English File Intermediate Plus Dyslexia-Friendly Tests [PDF]

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ENGLISH FILE Intermediate Plus

Tests for Students with Dyslexia

Unit tests Progress tests

ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

Contents Unit test 13 Unit test 2

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Unit test 3

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Unit test 4

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Unit test 5

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Unit test 6

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Unit test 7

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Unit test 8

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Unit test 9

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Unit test 1051 Progress test 1 Units 1–556 Progress test 2 Units 6–1066 Unit test answers

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Progress test answers

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Intermediate Plus

Unit test 1 1 Circle the correct word(s). She sent we / us an email this morning, and we replied immediately. 1 That’s a good phone. Can you show it to me / it for me? 2 His name is Alessandro and her / hers is Maria. 3 John wanted some theatre tickets, so we bought them for him / them him. 4 We asked for some names of hotels and them / they found some good ones. 5 Are these yours / your books here? They aren’t mine. 5

2 Complete the sentences with the correct word. Excuse me. Could I ask you to complete this s u r v e y? 1 What’s the a 2 O longer.

age of people where you work? , people with healthy lifestyles seem to live

3 We were asked to r popularity. 4 On a sc Oswald?

the list of names in order of

from one to ten, what do you think of the name

5 He didn’t believe it until he saw the e 6 Do you think men called Art are more l artists?

. to become

2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 1

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3 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. Which is the most desirable part of your city? (desire) 1 Dave’s new car is really

inside. (space)

2 Young children can be very (possess)

about their toys.

3 What would be a birthday? (suit)

present for someone’s 90th

4 When I was a teenager, I was quite 5 I don’t have a

. (rebel)

diet. I rarely eat fruit. (health) 5

4 Complete the final sentences. Use one, two, or three words. Green tea is better for you than black tea. Black tea isn’t as

good

for you as green tea.

1 My brother’s children aren’t very helpful. My children are. My children are m

h

than my brother’s.

2 There isn’t a more popular colour in the world than blue. Blue is t

m

p

colour in the world.

3 This house is large. The other two we saw were smaller. This is t

l

of the three houses we saw.

4 Driving is much safer than riding a bicycle. Riding a bicycle is much m

d

than driving.

5 The film was more exciting than the book. The book was l

e

than the film.

6 There isn’t an easier question in the exercise. This is t

e

question in the exercise. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 1

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5 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

What’s in a name? The arrival of a baby in the family causes plenty of excitement for all new parents. (1) They often spend hours looking through thousands of names in baby books before deciding what to call their child. (2) However, according to new research, parents should go for traditional names such as Michael, John, Ian, or Andrew if they want their sons to be successful. (3) There are also more lawyers and politicians with these four names than any other names. They are well represented in the police forces too, with eight of the chief constables in the country’s 52 forces named either Michael or Ian. (4) However, at present there is not a single person with this name in a senior position in government or the police force. (5) Research seems to support the theory that people with straightforward names are contacted and invited to come and meet the panel. In the 1970s, Jason was a popular boy’s name.

4

A But despite the apparent advantages of solid traditional names, they are currently out of fashion. B Many go on to pick a name that is unusual. C They have to get a room ready, buy new clothes, and choose a name. D These ‘power names’ are the most common among the top British businessmen. E Top managers are selected through an interview process. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 1

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6 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). Andrew Watson, an author and parenting expert, said the survey highlighted the importance of traditional names over more unusual, trendy ones. He warned parents that the effects of their choice of name for their child will last a lifetime. Their name is part of how others see them and feel about them. And this is not only important in childhood, but also in youth and adulthood. Mr Watson also warned parents to consider the spelling of the name. No child wants to go through life explaining an unusual name over and over again, or repeating it on the phone. The fact is that giving a child a fairly ordinary name can help them do well in life. Mr Watson reminded parents that unusual names come in and out of fashion quite quickly. Names that were trendy 30 years ago are almost unheard of today. But despite the apparent advantages of solid traditional names, they are currently out of fashion. According to the most up-to-date data from the Office of National Statistics, Michael, Andrew, and Ian are not even among the 50 most popular names of the last few years. Instead, more unusual ones such as Ethan, Noah, Oscar, and Jayden were preferred by new parents. While Jack, Harry, Alfie, and Thomas were the four most popular boys’ names with new parents last year, it is unclear whether they will make a success of their lives when they get older. Only John, it seems, has managed to stand the test of time. Earlier this year, it was identified as the most popular name in the record books. In total, more than two million boys have been given this name since records began in Britain in 1837.

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 1

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Andrew Watson believes that a person’s name can affect how they live.

T

1 Names with unusual spellings are easy to remember. 2 Fashionable names from thirty years ago aren’t very common now 3 Ellie is one of the most popular girl’s names in the UK. 4 The name ‘John’ has been popular for over 180 years. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 1

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Unit test 2 1 Circle the correct word(s). There’s only one stationers / stationer’s in town. 1 She prefers to grow all her own / she own vegetables. 2 The book’s end / end of the book was disappointing. 3 I can’t stand looking at other people’s / peoples’ holiday photos. 4 It’s our parent’s / parents’ 30th anniversary today. 5 Lisa is a very good my friend / friend of mine. 5

2 Complete the sentences with the correct word(s). Most people book holidays online now. Not many go to a t r a v e l a g e n t. 1 He didn’t use any sunscreen and got badly s 2 Where’s the i mosquitoes.

r

.

? The tent’s full of

3 We got our new house through a local e

a

.

4 I bought some beautiful roses for my wife from that fl over there. 5 Rob’s doing v get paid.

work this year. He won’t 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 2

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3 Circle the correct word(s). We had a fantastic holiday in South Africa. We saw / watched / looked all the main sights. 1 A Where are you off to? B I’m going shops / shopping / to the shopping. 2 Many town centres look depressing these days. A lot of shops are opening / finishing / closing down. 3 Have you ever been on / been / been to windsurfing? 4 It’s typical. Shoe shops nearly always seem to be out from / out to / out of my size! 5 At the end of a long hike, it’s a good idea to do / have / make a massage. 5

4 Complete the sentences with the present simple or present continuous form of the verb in brackets. I have to go. My flight 1 Anna part-time. (not work) 2 Where 3 He

6 We

right now. (board)

on Thursdays or Fridays. She’s for her holiday this year? (she / go)

a word she says. (not believe)

4 Pablo 5

is boarding

a rest at the moment. (have) swimming or sunbathing? (you / prefer) now, before it gets too busy. (shop)

7 My train

at 6.00 p.m. (arrive) 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 2

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Intermediate Plus

5 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Water wonder The view from the top of the Grand Canyon in Arizona is famous all over the world, but if you go several miles down and look back up, the view’s even more amazing. (1) And that’s exactly what my friend and I did last year. Our six-day adventure began with a lesson in packing our bags. (2) It’s a very, very short list! (3) By the time our talk on safety began, half of the group was nervous about the trip. (4) We were about to meet our guides, pull on our life-jackets, and get into our rafts. We’d only just discovered that on a scale of one to ten – one being parts of the river that were flat and easy – we were about to face parts of the river with rapids that were perfect tens. (5) 4

The rest of us were terrified. A When you book a rafting trip, you’re sent a list of things to take with you. B The best way to reach the floor of the canyon is by raft.  C Rafting is physically tough work and exhausting. D If it doesn’t float, or might harm the environment in the canyon, then it’s not going with you. E We also learned that once we set off, there was no going back! 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 2

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6 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). Still, we strapped ourselves into the rafts and started to paddle. And that’s when it all started to go right. A lot of good feeling came from our seven-strong team of guides and raft leaders. We had the perfect mix, from fresh young graduates to tour guides with 40 years’ experience. From the start they never stopped talking, but we didn’t mind that. At first, this mainly involved them yelling: ‘Pull! Pull! Left! Left! Now, right! I said right!’ at us all. But when we finally got it right, they took advantage of the occasional silence to tell us about the area. We learned lots about the canyon’s history, its plant and animal life, and some old stories from the past. As the days passed, and we went deeper into the canyon, the atmosphere became more and more mysterious. At times, it felt almost magical. Nights were just as special because we slept under the stars. There wasn’t a lot of privacy and it’s not the best holiday for people who like a daily shower. But it’s ideal if you want to see sights that very few others get to see. We didn’t just look at the Grand Canyon as it towered ever higher above us. We felt it. For six glorious days, we lived in it. The only bad thing was that on the very last day we had a pretty difficult climb getting out of it!

