CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards - Quizlet PDF [PDF]

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2/16/2019

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive)

1,220 terms

Jetpipe PLUS

Terms in this set (1220) What is the "Maximum

12,670 LBS Thrust

Thrust Rating" for a "Normal Takeoff"? What is the "Maximum

13,790 Lbs Thrust

Thrust Rating" for a takeoff using APR thrust? What type of engines

General Electric CF34-8C1 (old)

are on the CRJ 700?

General Electric CF34-8C5B1 (new)

The N1 Fan generates

80%

____% of the "Takeoff Thrust". The engines provide

6th and 10th Stages

what stages of bleed air? The engine driven

The "Accessory Gearbox".

generators are driven by what? What is the power

40 KVA

output of the "engine driven generators"?

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The "Accessory

1. Engine Driven Generators

Gearbox" drives what?

2. Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps. 3. Fuel Metering Unit (FMU). 4. FADEC Generator above 50% N2 5. The Air Turbine Starter actually drives the Accessory Gearbox during engine start.

The CRJ 700 is capable

M.81

of "Maintaining" what speed? What is the "Normal"

M.77

cruising speed of the CRJ 700? What is the "Maximum

41,000 feet

Operating Altitude"? What is the "Length

106' 8"

Overall" of the aircraft? What is the "Wingspan"

76' 3"

of the aircraft? What is the "Height of

24' 10"

the Tail" of the aircraft? What is the "Wing Tip"

6 feet

clearance height of the aircraft? How tall are the

4 feet

winglets? How much area is

14"

required in front of the nose to clear the tail during a 180 degree turn? The "Horizontal

Full UP: +13 Degrees

Stabilizer" markings on

Full Down: -2 Degrees

the tail indicate: FULL UP: ? / FULL DOWN:? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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How many emergency

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Total of 5 emergency exits.

exits are there on the aircraft and where are

1. Left Overwing exit (Row 13)

they?

2. Right Overwing exit (Row 13) 3. Main Cabin Door 4. Galley Service Door 5. Cockpit Escape Hatch

With the Radome

2 feet

"Closed", how far does the "Radar Hazard Area" extend in front of the nose? Which cargo

Both Forward and Aft compartments.

compartments are "Pressurized"? Which cargo

Only the AFT Compartment.

compartments are "Ventilated"? If you were to carry

AFT Cargo compartment only!

"Live Animals" which cargo compartment would you put them in? Is the Forward cargo

NO

compartment heated? Is the AFT cargo

YES

compartment heated? What features does the

Thermal insulation

cabin incorporate to

Acoustical insulation

reduce cabin noise?

Vibration isolators

How many water

2 water systems

systems are there and what are their names?

Galley Water System Lavatory Water System

Where on the aircraft

Galley Water System: Right / Forward Fuselage

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are the service panels

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Lavatory Water System: Right / Aft Fuselage

for the water systems? The Lavatory Water

Warm water to the sink basin.

System provides for what? Where is the "Lavatory

Beneath the cargo bay.

Water Tank" physically located on the aircraft? Is it possible to shutoff

YES ... Each system has a mechanically operated shutoff

the water supply to

valve to control water flow.

each individual water system?

Galley Water Shutoff: In the coat closet within the cockpit. Aft Lavatory Shutoff: Behind the toilet paper dispenser.

Does each water

Each system has a separate electric water pump to move

system have a separate

water from the tank to the water manifold. The water

water pump or is there

pump is only functional when there is "no bleed air" from

only one pump to

the engine or APU available. With bleed air available it

pressurize the system?

will pressurized the water systems. The forward galley water system is pressurized at all times (keeps a constant pressure). The Aft Lavatory water system is only pressurized when the faucet handle is depressed.

What maintains

Normally bleed air with the engines running.

pressure within each individual water

Each electric water pump has a pressure switch to

system?

maintain water system pressure when the engines are shut down.

How is the "Pressure

The water pump is activated when the faucet handle is

Switch" for the lavatory

pushed down.

water pump system activated? Are the water storage

YES ... Both tanks are heated to prevent freezing.

tanks heated for the https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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fresh water systems?

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

The aft water tank is also heated to provide hot water to the sink basin.

