cell? a. b. c.

The more positive cathodic metals are protected The more negative cathodic metals are protected The more positive anodic metals suffer corrosion

Page 112 of 113

Q & A for Ultrasonic Practice Exam A (150 Questions & Answer) Name #: _______________________________________________ Date: ____________ d.

The more negative abodic metals are protected

Answer: A () 696. Which of the following does not create porosity when welding? a. Contamination of parent metal surfaces b. Use of powerful deoxidants c. Excessive dampness in consumables d. Inadequate removal of hydrated oxide films

Answer: A () 697. Galvanising is the process of coating inm with which of the following metals? a. Tin b. Zinc c. Copper d. Gold

Answer: A () 698. Processing is one or more steps that change Products? a. Shape b. Properties c. Chemical analysis d. Shape and Properties e. All the above

Answer: A () 699 Which of the following statements is true? a. Weld decay is a form of Intercrystalline cracking b. Weld decay is reduced by decreasing carbon content c. Weld decay is reduced by additions of niobium d. Weld decay is reduced by sub-critical annealing

Answer: A () 700. Wrought zinc and its alloys have very little NDT inspection on them, when a material is plated with zinc it is known as? a. Anodizing b. Wrapping c. Galvanizing d. Flashing

Answer: A ()

Page 113 of 113