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 2

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F

There were forty rafters in the group. 1 The tour guides gave the rafters lots of instructions. 2 The tour group was told about how the canyon has changed. 3 The tour group slept in tents during their trip. 4 The Grand Canyon is one of the best places to raft in the world. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 2

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Unit test 3 1 Circle the correct form of the verb. Where did you grow up / did you use to grow up? 1 We prepared / were preparing lunch when the phone started ringing. 2 Sandra used to live / lived in Paris for three years. 3 Did your children use to like / Were your children liking secondary school? 4 How old were you when you were starting / started primary school? 5 I wasn’t watching / didn’t use to watch so much TV a few years ago. 6 What were you doing / did you do this time last year? 6

2 Complete the sentences with the correct preposition. They flew

over

the Alps on the way to Italy.

1 What are you waiting

? Let’s go now.

2 I opened my front door and my cat ran 3 Their country is particularly famous

me. its food.

4 Do you know what this photo reminds me 5 It was late when we arrived 6 You’ll find the plates

?

San Francisco. the shelf over there.

2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 3

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3 Match the sentences with the correct word / phrase from the box. There are three extra words. baby  child early twenties mid-twenties pensioner pre-teens teenager toddler

My daughter has just started primary school.

child

1 Maria learned to drive when she was 17. 2 My grandmother is 90 years old. 3 I had my first child when I was 25. 4 Sam is 14 months old and is starting to walk. 2 points for each correct answer 

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4 Complete the sentences with the correct word. You can see some cypress trees in the b a c k g r o u n d. 1 It was dark so I used the f

to take the photo.

2 Some people are standing on t 3 A picture can be b 4 In the b can see a house.

of a building. if you move when you take it.

right-hand corner of the photograph you 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 3

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5 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–4). There is one extra sentence.

Happy days Behind the house where I lived as a child, there was an old caravan. There were trees all around it, the windows were filthy, and inside were some smelly old yellow and brown cushions. (1) It was our camp, where adults never came, nor wanted to. There were three of us: Roger, the farmer’s son who was our leader, and Anne, his sister. (2) I’ll always remember the good times we had together. I know I was younger than nine at the time because that’s how old I was when we moved to a different part of the country due to my father’s job. Even now, 50 years later, I haven’t forgotten the house we left behind. (3) That house is the safe place I return to in my mind, time after time, as I recall the happiest of memories. (4) And learned to swim in the river and fish for crabs. It was there that I was given my first pet, too. A But that wasn’t the problem I realized. B Then there was little me, the hanger-on, who was allowed, and sometimes even encouraged, to join in. C There was never another one that meant as much to me. D But, to the gang of small children I was part of, the caravan was a special place. E It was there that I saw my first badger. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 3

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6 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). My parents let me go out and about to explore, and I loved spending time with my friends. Often my mother let my classmates from school come and spend the night at our house. And if there was nobody around, I would spend my days down by the river. Best of all, though, was the beach. When the tide was out, there was what looked like a beautiful tablecloth of white sand. It stretched across the huge bay and down to the sea. There, horses would gallop, children would sail dinghies, and people would walk their dogs. At high tide, it was covered in seaweed, driftwood, and shells. I called it my beach. After I had learned to drive, I returned regularly to have a look at my special place. I found myself driving along the country roads every year, just so that I could see the house. Some people say it’s a mistake to return to the treasured places of our past because they will probably have changed so much that we won’t recognize them. Decades later, do I want to go back to the house? I’m not sure. Perhaps it’s best to leave those memories in my head, untouched and unspoiled. Perhaps it’s best not to chase a dream. After all, I’m an adult now with four grown-up children of my own. People often came to visit the writer in her old house.

T

1 The beach was a good place to catch fish. 2 The writer didn’t like driving near her old house. 3 Everybody thinks that it is a good idea to visit places from their past. 4 The writer’s children are adults. 2 points for each correct answer  Total 16

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Unit test 4 1 Circle the correct word(s). A Is that your phone ringing? B Yes, I ’m going to / go to / ’ll answer it. 1 Am I helping / Shall I help / Do I help you with your bags? They look heavy. 2 A What are you planning to do with your old mobile phones? B We ’ll / ’re going to / shall take them to a charity shop. 3 The weather forecast says it isn’t going to rain / isn’t raining / won’t be rain tomorrow. 4 I visit / ’ll visit / ’m visiting Helen tomorrow. We organized it ages ago. 5 Who do you think will get / is getting / shall get the job? 5

2 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in brackets. If they offered her the job, would she accept it? (offer) 1 You get good marks in your exams if you want to study law. (have to) 2 He

me if he had enough time. (help)

3 They’d offer me the job if I experience. (have)

the right

4 I an appointment to see the doctor if I feel worse tomorrow. (make) 5 If you want to earn some money, (not become) 6 He late. (be able to)

an intern.

finish the report unless he stays at work

7 If you

her the truth, she’d understand. (tell) 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 4

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3 Complete the sentences with the correct word(s). Food is often safe to eat after its sell-by date. 1 How many t

of ice-cream did you buy?

2 Another word for a refuse collector is d 3 I always r

.

bags for food shopping.

4 Fruit is often sold in polystyrene tr

.

5 All non-recyclable waste is taken to a l s . 2 points for each correct answer 

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4 Circle the correct word(s). I didn’t go / assist / attend enough lectures so I failed the exam. 1 You need to have at least two good experience / references / graduates when looking for a job. 2 My son’s IT knowledge / skills / faculties weren’t good enough so he didn’t get the job. 3 Newspapers are no longer the best place to look for job vacancies / applications / qualifications. 4 My permit / thesis / grant helped pay my tuition fees. 5 Writing an excellent covering CV / letter / form can help to get you an interview. 5

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5 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Filling in the gaps 18-year-old Monika Lutz dreamed of a career helping to solve economic and social problems in poor countries. So, after she finished school, she took a gap year – a year off before going to university. (1) A growing number of students are deciding to take a gap year. (2) Some want to try out a career to see if they like it, while others travel with the aim of seeing more of the world. (3) But doing unpaid work is also popular, as is taking classes in something completely different from school subjects. Gap years have been common for many years in the United Kingdom. This hasn’t been the case in the United States, however. (4) These help students prepare for their year out of school or to find work. There are at least 30 ‘gap fairs’ all over the country which advertise various programmes. Universities recognise the importance of gap years. (5) She worked with a company that is trying to bring solar power to poor countries.

1

A Others want to make some money. B But nowadays, organized gap-year programmes are becoming more popular there, too. C Most universities offer advice on these projects. D They have different reasons for wanting to do this. E More colleges and universities are introducing new rules to allow students to delay entry to higher education more easily. 2 points for each correct answer  © Oxford University Press  Photocopiable

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 4

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6 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). After joining a gap-year programme last June, Casey Santi, 18, of Winnetka, Illinois, studied French and history, travelled, and did community work in Europe and Africa. Casey said the stress during the final year of high school put her off going straight to university. She needed time for herself, and actually found that the whole experience increased her interest in art. This left her better prepared for starting her degree in the subject. Surveys show that many students ‘burn out’ due to school-related stress. In one survey, students said this was the main reason they wanted a year off. The second most important was that they wanted to find out more about themselves. It was also discovered that students who take a gap year have more enthusiasm for their subject when they start university. Beth Parker says her gap year experience meant a complete turnaround. After a twelve-month break, she’s doing well, getting good grades, and has even become the editor of the university magazine. So gap years may work out well for many students. Monika Lutz, for example, realized after her year abroad that she was not ready to spend her life solving the problems of poor countries. A few weeks of living in a hut changed her mind. She is now looking into other careers. So, if you would like to take a gap year, do your research. Think carefully about your reasons for doing it.