What components of

1. Drain Masts

the water systems are

2. Hose assemblies

heated?

3. Drain lines

What is meant if a

The respective water systems water temperature has

"OVHT" light is

exceeded 65 degrees C.

illuminated on the Potable Water Control Panel? How long will the

10 seconds

toilet flush motor operate when the lever is depressed? How is "waste water"

It is not stored. It is drained overboard through heated

from the Galley and

drain masts on the lower fuselage.

Lavatory water systems stored? What color is the

Green

"Water Level Indicators" if sufficient water quantity is onboard? What color is the

Amber

"Water Level Indicators" if the water quantity is low? Are the two (2) water

YES

system service panels identical? How many "Air

Two

Conditioning Packs"

Cabin Pack and Cockpit Pack

are there on the aircraft and what are their names?

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Where are the "Packs"

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Aft Equipment Bay

physically located on the aircraft? The "Cockpit Pack" is

Air Conditioning System Controller #1 (ACSC #1)

controlled by what? The "Cabin Pack" is

Air Conditioning System Controller #2 (ACSC #2)

controlled by what? In the event that one

It will automatically pick up the entire load and go to

(1) pack fails, what will

"FULL FLOW".

the remaining pack do? What is the purpose of

They control the "Packs" and conditioned air flow.

the "Air Conditioning System Controllers"? Each ACSC has two (2)

Channel A and Channel B

channels called ______ and _______. Are "both" Air

No

Conditioning System

Functional channel alternates on a daily basis. The

Controller channels

opposite channel is in "STBY" mode.

operating at all times? Channel "A": ODD Days Channel "B": EVEN Days Is there any cockpit

NO

indication of the active ACSC channel? Air Conditioning "Pack

Flow

Valves" are considered to be ________ control valves. Air Conditioning Pack

Electrically Controlled

Valves are _________

Pneumatically Operated

controlled, _________ operated. https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What is the purpose of

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

They Open / Close the associated Pack Valve.

the "Pack" switchlights on the Air Conditioning Panel? Normally the ACSC

1. Pressure Altitude

regulates the amount

2. Difference in Ambient Temperature.

of air flow through the packs dependent on what factors? At what times are the

During Engine Starts

Air Conditioning Packs "Fully Closed"?

- Pack resumes operation at "Starter Cutout".

If one (1) Air

Reduced Volume

Conditioning Pack fails, the remaining pack will supply conditioned air to both the flight deck and cabin but at a _________. If an Air Conditioning

1. The Pack Fault switchlight illuminates on the Air

"PACK FAULT" occurs,

Conditioning Panel.

how will it be

2. A "L/R PACK INOP" status message is displayed.

indicated? How many

Cockpit: 1

"temperature sensors"

Cabin: 2 (1 Forward and 1 Aft)

are there to control: Cockpit Temperature: ? Cabin Temperature: ? When does the "PULL

1. When the aircraft is on the ground only.

UP / PULL DOWN"

2. "Actual cabin temperature" is more than 10 degrees

feature of the

different from "Selected Temperature".

automatic temperature control take effect? What occurs with the

1. Packs go to "FULL FLOW".

"Packs" when the "PULL

2. Packs temperature operating limits increase.

UP / PULL DOWN" feature of the https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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automatic temperature control engages? If the "automatic"

By selecting either Left "MANUAL" switchlight or Right

temperature controller

"Manual" switchlight on the Air Conditioning Control

fails, how can the

Panel.

cabin and cockpit temperatures be

You must manually adjust pack output temperature using

regulated?

the toggle switches.