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Casey Santi was the best student in her year at university. N 1 When students find school stressful they often don’t succeed at university. 2 Taking a gap year can help increase a student’s interest in their studies. 3 Beth Parker wrote magazine articles about her gap year experience. 4 Monika Lutz enjoyed everything about her gap year. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Unit test 5 1 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in brackets. Look! You

have broken

the TV stand. (break)

1 I soon. (dig)

in the garden all morning. I’ll finish

2 How long

you

3 He

your computer? (have)

to Rome. He’s in Milan. (not go)

4 Your parents far. (visit)

us three times this year so

5 We’re looking for a new TV, but we like yet. (not find) 6 How long

Tessa

one we Russian? (learn)

2 points for each correct answer 

12

2 Circle the correct word(s). A Have you been / gone / went to South Africa? B Yes, I went there with my family ten years ago. 1 They’ve known each other from / for / since they were at school. 2 My boss has left / left / has been leaving yesterday and he’ll be away until next week. 3 This film has been downloading / has downloaded / is downloading for hours now. 4 Do you like re-reading books you’ve yet / never / already read? 4

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3 Complete the sentences with the correct word. I love autumn when the leaves on the trees turn red. 1 We replaced the old f

around the garden.

2 The ground turned to m 3 We sat on top of a cl 4 That new s 5 Where’s the r watch TV.

after the heavy rain. overlooking the sea. on TV is hilarious! c

? I want to

6 They like watching interviews with famous people on ch sh . 7 I hate it when c programme.

interrupt a good

8 There was nothing to watch, so he turned o and read a book. 9 Can you turn the volume U

the TV

? I can’t hear anything. 2 points for each correct answer 

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4 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Couch potatoes The rise of the internet was predicted to kill off television. (1) Television there is actually going from strength to strength. According to a report on modern TV viewing habits, one-third of people in the UK watch 50 per cent more TV than five years ago. (2) Saturday-night favourites such as X Factor and Strictly Come Dancing, regularly attract audiences of more than 12 million each. Although TV viewing was once seen as an anti-social activity, many people now say it helps them to develop their relationships and make them more sociable. (3) As well as that, nearly half of the people who took part in the survey said that TV shows have helped them to make new friends. (4) The report by Dr Brian Young of the University of Exeter suggests that modern TV viewing habits are not creating a generation of ‘couch potatoes’, that is, lazy people – far from it, in fact. Instead, TV is encouraging viewers to take up hobbies and visit new places. (5) And 85 per cent say travel programmes have encouraged them to book a holiday to somewhere they haven’t been before.

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However, that doesn’t seem to be the case in the UK.

1

A The report says that women are in charge of the remote control in more than half of houses. B Several key programmes are responsible for this increase. C Almost 40 per cent of those interviewed said they spend several hours each week talking about their favourite programmes. D Four in five people, it seems, have developed some new interests because of a TV show. E And each week, hundreds of thousands of programme fans post their comments on the results on social media sites. 2 points for each correct answer 

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5 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). Entertainment and travel are not the only areas to benefit, however. Around 80 per cent of people taking part in the survey said they now cook more and increasingly entertain friends at home. This is thanks to the help offered by the many TV chefs who seem to live on our TV screens these days. Programmes such as Come Dine with Me also allow viewers the chance to see how home entertaining should, or in many cases should not, be done. The survey also found that parents are no longer as strict about how much TV their children can watch. Young people, on average, are allowed between one and three hours a day in front of the TV. However, although the amount of time may have increased, parents are still careful about what is watched. Most recognize the 9.00 p.m. watershed – the time after which TV channels show programmes more suitable for adults. According to Dr Young, the television, once considered to be an electronic box in the corner of the room, is no longer a piece of furniture that the family gathers around a few times a year. Now, thanks to the digital age and greater channel choice, it is increasingly changing lives. Television in the 21st century is about improving friendships and encouraging people to have new adventures. And there’s nothing bad about that.

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Three quarters of people in the survey said TV encouraged them to cook more.

F

1 Audiences learn about food and home entertainment from TV programmes. 2 Come Dine With Me is the most popular food show on British TV. 3 Parents say that they let their children watch whatever they want. 4 People watch very few programmes together anymore. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Unit test 6 1 Circle the correct word(s). Great! We don’t have to / must get up early tomorrow. It’s a holiday. 1 Ought / Should I buy a new dress for Tina’s party? 2 You really have / must visit Denmark if you like good design. 3 We have lots of nails. We haven’t / needn’t get any more. 4 Did they really must / need to cut down that tree? 5 We mustn’t / don’t have to leave late if we want to get the train. 5

2 Complete the sentences with the correct form of can, could, be able to, or managed to. Stefan could play chess brilliantly when he was eight. 1 After a long wait, the journalist speak to the director. 2 You the doctor today. She’s fully booked.

see

3 Her credit card was out of date, so she use it. 4 I’m not sure I 5 That

finish my report today. be the real price! It’s usually cheaper. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 6

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3 Complete the sentences with the correct word(s). The s e r v i c e wasn’t good – the waiter was too slow. 1 You shouldn’t take things out one at a time. Carry them on a tr . 2 A Which dish would you r

?

B The fish is particularly good today, sir. 3 I’d like to b

a table for six this evening, please.

4 We’re getting new t

for the bathroom walls.

5 If you want shelves to stay up for a long time, use scr not glue. 6 Don’t use b long enough. 7 I asked the waiter for a n

,

in digital radios – they don’t last to wipe my hands. 2 points for each correct answer 

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4 Use the word(s) from the box to make phrases. ask for needle pour put up send serve

ask for the bill 1

shelves

2

a drink

3

something back

4

a table

5

and thread 5

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test 6

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Intermediate Plus

5 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Is ‘Do It Yourself’ worth it? Why pay an electrician for a five-minute task when you can do it yourself? It’s a shame to waste money on getting such a simple job done. (1) Last year, I bought a new light fitting for our bedroom. I knew it wasn’t going to be easy to put up, so I called my friend Paul. (2) Then, using my screwdriver, I would fix it to the ceiling. And all that would take the same length of time that a professional would need to do the job alone. Paul waited upstairs while I switched off the electrical power in the box downstairs. (3) It might have been his scream, the bang and flash of light, or even the smell of smoke. (4) That alone meant that I would have to reset every timer on every piece of electrical equipment in the house. It didn’t matter, though. (5) What had I done to him? I went upstairs to inspect the damage. His job would be to hold it in position.

2

A Whatever it was, I quickly turned off the power. B The only thing I could think about at that time was my poor friend. C In fact, I’ve never really liked DIY or been very interested in it. D I can’t remember when I first realized that something was wrong. E Well, that’s how I used to think about DIY, but not anymore. 2 points for each correct answer 

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6 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). The light fitting was completely destroyed. There was a huge black mark on the ceiling where it had been burned, and the smell in the room was awful. Paul was standing there brushing hundreds of small pieces of glass out of his hair. Luckily, he hadn’t been hurt. But he had come very close to it. It was at that point that I realized the dangers involved when someone doesn’t really know what they’re doing. As so often in DIY, the problem turned out to be not that we had made a complete mess of the job, but that we had missed a tiny detail. A piece of metal in the part that connects the light fitting to the ceiling should have been covered with a special kind of tape. At least that’s what the electrician who came to sort out the problem told me. With the tape, the light fitting would have been an attractive addition to the room. Without it, however, it was like a bomb. My wife was used to my making a mess of things and paying twice as much to get them fixed as it would have cost to get a professional to do it in the first place. That day taught us all a lesson, though. I was not prepared to injure my friends just to save some money. And it seems I’m not the only one who’s had enough of DIY. In just two years, the number of people aged 45 to 54 doing DIY has fallen by half, according to a report published this week.

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The writer’s friend was badly injured in the accident.