When using the

Allowing the pack output temperature to exceed limits

"Manual" mode to

(85 degrees C).

regulate cabin or cockpit temperature,

We are no longer allowed to operate the packs in the

what must you try to

manual mode "unless" the auto mode is inoperative!

avoid? Do not leave the aircraft unattended when operating the packs in the "manual" mode! At what temperature

85 degrees C

will the Air Conditioning Packs overtemp? If a pack "over temps",

1. The associated pack must be selected to "Off/Reset".

what must take place

2. Pack must cool.

for continued pack operation? Where is "RAM AIR"

Through a scoop on the top of the fuselage near the tail.

obtained from? What does "RAM AIR"

Cools the Heat Exchanger.

air flow provide for? Where does "RAM AIR"

Through louvers on the left and right / aft sides of the

exhaust to after

fuselage.

cooling the heat exchanger? During "ground

A fan automatically operates within the ram air scoop

operations" what

anytime the aircraft is on the ground and stationary.

augments the ram air flow to the pack heat exchangers? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What drives the fan

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Mechanically driven by the Air Cycle Machine.

within the RAM Air scoop? What is the purpose of

It will recirculate 34% of the cabin air back to the air

the Air Conditioning

conditioning system to increase heating and cooling

system "Mixing

efficiency.

Manifold"? Note: Recirc Fan must be selected "ON". When should

1. Only at "Low Altitudes" (Below 15,000')

"Emergency RAM Air"

2. Only when "both" Air Conditioning System Controllers

be used?

fail to function.

Does "RAM AIR" go

No ... It is directly connected to the ducting.

through the Air Conditioning Packs? The Maximum altitude

25,000 feet

for bleed air extraction from the APU is what? What controls the

Air Conditioning System Controllers

"automatic" bleed air source selection? How can the bleed

By selecting "Manual" on the rotary dial on the Bleed Air

source be controlled

Control Panel and then selecting the desired source.

"manually"? What does the caution

The APU has been manually selected as the bleed air

message "APU BLEED

source and the aircraft is above 25,000 feet.

ON" message indicate? What sources are

1. Engines

available for bleed air

2. APU

during "GROUND

3. External Air Cart

OPERATIONS"? When using "External

The Main Cabin Door or Galley Service Door must

Air" to ventilate the

remain open at all times to prevent the cabin from

cabin during ground

pressurizing.

operations, what https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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precautions must be observed? What cargo bays are

Forward and Aft

pressurized? What cargo bays are

Aft Cargo Bay only!

ventilated? What cargo bays are

Aft Cargo Bay only!

heated? At what times is

When smoke or fire is detected within the aft cargo bay.

ventilation of the AFT cargo bay inhibited? What must be "ON" to

Recirc Fan

ventilate the aft cargo bay? In order for the heater

The CARGO switch on the Air Conditioning Panel must

to work in the aft

be selected to "AIR".

cargo compartment which switch must be selected? If the conditioned air

1. The "INTAKE AND EXHAUST" valves in the aft cargo

switch for the aft cargo

compartment will close.

compartment is

2. The heater is de-energized.

selected to the "OFF" position, what happens? At what times will the

During an Aft Cargo compartment fire.

"electric heater" in the aft cargo compartment de-energize? If an EICAS message is

Select the cargo switch to "AIR" position.

displayed indicating that the aft cargo

Selecting the "AIR" position resets all related EICAS

heater is "OFF", how

messages!

can the message be removed? How many smoke

3 in the forward compartment

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detectors are there in the forward cargo compartment? How many smoke

2

detectors are there in the AFT cargo compartment? What must occur for

At least two (2) detectors must have detected smoke.

"SMOKE" to be indicated on the warning panel? If Smoke or Fire is

1. Intake SOV closes

detected in the AFT

2. Exhaust SOV closes

Cargo compartment

3. Heater is de-energized.

what will automatically happen? Prior to reaching the

1. Bleed Air is pre-cooled through the Pre-Cooler.

Air Conditioning Packs

2. Water is separated from the bleed air.

the bleed air goes

3. Bleed air is mixed with cooler ambient air to control

through three (3)

temperature.

phases. What are they? When do the Cabin

3 minutes after every landing.

Pressure Controllers (CPC's) alternate active controllers? What are the three (3)

1. Two (2) "AC powered" cooling Fans.

sources of cooling air

2. Recirc Fan

available to the EFIS

3. Cockpit air conditioning duct.

and EICAS displays? What is the function of

GND ALTN:

the four switch

Switches to the alternate fan if the Primary fan was to fail

positions on the AC

while on the ground.

powered cooling fans? FLT ALTN: Switches to the alternate fan if the Primary fan was to fail while in-flight. https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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NORM: Allows automatic selection of the appropriate fan. STBY: In the event that "BOTH" AC fans were to fail, selecting "STBY" would allow cockpit conditioned air to cool the CRT's. What is the purpose of

1. Dumps avionics cooling air overboard while on the

the "Ground Valve"?

ground for more efficient cooling. a. Requires the MCD or Galley Service Door to be open. 2. Ensures aircraft is depressurized while on the ground.

If an "OVBD COOL"

The "Ground Valve" has failed in the "OPEN" position with

message is displayed,

the MCD or Galley Service Door "Closed".

what is indicated? The "Cabin

8,000 foot

Pressurization System" will maintain a ______

41,000 feet

cabin altitude to ______ feet pressure altitude. Where is the "Outflow

On the Aft Pressure Bulkhead.

Valve" physically located on the aircraft? Where does the

Into the Aft Equipment Bay.

"Outflow Valve" dump the cabin pressure? How many Cabin

Two (2)

Pressure Controllers are there? Do the Cabin Pressure

Yes. Three (3) minutes after every landing.

Controllers alternate? Is it possible to know

YES. It is displayed on the ECS Synoptic page.

which "Cabin Pressure Controller" is active at any given time? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Is it possible to

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

YES

manually switch the active pressure

By pressing the "PRESS CONT" switchlight twice.

controller?

Pressing only once selects manual mode (if both pressure controllers fail). Pressing a second time switches the active controller.

What is the

CPAM "Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module"

"Microprocessor" built into the Cabin Pressure Control Panel called? What is the functions

1. Drops the passenger O2 masks above 14,000 feet

of the "Cabin Pressure

2. Controls Ground Valve "Opening and Closing".

Acquisition Module"?

3. Limits the cabin pressure to 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet.

At what altitude will

8,500 feet cabin altitude

you receive a "CABIN ALTITUDE" caution message? At what altitude will

10,000 feet cabin altitude

you receive a "CABIN ALTITUDE" warning message? At what altitude will

14,000 feet cabin altitude.

the passenger oxygen masks "automatically" drop? A "DIFF PRESS"

The differential pressure exceeds 8.6 psi.

warning message will occur when? Is the "Outflow Valve"

Electrically

controlled electrically or Pneumatically? How many motors are

Three (3)

there to drive the "Outflow Valve"? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Each of the three

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Each Cabin Pressure Controller operates one (1).

motors on the Outflow valve are controlled by

The manual cabin pressure control controls the third

what?

motor. The third motor may also be operated by pressing the "Manual Depress" switchlight.

Operating the cabin

Both Cabin Pressure Controllers must have failed.

pressure system in the "MANUAL" mode requires what? When operating the

1. Maintain a specific cabin altitude.

Cabin Pressure System

2. Control the rate of climb / descent.

in the manual mode you are able to do what? What is the normal

8.4 PSI

cabin differential pressure? Cabin Pressure

Above 8.6 PSI

"Overpressure Relief" occurs at what PSI? Cabin altitude "Under

- .5 PSI

Pressure Relief" occurs at what PSI? The Outflow valve is

Pneumatic pressure

"Spring Loaded Closed". What is required to "OPEN" it? What is indicated if the

1. "DIFF PRESS" warning is displayed on EICAS.

cabin differential

2. A Triple Chime aural warning is heard.

pressure exceeds the

3. Differential pressure digital readout on EICAS Status

overpressure limits?

page will turn RED. 4. PSI readout on ECS synoptic page will turn RED.

What indications will

There are no cockpit indications of an negative pressure

appear if a cabin

condition. The cabin simply indicates "un-pressurized".

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altitude "negative pressure" limit has been exceeded?

At what time will the

1. On the ground with either the MCD or Galley Service

"Ground Valve" open?

Door open. 2. Automatically following touchdown (weight on wheels). 3. When the "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight is pressed.

How long does it take

Normally 60 seconds.

the ground valve to "OPEN"?

Opens within 2 seconds if "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight is pressed.