F

1 The writer had made a small mistake in the DIY job. 2 The writer asked a professional to finish the job for him. 3 The writer’s wife is good at DIY. 4 There has been a decrease in the number of people who do their own repairs. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Unit test 7 1 Complete the sentences with the gerund or infinitive form of the verb in brackets. I can’t afford

to have

1 She tried late. (get)

a car any more. (have)

tickets for the concert, but it was too out during the week. (go)

2 We never feel like

names? (remember)

3 How good are you at 4 The teacher asked them end of the lesson. (stay)

in the classroom at the 2 points for each correct answer 

8

2 Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first. He doesn’t help me with my homework any more. He’s given up helping me with my homework. 1 My wife thinks I should take more time off work. My wife wants me

more time off work.

2 Their boss said they could go home early. Their boss let

home early.

3 She said she would call Max tomorrow. She agreed

Max tomorrow. 2 points for each correct answer 

6

3 Circle the correct word(s). When are you going to your clothes put away / put away your clothes? 1 He’s busy at the moment. Can you back call him / call him back later? 2 Turn off / Off turn your phone! I can’t concentrate. 3 The food was awful so we sent it back / sent back it. 3

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4 Complete the sentences with phrasal verbs in the correct form. My husband wants to c a r r y out the repairs to our house himself. 1 The car br new one.

down again yesterday, so we’re getting a

2 I lent you £100 last month. When are you going to p me back? 3 Why don’t you c

round for lunch today?

4 The children k game away.

on arguing, so I took the

5 We’re going to b

away for two weeks. 2 points for each correct answer 

10

5 Circle the correct word(s). If you make a mistake and need to start again, press withdraw / cancel / finish. 1 Press ‘print recipe / receive / receipt’ when you want a paper record. 2 The letters PIN stand for ‘Private / Personal / Person’s Identification Number’. 3 When a machine isn’t working, you see ‘out of / off with / up with service’. 3

6 Circle the odd one out. stalls

programme circle

1 performance

matinee

final whistle

2 box office

tickets

scene

3 crowd row

seats

4 music score

curtain 4

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7 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

A new way to shop Tom Algie is a shopkeeper from Settle, North Yorkshire. He runs a small hardware store called Practically Everything. It sells useful bits and pieces for the house and for doing DIY. (1) Last year, Tom faced a problem when it came to the Christmas holidays. He wanted to give himself, and his staff, time off to enjoy the holidays. (2) What if one of them needed to buy something when the shop was closed? It didn’t take him long to come up with a solution that suited everyone. He decided to leave the shop open and use an honesty box. He left a note telling shoppers who came into the shop on 26th December to serve themselves. (3) Amazingly, his plan worked. The honesty box was made out of a funnel and a plastic cereal box. (4) ‘It said ‘Please choose the items you want and place the money inside. Merry Christmas!’ When Tom returned to the shop at 4.15 p.m. to close up, he could only see £5.00 in the box and was a bit disappointed. However, he soon realized that the long tube of the funnel was full of money. (5) He was surprised and delighted to find that the shop had made £187.66.

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A quick shake of the tube was all that was needed to show him just how much he had earned that day.

5

A He asked them to leave their payment in a special container he’d prepared. B But he didn’t want to disappoint his loyal, local customers. C Tom recently tried out something very different in his shop. D These types of shop are very popular in rural areas. E He put it behind the counter with a note. 2 points for each correct answer 

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8 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). The customers left notes telling Tom which goods they had bought. The largest amount was £17.00 for a threestep ladder. When he checked the stock in his shop, Tom found out that they had indeed been honest. He also found some notes from customers to show how grateful they were. One said: ‘Thanks Tom. This is why we moved to Settle. Anywhere else, this shop would have been emptied in two minutes.’ Another read: ‘I’ve just moved back here from a big city. I forgot just how lovely Settle is. This has made my day.’ Tom believes he did not lose any money by using this system. In fact, the opposite is probably true. He explained that people seem to have put a little extra in the box if they did not have the right change. This makes sense because there is an ATM very close to the shop and people almost certainly went there to withdraw some cash. Therefore, they would have had only notes and probably no loose coins. Tom later said: ‘I didn’t think twice about leaving the shop open. Settle is a lovely, quiet, rural town and there’s never any trouble here. I put my faith in my customers and I wasn’t disappointed.’ T

Tom’s customers paid for the goods that they took. 1 Some of the customers thought that Tom’s idea wouldn’t work in other places. 2 People in Settle spend a lot of money at Christmas time. 3 People can get money from a bank near Tom’s shop. 4 Tom wasn’t sure that he should leave the shop open. 2 points for each correct answer  Total © Oxford University Press  Photocopiable

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Unit test 8 1 Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first. Local farmers find items from the war here. Items from the war

are found

here by local farmers.

1 More people will visit the museum this year. The museum people this year.

by more

2 You have to switch off your phone inside the library. Phones inside the library. 3 They were restoring some paintings when we went. Some paintings when we went. 4 Do you like people asking you personal questions? Do you like questions?

personal

5 They have discovered new information about Stonehenge. New information about Stonehenge . 2 points for each correct answer 

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2 Circle the correct words. Would you like to have your portrait painted / painted your portrait? 1 Our neighbours need to have their windows cleaned / their cleaned windows. 2 She had her roof to have / to have her roof repaired. 3 I’m going to have my photo taken / taken my photo professionally. 4 We’ll soon our boiler have / have our boiler replaced. 5 I’ve had my flat decorated / decorated my flat by a friend. 2 points for each correct answer 

10

3 Complete the sentences with the correct word(s). Treat yourself to a m a n i c u r e – your hands will look good afterwards. 1 Brian uses his r arm muscles.

machine every day to strengthen his

2 Of course Tracey’s tan is f the sun.

. She never goes out in

3 My feet felt like new after the p the money. 4 Have a good str out straight.

. It was worth

. That’s it – put your arms and legs

5 Ellie was bored with her hair colour, so she had it d pink! 6 My teenage son’s fr he’s going.

is so long that he can’t see where

7 A country with a king or a queen is a m

.

2 points for each correct answer 

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4 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Parkrun – the craze that’s sweeping the country Parkrun is a five-kilometre run that takes place at around 200 locations across Britain, from the far north of Scotland to the most southern tip of Cornwall. (1) And with runners in countries such as Denmark, Poland, and Afghanistan also getting out there at the same time, the event is not limited to Britain. When the run is over, every runner’s time is posted on the Parkrun website, or texted to their mobile phone by midday. This means that friends and family members running at different Parkrun sites can compete with each other. (2) The organizers of Parkrun, however, insist that the run is not intended to be a competitive race. The idea behind Parkrun is very simple. (3) People don’t mind getting up for nine o’clock on Saturdays because then the rest of the weekend is free for other activities. (4) Some runners are so keen to improve their speeds that they do the run week after week. Regular Parkrunners include 80-year-olds, as well as school children. (5)

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Many runners also try to beat their personal best times.

2

A Some people have competed in over 150 Parkruns, covering an amazing 760 kilometres. B Perhaps this is the secret of its success. C No-one is ever turned away, no matter how old they are. D At exactly 9.00 a.m. every Saturday, around 25,000 runners get ready to set off. E Another advantage is that once runners have registered on the website, they can run at any Parkrun event at any time. 2 points for each correct answer 

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5 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). The standard varies. Some may walk the course, perhaps because they are recovering from injuries, and take well over an hour. Running next to them may be professional athletes. One Olympic runner has completed the five kilometres in just under 14 minutes. But while some come to break records, others just take part for smaller rewards. Perhaps a cup of coffee and some cake, and the chance to catch up with their friends. The first Parkrun was held in 2004 near London with just 13 runners. It grew slowly at first, with a few venues added each year. But Parkrun has gained a massive number of fans in recent years. In fact, the number of runners each year has doubled. If this trend continues, there will soon be 100,000 regular weekly runners. There are Parkruns in cities such as London, Manchester, and Sheffield. The most popular runs, however, are in areas of unspoilt countryside. These offer wonderful scenery, and sometimes go past ancient buildings and monuments. There are some parts of the southwest and central England that do not have a local event yet. But the organization has plans to fill these gaps within a few months.