The CPAM limits cabin

14,500 feet +/- 500 feet.

altitude so that it cannot exceed what altitude? What occurs during

Cabin altitude is brought back up to field elevation at

the "Takeoff Abort

500 fpm for 20 seconds and then the outflow valve will

Mode" with the cabin

fully "OPEN".

altitude? What occurs with the

The cabin altitude is pressurized to 150 feet below field

cabin pressurization

elevation to dampen pressure spikes during takeoff.

system during the "Pre-Pressurization Mode? What occurs with the

Departure field elevation is remembered for 10 minutes

cabin pressurization

following takeoff. If a return to field is accomplished the

system during the

cabin altitude will already be set.

"Flight Abort" mode? When is the "Descent

When the aircraft reaches "cruising altitude".

Mode" of the pressurization system automatically armed? At what rate will the

300 fpm.

cabin pressure

It may increase the rate if it determines it is required

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controller "normally"

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

when calculating the remaining flight time.

descend the cabin during approach and landing? When the "Manual

The 3rd motor on the outflow valve.

Mode" is selected on the cabin pressure control system, which motor are you actually powering? Pressing the "EMER

1. Powers the third motor on the outflow valve to "full

DEPRESS" switchlight

open".

will do what?

2. Opens the ground valve within 2 seconds at "High Speed". NOTE: Cabin altitude is limited to 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet by CPAM.

What is the Make and

Allied Signal RE220

Model of the APU? What is the "Primary

To provide AC power.

Function" of the APU? What is the "Secondary

To provide a backup Bleed Air Source.

Function" of the APU? The APU can supply

1. Engine Start

Bleed Air for what

2. Pressurization

purposes?

3. Air Conditioning

Under "High Demands"

Electrical Loads

what loads takes precedence on the

During times of High Demand the ECU will (in

APU?

conjunction with the ACSC) command the Load Control Valve (LCV) to close, therefore reducing the load on the APU.

What is the "Maximum

37,000 feet

Altitude" to Start the APU? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What is the "Maximum

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

41,000 feet

Operating Altitude" for the APU? What is the "Maximum

25,000 feet

Altitude" for engine start using the APU as the bleed air source? What is the "Maximum

25,000 feet

Altitude" for bleed air extraction from the APU? All faucets of APU

The APU ECU.

operation is controlled by what? The APU ECU controls

1. Recording Start Cycles.

what functions of the

2. Recording Operating Hours.

APU?

3. Sets up appropriate Fuel / Temperature schedules.

Is the APU ECU "AC" or

DC Powered

"DC" powered? Where is the APU

It is mounted in the "Tail Cone" of the aircraft.

physically installed on the aircraft? Where is the APU "Air

Right side of Aft Fuselage, just behind the right engine.

Intake Duct" located on the aircraft? At what times is the

1. During APU Start (On Ground Only).

APU "Air Intake Duct"

2. All Ground Operations.

fully open?

3. When inhibited "OPEN" by maintenance personnel.

The APU "Air Intake

1. APU air / oil heat exchanger operation.

Duct" splits the air into

- also used to cool APU compartment.

two separate flows to provide for what?

2. APU compressor flow.

APU "Exhaust Air" is

Eductor

expelled through the APU ______. https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Where does the APU

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

It has a self contained oil supply.

obtain its oil supply? The APU "Intake Door"

Variable Position

is considered a _____ position door. The amount that the

The APU ECU

APU "Intake Door" opens is controlled by _______. The amount that the

1. Mach speed

APU "Intake Door"

2. APU Speed

opens is dependant on

3. Weight On Wheels

what factors? Can the APU "Air

Yes, by maintenance personnel.

Intake Door" be overridden "Fully Open"? If the APU "Door

220 knots or the APU must be running.

Position" is unknown, what is the maximum speed allowed? Why does the APU

To prevent the APU from wind milling within the APU

have to be "running" if

"Critical Range" of 4% to 30 %.

the air intake door position is unknown? What is the APU's

4% to 30%

"Critical Operating Range"?

Below 4%: Insufficient heat is generated to cause damage. Above 30%: There is sufficient oil supply for lubrication and cooling.

The APU "Intake Door

Always

Position" is _______ displayed on the _______

Status

page of the EICAS. https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If the APU "Air Intake

The "DOOR OPEN / DOOR CLOSED" indication on the

Door Position" is

Status page of the EICAS will turn to amber dashes.

unknown, how will it be indicated? APU EGT indications

The EGT indication range will fluctuate with different

are displayed on the

operating conditions.