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F

Park runners are all high-level athletes. 1 Parkrun has always been a very popular event. 2 The largest Parkrun events are held in London. 3 Parkruns in rural areas are more popular than city runs. 4 Everywhere in England has a local Parkrun event. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Unit test 9 1 Complete the sentences using reported speech. ‘How long has Adam been working here?’ Carlos asked how long Adam working there.

has

been

1 ‘Don’t forget to send the application form.’ She told me application form.

to send the

2 ‘We’re flying to Rio tomorrow.’ Robert said next day.

to Rio the

3 ‘I don’t want to work for another company.’ He told me another company.

for

4 ‘I’ll never forget the first time I met Frank.’ She said the first time she met Frank. 5 ‘How many languages do you speak?’ Chris asked me how many languages

. 10

2 points for each correct answer 

2 Complete the sentences with the past simple or past perfect form of the verbs in brackets. He asked (ask, be) 1 I still

me if I

had been

my case when the taxi . (not pack, turn up)

2 They our seats, so we on the flight! (sell, not can) 3 He her number, but she phone. (ring, switch off)

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married long.

get her 3

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3 Complete the third conditional sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. They wouldn’t have met if he flight. (not meet, catch)

had caught

a later

1 If I what would happen, I that joke. (know, not tell) 2 We to the party if they but they didn’t! (gone, invite) 3 You in time if you hours ago. (arrive, leave) 4 She (ask, study)

me if I

us, two for the exam. 4

4 Circle the correct word. Our trip to the Seychelles was a forgetful / memorable holiday for many reasons. 1 Not many people are able to forget / memorize long lists of facts accurately. 2 Dad’s becoming very forgetful / unforgettable. He keeps going out without his keys. 3 We visited the memoirs / memorial for the soldiers who died during World War II. 3

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5 Complete the sentences with the correct word(s). My youngest sister, Julie, got m a r r i e d last April. 1 My brother and his girlfriend got e getting married next summer. 2 They had their c 3 How many g 4 The bride and g

. They’re

in a beautiful old church. will you invite to your wedding? cut the wedding cake together.

5 The bride wore a beautiful w 6 The p

d

.

carried the rings down the aisle.

7 The bride asked two of her friends to be b . 2 points for each correct answer 

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6 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Memory matters A strong memory depends on the health of your brain. This is true whether you’re a student studying for an exam, a worker interested in staying mentally sharp, or a retired person looking after your brain. (1) And many of them are easier than you’d expect. They say that you can’t teach old dogs new tricks. (2) The human brain has an amazing ability to adapt even into old age – something known as neuroplasticity. With the right mental exercises, the brain can make new connections and react in everchanging ways. So, how do we go about improving our memories? Well, just as an athlete relies on sleep and a healthy diet to perform at his or her best, your ability to remember increases when you look after your brain by having a good diet and other healthy habits. (3) Doing even moderate physical activity increases oxygen to the brain and reduces the risk of medical problems that lead to memory loss. When you don’t get enough sleep, your brain can’t operate at its best. (4) Sleep is also important for learning and memory in an even more basic way. (5) Key memory-improving activity occurs during the deepest stages of sleep.

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Creativity and problem-solving skills suffer as a result.

4

A The activity you choose could be anything as long as it does the following things. B When you exercise your body, you exercise the brain. C But when it comes to the brain, scientists have discovered that this simply isn’t true. D There are lots of things you can do to improve your memory and mental performance. E Research shows that sleep is necessary for memory improvement. 2 points for each correct answer 

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7 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). In terms of a healthy diet, it’s not just what you eat, but what you don’t eat. Diets with lots of fruit and vegetables and ‘healthy’ fats such as olive oil, nuts, and fish provide lots of health benefits for the body. These foods have also been shown to improve memory. Research shows that eating too many calories later in life can slow down brain development. And it’s not just food. Drinking green tea may also slow down the brain’s ageing process. Not all ways of improving memory have to be serious. Just hanging out with friends can make a huge difference. As humans, we are very sociable and relationships make our brains more active. In fact, communicating with others may be the best kind of brain exercise. You could join a club or try to see your friends more often. And laughter is also good for the brain. Listening to jokes, and working out why they’re funny, activates areas of the brain important for learning and creativity. Laugh at yourself as well, and share embarrassing moments with others. Finally, give your brain a workout by shaking things up. Try taking a new route home from work, visiting new places, or reading different kinds of books. The more you ‘work out’ your brain, the better you’ll be able to process and remember information.

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A healthy diet can have a positive effect on the mind.

T

1 There is a link between the number of calories people eat, and the way they think. 2 People who have more friends are more intelligent. 3 When you hear a funny story, your brain is exercised. 4 You become better at remembering things if you always have the same routine. 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Unit test 10 1 Circle the correct words. Do you still see / Are you still see / Have you still seeing your old friends from school? 1 This is the first time had we been / we’ve been / we’re being here in ten years. 2 Do you try / Were you tried / Had you tried to contact them before you left? 3 A What does your brother / does your brother do / does do your brother? B He’s a lawyer. 4 I was too tired so I didn’t go / haven’t gone / wasn’t go to the cinema after all. 5 How many countries do you think you have / you are / do you visited? 5

2 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Jane has been learning Arabic since last year, and speaks it quite well now. (learn, speak) 1 I you tomorrow. (think, not ought)

to tell them until

2 We early yesterday, but we to catch the last train. (leave, not manage) 3 Dad

me how to drive when I 17 next year. (teach, be)

4 They (tell, already sell) 5 I

us the tickets

out.

go on the walk yesterday because I all day. (not can, work) 2 points for each correct answer 

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3 Complete the sentences with words from the box. cram  fail invigilator marks  multiple-choice papers pass take

You won’t

fail

your exams if you study hard.

1 Jane manages to

exams easily.

2 I was so embarrassed when the talking to a friend.

caught me

3 Do you get nervous when you

an exam?

4 You can guess the answer with

questions.

5 Ricardo usually gets very good because he studies so hard.

in exams

6 Don’t try to 7 Looking at past prepare for an exam.

everything just before an exam. is one of the best ways to 7

4 Write the British words for the American words. vacation

holiday

1 cookie 2 faucet 3 subway 4 restroom 5 soccer 6 garbage 2 points for each correct answer 

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5 Read part one of the article, and choose one sentence (A–E) for each gap (1–5). There is one extra sentence.

Life in modern Britain If you go to another country to study or work, it’s useful to know about the people before you get there. This could help avoid any embarrassing mistakes. (1) The British have always been known for their ‘stiff upper lip’. They tend not to use superlatives and may not seem terribly lively when they speak. (2) It’s just that they choose not to display them in public. They are generally not keen on showing their feelings. You’ll also see that the British prefer to keep a considerable distance between themselves and the person to whom they are speaking. Privacy is very important to British people. They will probably not give you a tour of their home. They expect visitors to respect their privacy. (3) Even close friends do not cross the line by enquiring about someone’s financial situation or relationships. There is a proper way to act in most situations and the British do not like to break the rules. (4) The British are generally more controlled in their body language and hand gestures while speaking, than, say, North and South Americans and Southern Europeans. (5) Friendships take longer to build, but once established they may last over time and distance.

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For this reason, they may initially seem less open.

5

A This does not mean that they do not have emotions. B This also includes not asking personal questions. C However, behaviour has changed in recent years. D And nowhere is this more the case than in Britain. E Take body language as an example. 2 points for each correct answer 

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6 Read part two of the article. For sentences 1–4 write T (true), F (false), or D (doesn’t say). The British exchange presents between relatives and close friends for birthdays and Christmas. The present need not be expensive, but it should be related to that person’s interests. Also, if you are invited to someone’s home, you should take along some chocolates, wine, or flowers. And unlike many other cultures, gifts are usually opened when received. British people enjoy entertaining people in their homes. Although they value people being on time, you may arrive 10–15 minutes late. But you should not be late if you are meeting at a restaurant. Traditionally, it’s considered bad manners to rest your elbows on the table. Younger people, however, are a lot more relaxed about this, especially for less formal dining. Remember, it takes time to get to know a country and its people and the best thing to do is keep your eyes and ears open. You will soon learn how to behave. And above all else, as the British themselves would say, keep calm and carry on! British people always give each other expensive gifts.