Status Page of the EICAS. Do these indications stay constant or are they flexible? How is the APU oil

Through a Air / Oil heat exchanger. Part of the air

cooled?

obtained through the Air Intake Door is utilized for cooling the oil through the heat exchanger.

Is there any cockpit

NO

indication showing that metal grindings are

There is a "Chip Detector" within the oil supply, however

within the APU oil

there is no cockpit indication showing its status.

system? An amber "APU FAULT"

1. APU oil Temperature is too low.

caution message is

2. APU oil Pressure is too low.

displayed for what reasons? Where does the APU

The Left Collector tank.

draw its fuel from? What is the purpose of

To deliver fuel from the left collector tank to the APU

the APU Fuel Pump?

High Pressure Fuel Pump and the Fuel Control Unit (FCU).

If the APU Fuel Pump

1. An internal bypass will "OPEN" and bypass the failed

fails what will happen?

pump. 2. The APU HP Fuel Pump will directly draw the fuel from the Left Collector tank.

What is the purpose of

It will shutoff the fuel supply to the APU in the event of a

the APU "Fuel Shutoff

fire or during normal shutdown of the APU.

Valve"? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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When does the APU

Anytime that the APU "POWER/FUEL" switchlight is

Fuel SOV become

pressed.

powered? When will the APU

When a APU FIRE is detected.

"Fuel Shutoff Valve" close automatically? How can the APU "Fuel

1. Pressing the "APU FIRE PUSH" switchlight.

Feed SOV" be

2. Pressing the APU "POWER/FUEL" switchlight.

manually closed? Will the APU

YES, unless the APU bleed air is being used for main

automatically

engine start.

shutdown while inflight if the APU EGT is high? Will the APU

Not if the APU is being used.

automatically shutdown while inflight for an "APU FAULT"? Will the APU

YES

automatically shutdown while on the ground for a "APU FAULT" caution message? Will the APU

YES

automatically shutdown while on the ground for an "EGT FAULT" caution message? An "EGT FAULT"

Thermocouple failure

caution message is an indication of what? The APU "Ground Auto

30 seconds after landing.

Shutdown Feature" is https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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enabled when? How long does it take

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

30 seconds

the "Apu Intake Door" to close after APU auto shutdown occurs? What is the purpose of

Allows for starting the APU when on "Battery Power

the APU's "Solenoid-

Only"

Operated" fuel shutoff valve? During APU start, at

5% APU RPM

what percent does the "Solenoid-Operated" fuel shutoff valve "OPEN"? The APU "Solenoid-

APU "START/STOP" switchlight.

Operated" Fuel shutoff valve is powered through what switch? Where is the APU EGT

From the APU exhaust.

temperature measured from? If the APU ECU senses

Drives the Load Control Valve (LCV) towards closed to

that the APU is "Over

reduce pneumatic loading. Electrical demands take

Temping" what does it

precedence!

automatically do? The APU "AIR INTAKE

GROUND: "POWER/FUEL" switchlight

DOOR" is powered

FLIGHT: "START/STOP" switchlight

"OPEN" through what switches? GROUND:? / FLIGHT:? During APU shutdown,

Below 25%

at what percent RPM does the APU Air Intake Door close? If the APU "Air Intake

YES

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Door" is "INHIBITED

Door status will indicate:

OPEN or CLOSED" by

"DOOR INHIBIT OPEN"

maintenance

"DOOR INHIBIT CLOSED"

personnel, is there any cockpit indication? What are the APU

3 start attempts in any 60 minute period with a 2 minute

starter "Duty Cycle

wait between attempts.

Limits"? At what times is the

GROUND: Above 7% RPM

APU start "INHIBITED"

FLIGHT: Above 12% RPM

by the ECU? GROUND:? / FLIGHT:? What is the "Minimum

22 Volts on both the Main and APU batteries.

Battery Voltage" required for APU start? If the APU "Flames

The APU will try to "Auto-Relight" itself down to 12%

Out" what will

RPM.

happen? What is the maximum

12% RPM

APU wind milling RPM allowed for engaging the starter on the APU while in-flight? What is the maximum

7% RPM

APU wind milling RPM allowed for engaging the starter while on the ground? At what times will the

1. During an APU Fire.

APU "Auto Shutdown"

2. High EGT (unless the APU is being used for main

while in-flight?

engine start).