F

1 British people never open presents when they are given them. 2 It is acceptable to arrive late for dinner at a British person’s house. 3 Young people often go to restaurants in the UK. 4 The writer thinks it is very difficult to learn the rules of behaviour in Britain.

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8

Total

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Progress test 1 Units 1–5 1 Circle the correct word(s). Chris doesn’t / didn’t go to Paris last week. 1 You’ll feel much healthier / healthyer if you do more exercise. 2 How long you have / have you been staying here? 3 His name’s Carlos and her / hers is Pilar. 4 See a doctor if you will still feel / still feel ill later. 5 We are always / always are happy to see our old friends. 6 I wanted to buy his car so he sold it to me / to me it. 7 What did you use to doing / do when you lived abroad? 8 I’d stay and chat if I have / had a bit more time, but I’m late. 9 Ben has cut / has been cutting his leg on that nail. 10 We’ve known each other since / for we were at school. 2 points for each correct answer 

20

2 Circle the stressed syllable. che | mi | cals 1 pho | to | graph

5 com | mer | cial

2 a | dap | tor

6 qua | li | fi | ca | tion

3 re | a | li | ty

7 suc | cess | ful

4 en | vi | ous

8 sun | glass | es 8

3 Circle the odd word out. leaf bush rock grass 1 background foreground

zoom

2 news

documentaries sitcoms

current affairs

centre

3 aggressive glamorous

stressful

dangerous

4 stationer’s butcher’s

baker’s

fishmonger’s

5 cereals wheat

lambs

crops

6 degree grant

diploma qualification 6

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4 Correct the mistakes in the highlighted words / phrases. She’s a person very selfish. a very selfish person 1 Do you think you were happyer when you were a child? 2 Max really should apologize to what he said. 3 A lot of small shops sell they own produce. 4 Do you know that new Thai restaurant? What’s it’s name? 5 The kitchen is by far the most big room in the house. 6 Our boss writes a lot of emails every day and he sends them we. 6

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5 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Where

does

Nina

work ? (work)

1 They a meeting when I arrived, so I had a coffee and waited. (have) 2 Where David boy? (use / live)

when he was a small

3 If she her driving test this morning, she may buy a car tomorrow. (pass) 4 I my cousins for years. I might not recognize them now. (not see) 5

your brother

how to play the drums? (know)

6 We’ll sleep in our tent unless the weather few hours. (change) 7 My grandparents

in the next

going for a walk every morning. (like)

8 When she was a teenager, Sally than she is now. (use / be)

much kinder 8

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6 Choose the correct word(s). Pick up the sweet wrappers / cans / tubs from the floor! 1 The cruise / safari / hike was a disaster. The other guests on the ship were awful. 2 Realistic / Real / Reality shows are just a cheap way for TV companies to make programmes. 3 It isn’t a good idea to reheat / replay / recycle cooked rice. You can get food poisoning. 4 Tina arrived at the hotel, packed / made / unpacked her suitcase, and went for a swim. 5 Remember to take a wash bag / an adaptor / a memory card when you go abroad, so you can recharge your camera. 6 Too much rubbish ends up in waste / landfill / bin sites these days. 7 A Can I help you? B No, thank you. We just want to look for / round / up. 8 I was able to photograph the whole building using my wide-angle focus / flash / lens. 8

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7 Complete the sentences with the correct word. The walk was lovely, but I got wet when I fell in a stre a m. 1 Most of your photos are bl each time! 2 Choose a p anything.

because you moved

holiday if you don’t want to organize

3 Don’t forget to r

sunscreen after every swim.

4 One minute Dan’s happy and the next he’s angry. He’s so m ! 5 Companies often receive hundreds of applications for job v . 6 Fiona never does anything silly. She’s always so s 7 Don’t forget to take insect r holiday. 8 We shop at ch everything.

.

with you on

stores because small shops don’t have 8

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8 Complete the sentences with a verb in the correct form. I like to cl i m b mountains when I’m on holiday. 1 Don’t s get sunburnt.

in the middle of the day or you might

2 My favourite shop cl recession.

down last month because of the

3 Citrus fruits like oranges and lemons don’t gr

in Britain.

4 If you want to make this photo bigger, you’ll need to e it. 5 A What are you doing? B I’m t 6 Can we sw is so boring.

out the rubbish. over to another channel? This chat show 6

9 Match the words with the same sound. apply brother  cases colour creative decided massage nickname screen swimsuit watched

boss’s

cases

1 useless 2 likely 3 leaves 4 name 5 sunrise 6 relaxed 7 country 8 garbage 8

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Intermediate Plus

10 Read part one of the article and tick (✓) the correct answer.

Flash mobs – a new kind of event In 2003, an unusually large number of customers arrived without warning in the carpet department of Macy’s Department Store in New York. The assistants couldn’t see why all of them were so interested in buying exactly the same carpet. In 2006, 4,000 people arrived with MP3 players and headsets at a London railway station and started dancing at a set time. As no music could be heard, this looked very strange. Police were even called to make sure that trains continued to run on time, but when they arrived the dancers had gone. In March 2013, more than 2,000 people gathered in Seoul, South Korea, complete with musical instruments, and started to dance. Many were students from Sungsin Girls’ High School – they joined other Earth Hour supporters and collected a staggering 150,000 signatures from local citizens in support of the campaign. In Korea, an estimated 12 million people participated in Earth Hour 2013. These are three examples of ‘flash mob’ events, when a crowd of people suddenly come together in a public place, perform an unusual action, and disappear as quickly as they had appeared. They are organized using electronic media such as mobile phones or the internet.

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Intermediate Plus  Progress test 1

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ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

The shop assistants in Macy’s didn’t understand A how the shoppers had got there. B where the shoppers had come from. C which items the shoppers wanted to buy. D why the shoppers were interested in the same product.  ✓ 1 The police were called to the London railway station to A arrest the dancers. B stop the trains departing late. C make sure no one was injured. D prevent people watching the event. 2 The event in South Korea was A

organised by a high school.

B

a world-record attempt.

C

organised to promote a campaign.

D not supported by local people. 3 Flashmob events are A

very common in large cities.

B

caused by crowds.

C

organised suddenly.

D often organised online. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Progress test 1

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Intermediate Plus

11 Read part two of the article and choose one sentence (A–D) for each gap (1–4). There is one extra sentence. To their fans, flash mobs are simply a chance to have some light-hearted, if rather silly, fun. (1) Unfortunately, a heavy rainstorm meant that the city was left covered with wet feathers, which caused streets, shops, and a restaurant to be flooded, and ruined the local fountain. (2) Crimes associated with flash mobs are rare, but occasionally make international headlines. (3) Professor of Psychology Mark Leary explains that as social media adds the ability to recruit a large number of people, individuals who would not rob a store on their own feel freer to misbehave without being identified. In Germany, the authorities in some cities have taken things even further. (4) There are strictly enforced laws that says a special permit must be obtained to use a public space for any event.

4

A Sometimes referred to as ‘flash robs’ by the media, these start with the intent to destroy, or lead to the destruction of private property or violence. B Most online companies use flash mobs to promote their products. C It took several days to put the damage right. D However, when just under 2,000 people got together in San Francisco for an enormous pillow fight, it ended up costing thousands of dollars. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus  Progress test 1

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Name: Class:

ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

12 Match the words / phrases with five of the definitions. staggering

unexpected

A connected

1 participated

B got

2 associated

C unexpected

3 destruction

D damage

4 identified

E recognised

5 obtained

F joined G took part 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Name: Class:

Intermediate Plus

Progress test 2 Units 6–10 1 Circle the correct word(s). He’s having / He has a shower at the moment. 1 A What does ‘awkward’ mean? B Why don’t you look it up / look up it? 2 I’ve lost my key again. I really should / ought to be more careful. 3 The teacher told them to not download / not to download essays from the internet. 4 Does / Is she like travelling so much for her job? 5 The train was late so I didn’t manage / wasn’t able to get to the meeting on time. 6 He asked me why I haven’t / hadn’t phoned him the day before. 7 Where did you have this photo taken / taken this photo? 8 You oughtn’t / shouldn’t go to work – your cold has got much worse. 8

2 Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verb in brackets. Max is going to have his hair cut off tomorrow. (have) 1 I’d love 2 How good are you at

play the double bass. (be able to) directions in cars? (give)

3 The police officers made the teenagers (clean up)

the mess.

4 We go to work tomorrow – it’s a public holiday! (not have to) 5 Phones must be 6 You really should stop (work)

during the exam. (switch off) so hard – it’s making you ill. 6

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Name: Class:

Intermediate Plus

3 Match the words with the same sound. army avoided cheated circle curtain failed score interval standard tried warning

army

farmer 1 theatre

1

,

2 prefer

2

,

3 started

3

,

4 audience

4

,

5 lived

5

,

2 points for each correct answer 

20

4 Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first. They are building a new theatre at the moment. A new theatre is being built at the moment. 1 The teacher said we could use our dictionaries. The teacher let

our dictionaries.

2 Perhaps you should get a new television. Perhaps you ought

a new television.

3 I forgot to go to the bank before it shut. I didn’t

go to the bank before it shut.

4 She said she wouldn’t help them. She said, ‘I

them.’

5 You needn’t go to the shop. There’s enough food. You don’t enough food.

to the shop. There’s

6 Somebody painted my portrait. I had

. 6

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Intermediate Plus

5 Complete the sentences. Write one word in each gap. The most expensive seats at a theatre are in the stalls. 1 Could you pass the oil and v 2 My new car br it a week!

, please?

down on the way to work. I’ve only had

3 Dinner’s ready. Can you p 4 You always g

the wine?

up too easily. You should try harder.

5 I had to press ‘c amount.

’ because I put in the wrong

6 The referee blew his wh 7 We left a large t

and the match was over.

because the service had been excellent.

8 Gina hasn’t been on holiday. It’s a fake t

. 8

6 Circle the odd word out. curled cut

straightened waxing

1 mug jug glass 2 glue

drill

3 manicure fringe

cup

screwdriver hammer pedicure

facial

4 balance account deposit

score

5 battle leader war

attack

6 rope tap wire

string 6

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Intermediate Plus  Progress test 2

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Name: Class:

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Intermediate Plus

7 Circle the stressed syllable. cha | ri | ty 1 va | ca | tion 2 for | tune 3 ce | re | mo | ny 4 for | get | ful 5 re | fe | ree 6 paint | brush 6

8 Write the American word for the British word. sweet

candy

1 petrol 2 holiday 3 underground 4 rubbish 5 pavement 6 biscuit 6

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Intermediate Plus  Progress test 2

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Intermediate Plus

9 Circle the correct words. I haven’t made / got / done the exam yet. It’s next week. 1 Joe’s just been taken on / up / out as an intern in my company. He starts next week. 2 Where’s the wedding being had / held / taken? 3 Those shelves will fall down unless you stick / put / tie them up with screws. 4 I’ll ask to / by / for the bill. Waiter? 5 Antonio mostly uses / does / goes the cross-trainer at the gym. 6 None of her story was true. She’d done / said / made everything up. 6

10 Circle the correct words. I could speak French / French speak when I was five. 1 My wife wants me to see / wants to see me the doctor. 2 When do you think should we / we should arrive? 3 Miguel is having cut his hair / his hair cut tomorrow. 4 Julia has fallen out with / with out her best friend. 5 He was allowed to early leave work / leave work early today. 6 I didn’t like the coat, so I took back it / it back. 6

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Intermediate Plus

11 Read part one of the article and tick (✔) the correct answer.

Megacities In 1800, only 3% of the world’s population lived in cities, a figure that had multiplied almost sixteen-fold to 47% by the end of the twentieth century. In 1950, there were 83 cities with populations exceeding one million; by 2007, this number had risen to 468. The term ‘megacity’ was first used as far back as the early 1960s by French geographer Jean Gottman to describe the north-eastern United States. The term is used more widely now and is defined as an urban area with more than 10 million people living closely together. A megacity can be a single area, or several areas that merge to make one huge area known as a megalopolis. As of March 2013, there were 28 megacities in the world. Megacities are the result of the process of urbanization. When cities started to become crowded, people who could afford to moved out into the suburbs at the edge of the city. Then, when the suburbs started attracting too many people, people moved further out into villages and the countryside. It was important that they were still close enough to the city to be able to commute comfortably every day, though. For this reason, the countryside was growing in popularity for the first time since industrialization in the nineteenth century. London, for example, lost 15% of its population between 1950 and 1970, and Detroit in the USA lost 47%.

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Name: Class:

Intermediate Plus

In the late 1990s, cities. A  3

% of the world’s population lived in

 B  16

47 ✓   C  20  D  1 The word ‘megacity’ was initially used A to describe several crowded cities in the world. B to describe places of fewer than ten million people. C by a European to describe somewhere in the United States. D by American’s to describe European cities. 2 More people began living in the suburbs because A cities had too many people. B villages were too expensive. C industry there improved greatly. D the countryside had too few people. 3 Detroit’s population decreased A by over half. B by nearly half. C because transport improved. D because people moved to London. 2 points for each correct answer 

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Intermediate Plus

12 Read part two of the article and choose one sentence (A–D) for each gap (1–4). There is one extra sentence. However, movement away from cities does not mean the end of the city. Far from it, in fact. The city continues to spread, and from the old city develops a greater metropolitan area. And with the passing of time these grow into megacities with millions of people. Currently, the world’s six greatest megacities are all to be found in Asia. (1) This is followed by, in order, the Indonesian capital of Jakarta, Seoul-Incheon, Delhi, Shanghai, and Manila in the Philippines. The fastest-growing cities in the last decade have all been in the developing world and this trend looks likely to continue. It is expected that by the year 2030, 60% of the world’s population will be living in megacities. Megacities have several things in common, mainly the problems they all experience. (2) Often the huge division of wealth in such cities means that the only affordable housing is unplanned and illegal. However, large population numbers alone do not create these problems. (3) Despite the fact that megacities are increasingly more common in the developing world, the developed world needs to pay attention to them. (4) And that’s something for us all to think about.

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Intermediate Plus

Among these are high traffic levels resulting in bad pollution, housing problems, and various social problems such as unemployment

2

A The largest of these is the Tokyo-Yokohama area, home to 37 million people. B City problems are thought to be caused mostly by weak and ineffective city governments. C Rome was one of the original megacities of the ancient world. D What happens in the megacities of the developing world may shape the rest of the world. 2 points for each correct answer 

6

13 Match the words / phrases with five of the definitions. merge

join

A not allowed

1 commute

B join

2 currently

C not nice

3 illegal

D affect

4 ineffective

E travel to work

5 shape

F not working well G now 2 points for each correct answer  Total

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Intermediate Plus  Progress test 2

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ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

Unit tests answers Unit 1

Unit 5

1 1 it to me  ​2 hers  ​3 them for him  ​ 4 they 5 your

1 1 have been digging  ​2 have…had  ​ 3 hasn’t gone  ​4 have visited  ​5 haven’t found 6  has…been learning

2 1 average  ​2 Overall  ​3 rank  ​4 scale 5 evidence  ​6 likely 3 1 spacious  ​ 2 possessive  ​3 suitable 4 rebellious  ​5 healthy 4 1 more helpful  ​2 the most popular  ​ 3 the largest  ​4 more dangerous  ​ 5 less exciting  ​6 the easiest

2 1 since  ​2 left  ​3 has been downloading 4 already 3 1 fence  ​2 mud  ​ 3 cliff  ​4 sitcom 5  remote control  ​6  chat shows 7 commercials  ​8 off  ​ 9 up 4 A -  ​ B 2  ​C 3  ​D 5  ​ E4