What is the APU Start

Press "PWR/FUEL" switchlight

Sequence of events

- APU RPM & TGT gauges are displayed on EICAS

while on the

- Activates the ECU

GROUND?

- Opens the APU Air Intake door (on ground only) - Starts a Pre-Bite test

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- Opens fuel SOV Press "START/STOP" switchlight - Starter engages - At 5% RPM: Fuel and Ignition is energized - At 50% RPM: 1. Starter cuts out (46% to 60%) 2. "APU Start Message" disappears - At 99% RPM: Ignition Stops - At 99% + 2 seconds: "AVAILABLE" switchlight illuminates indicating that the APU is ready for "electrical" loading. How does the APU

The APU Intake door "OPENS" as a function of the

"Start Sequence" differ

"START/STOP" switchlight rather than the "PWR/FUEL"

when In-flight from

switchlight. This allows the ECU to control the amount

that on the ground?

that the APU Intake Door opens while in-flight.

From what "External

1. External Service Panel

Locations" can the

2. From within the APU compartment inside the tail.

APU be shutdown in the event of an emergency? During APU

1. Power is removed from the ECU.

"Shutdown", what

2. Power is removed from the Apu Fuel Pump.

occurs after pressing

3. Power is removed from the Fuel Shutoff Valve (SOV).

the "PWR/FUEL"

4. RPM and EGT indications disappear after 30 seconds.

switchlight? Pressing the APU

1. Activate the ECU.

"PWR/FUEL"

2. Powers the "APU Fuel Pump".

switchlight during APU

3. Opens the "APU FUEL SOV".

start will:

4. Opens the Air Intake door (within 10 seconds). a. On Ground Only! 5. Starts a Pre-Start BITE test. a. Displays status message for 5 seconds. 6. Displays the APU RPM/TGT indications on EICAS Status Page.

Pressing the "APU Start

Sends a false over speed signal (106%) to shut down the

Switchlight" a 2nd time

APU.

will: https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Bleed air is available

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

On Ground: 99% + 60 seconds

from the APU when: On Ground? / In

In Flight: 99% + 2 seconds

Flight? NOTE: The packs will take up to 1 minute to come on following APU start due to this time constraint. What will automatically

1. APU Fire Bell Sounds

happen if a fire is

2. APU Fire Warning is displayed on EICAS

detected in the APU

3. APU Shuts down

while "ON THE

4. After 5 seconds the APU Fire bottle will discharge

GROUND"?

a. The APU fire bottle discharge may be inhibited if you push the "APU FIRE" switchlight within the 5 seconds.

What will automatically

1. APU Fire Bell Sounds

happen if a fire is

2. APU Fire warning is displayed on EICAS

detected in the APU

3. APU automatically shuts down

while "IN FLIGHT"?

4. "APU FIRE PUSH" switchlight illuminates 5. "APU BOTTLE ARM TO DISC" switchlight illuminates once the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight is selected. NOTE: The APU fire bottle does not automatically discharge while in-flight!

How long after starting

GROUND: 1 minute (99% + 60 seconds)

the APU is required before a RTL (ready to

FLIGHT: 99% + 2 seconds

load) signal is sent to the ACSC indicating that bleed air is available? How can the pilot

Select "Manual" position on the Bleed Air Control Panel.

"manually" open the Load Control valve on the APU? What is required to

Pneumatic bleed air pressure.

"OPEN" the Load Control Valve? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Following APU start,

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99% RPM + 2 seconds

when is bleed air available to the ACSC while "In-flight"?

When will Bleed Air

1. Weight Off Wheels

"Auto Switching" back

2. Thrust levers are retarded out of Takeoff position.

to the engines occur

3. Gear is up

following takeoff?