5 A -  ​B 2  ​ C 1  ​D 3  ​E 5

5 1 T  ​2 D  ​ 3 F  ​4 F

6 1 F  2 T  3 D  4 T

Unit 6

Unit 2

1 1 Should  ​ 2 must  ​ 3 needn’t  ​ 4 need to 5 mustn’t

1 1 her own  ​2 end of the book  ​3 people’s 4 parents’  ​5 friend of mine 2 1 sunburnt  ​2 insect repellent  ​3 estate agent 4 florist  ​5 voluntary 3 1 shopping  ​ 2 closing down  ​3 been  ​ 4 out of 5 have

2 1 managed to  ​2 won’t be able to  ​3 couldn’t 4 can  ​ 5 can’t 3 1 tray  ​2 recommend  ​3 book  ​ 4 tiles  ​ 5 screws  6 batteries  ​7 napkin 4 1 put up  ​2 pour  ​ 3 send  ​4 serve  ​5 needle

4 1 doesn’t work  ​2 is she going  ​3 doesn’t believe  ​4 is having  ​5 Do you prefer   ​6 are shopping  ​7 arrives

5 A 4  ​ B 5  ​C -  ​D 3  ​E 1

5 A 2  ​B 1  ​C -  ​D 3  ​ E 5

Unit 7

6 1 T  ​ 2 T  ​3 F  ​4 D

1 1 to get  ​2 going  ​ 3 remembering  ​4 stay

Unit 3

2 1 to take  ​2 them go  ​3 to call

1 1 were preparing  ​2 lived  ​3 Did your children use to like  ​4 started  ​5 didn’t use to watch 6  were you doing

4 1 broke  ​2 pay  ​ 3 call  ​ 4 kept 5 be

2 1 for  ​2 towards/past  ​3 for  ​4 of  ​5 in  ​6 on 3 1 teenager  ​ 2 pensioner  ​3 mid-twenties 4 toddler 4 1 flash  ​2 top  ​3 blurred  ​4 bottom

6 1 T  ​2 T  ​ 3 D  ​4 T

3 1 call him back  ​2 Turn off  ​3 sent it back 5 1 receipt  ​2 Personal  ​ 3 out of 6 1 final whistle  ​2 scene  ​3 crowd  ​4 curtain 7 A 3  ​B 2  ​ C 1  ​D -  ​E 4 8 1 T  ​2 D  ​ 3 N  ​4 F

5 A -  ​B 2  ​ C 3  ​D 1  ​ E 4

Unit 8

6 1 D  ​2 F  ​3 F  ​4 T

1 1  will be visited  ​2  have to be switched off 3 were being restored  ​4 being asked  ​ 5  has been discovered

Unit 4 1 1 Shall I help  ​2 ’re going to  ​ 3 isn’t going to rain  ​4 ’m visiting  ​5 will get 2 1 have to  ​2 would help  ​3 had  ​4 will make 5 don’t become  ​6 won’t be able to  ​7 told 3 1 tubs  ​ 2 dustman  ​3 reuse  ​4 trays  ​ 5  landfill site 4 1 references  ​2 skills  ​3 vacancies  ​4 grant 5 letter 5 A 3  ​B 4  ​C -  ​D 2  ​E 5 6 1 T  ​ 2 T  ​3 D  ​4 F

© Oxford University Press  Photocopiable

2 1  their windows cleaned  ​2  to have her roof 3 my photo taken  ​4 have our boiler  ​ 5  had my flat decorated 3 1 rowing  ​ 2 fake  ​3 pedicure  ​4 stretch  ​ 5 dyed  6 fringe  ​ 7 monarchy 4 A -  ​B 3  ​C 5  ​ D 1  ​E 4 5 1 F  ​2 D  ​3 T  ​4 F ​

Intermediate Plus  Unit test answers

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ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

Unit 9 1 1  not to forget  ​2  they were flying 3  he didn’t want to work 4  she would never forget  ​5  I spoke 2 1  hadn’t packed…turned up 2 had sold…couldn’t  ​3 rang…had switched off 3 1  had known…wouldn’t have told 2  would have gone…had invited 3  would have arrived…had left 4  asked…had studied 4 1 memorize  ​2 forgetful  ​3 memorial 5 1 engaged  ​ 2 ceremony  ​3 guests  ​4 groom 5 wedding dress  ​6 pageboy  ​ 7 bridesmaids 6 A -  B 3  C 2  D 1  E 5 7 1 T  2 D  3 T  4 F

Unit 10 1 1 we’ve been  ​2 Had you tried 3  does your brother do  ​4  didn’t go 5  you have 2 1 think…ought not  ​2 left…didn’t manage 3 will teach…am  ​4 told…had already sold 5  couldn’t…was working 3 1 pass  ​ 2 invigilator  ​3 take  ​ 4 multiple-choice 5 marks  ​ 6 cram  ​7 papers 4 1 biscuit  ​ 2 tap  ​3 underground/tube  ​ 4 toilet 5 football  ​6 rubbish 5 A 2  B 3  C -  D 1  E 4 6 1 F  2 T  3 D  4 F

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Intermediate Plus  Unit test answers

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ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

Progress tests answers Progress test 1

Exercise 7

Exercise 1

1 blurred

5 vacancies

1 healthier

6 sold it to me

2 package

6 sensible

2 have you

7 do

3 reapply

7 repellent

3 hers

8 had

4 moody

8 chain

4 still feel

9 has cut

Exercise 8

5 are always

10 since

1 sunbathe 2 closed

Exercise 2 1 pho

5 mer

3 grow

2 dap

6 ca

4 enlarge

3 a

7 cess

5 taking

4 en

8 sun

6 switch ​Exercise

Exercise 3 1 zoom 2 sitcoms 3 glamorous 4 stationer’s

9

1 colour

5 massage

2 apply

6 watched

3 screen

7 brother

4 creative

8 nickname

5 lambs

Exercise 10

6 qualification

1 B

Exercise 4

2 C 3 D

1 happier 2 apologize for

Exercise 11

3 their own

A 3

4 What’s its name?

B -

5 the biggest room

C 2

6 sends them to us

D 1

Exercise 5

Exercise 12

1 were having

5 Does…know

1 took part

2 did…use to live

6 changes

2 connected

3 passes

7 like

3 damage

4 haven’t seen

8 used to be

4 recognized 5 got

Exercise 6 1 cruise

5 an adaptor

2 Reality

6 landfill

3 reheat

7 round

4 unpacked

8 lens

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Intermediate Plus  Progress tests answers

77

ENGLISH FILE

Intermediate Plus

Progress test 2

Exercise 7

Exercise 1

1 ca

4 get

1 look it up

5 wasn’t able to

2 for

5 re

2 ought

6 hadn’t

3 ce

6 paint

3 not to download

7 this photo taken

Exercise 8

4 Does

8 shouldn’t

1 gas

4 garbage

2 vacation

5 sidewalk

1 to be able to

3 subway

6 cookie

2 giving

​Exercise

3 clean up

1 on

4 don’t have to

2 held

5 switched off

3 put

6 working

4 for

Exercise 3

5 uses

Exercise 2

9

6 made

1 interval, standard 2 circle, curtain

Exercise 10

3 avoided, cheated

1 wants me to see

4 score, warning

2 we should

5 failed, tried

3 his hair cut

Exercise 4

4 out with 5 leave work early

1 us use

6 it back

2 to get 3 remember to

Exercise 11

4 won’t help

1 C

5 have to go

2 A

6 my portrait painted

3 B

Exercise 5

Exercise 12

1 vinegar

5 cancel

A 1

2 broke

6 whistle

B 3

3 pour

7 tip

C -

4 give

8 tan

D 4

Exercise 6

Exercise 13

1 jug

1 travel to work

2 glue

2 now

3 fringe

3 now allowed

4 score

4 not working well

5 leader

5 affect

6 tap

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Intermediate Plus  Progress tests answers

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