4. Flaps less than 20 degrees.

When will bleed air

1. APU Running

"Auto Switching" occur

2. Gear is down

back to the APU on

3. "or" Flaps are greater than 20 degrees

landing? The APU generator is

40 KVA to 41,000 feet

rated at what power and altitude? What is the purpose of

It dampens electrical surges from the APU when the

the "Surge Control

APU is "Unloaded".

Valve" and at what altitude does it

It will automatically come "ON" above 17,000 feet when

automatically

the APU is supplying electrical power.

function? Pressing the "APU Fire"

1. Shuts down the APU.

switchlight will:

2. Trips the APU generator off line. 3. Closes the APU Load Control Valve (LCV). 4. Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve. 5. Arms the APU Bottle to discharge into the APU.

The APU fire bottle will

The aircraft is on the ground and a fire has been

only discharge

detected.

"automatically" when: NOTE: Apu fire bottle will discharge 5 seconds after APU shutdown. It takes 5 seconds to close the Intake door. What is the purpose of

It integrates the "Autopilot" and "Flight Director"

the AFCS system?

together.

Where does the AFCS

1. Flight Directors

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system supply

2. Autopilot

information to?

3. Autopilot Pitch Trim 4. Yaw Dampers

What does the term

Integrated Avionics Processing System

"IAPS" stand for? What is the function of

It provides the interface between various avionics

the "IAPS" system?

systems.

What is the "Main

Flight Control Computer #1 and Flight Control Computer

Processors" for the

#2

IAPS system?

(FCC1 and FCC2)

The "Flight Control

1. Flight Control Panel (FCP)

Computers" receive

2. Data Concentrator Units (DCU's)

information from what

3. Radio Systems

sources?

4. Flight Management Computers (FMC's)

Are both Flight

Usually not - One is active and the other is in "Standby

Directors always

Mode". When in the following modes they work

active?

together: 1. Takeoff Mode 2. Approach Mode 3. Go-Around Mode

What appears if the

A red boxed "FD" appears on the PFD. An appropriate

"Active Flight Director"

white status message "FD 1 FAIL" or "FD 2 FAIL" will also

fails?

appear on EICAS.

What would be the

Select the transfer button on the FCP to select the

appropriate action to

opposite flight director.

take if FD #1 displays failed? At what times do

In the following modes:

"Both" Flight Directors become active and

1. Takeoff Mode

supply guidance?

2. Approach Mode 3. Go Around Mode

When the Flight

Flight Control Computer #1

Directors are operating https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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"Independently" What supplies guidance to the "Captain's" Flight Director?

The "left side" of the

ACTIVE

FMA is considered the ______ field. The "right side" of the

ARMED

FMA is considered the ______ field. The "top line" of the

Lateral Mode

FMA indicates what mode? The "bottom line" of

Vertical Mode

the FMA indicates what mode? What is the meaning of

Data is invalid

a "red horizontal line" running through the active mode of the FMA? The "active field text"

5 seconds

will flash green for _____ seconds while capturing. The "Flight Control

1. Flight Director / Course Selector

Panel" on the

2. Autopilot

glareshield is divided

3. Vertical Modes

into four (4) modes.

4. Lateral Modes

What are they? What do the "green"

That the respective Flight Control Computer has

status lights on each

acknowledged the request.

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Flight Control Panel mean? Is it possible to turn

NO

"OFF" the Flight Director with the autopilot engaged? Selecting the Flight

Active Side:

Director pushbutton

It will remove the Flight Director command bars on

on the Flight Control

"BOTH" sides.

Panel will cause what to happen?

Standby Side:

Active Side:? / Standby

It will remove the Flight Director command bars from

Side:?

that side only!

Pressing the "center" of

Sets 0 degrees deviation to the tuned station.

the Course Select Knob on the Flight Control Panel will do what? What is the purpose of

Allows the pilot to select the active Flight Director.

the "Flight Director Transfer Switch"? What indication is on

A white arrow.

the PFD to tell the pilot which Flight Director is selected as active? What do the green

It indicates which "Flight Control Computer" is providing

status lights on each

information to the Autopilot.

side of the "XFER" switchlight on the

If no "green" lights are visible then the captain's side is

Flight Control Panel

active.

indicate? If there is a "green" light on each side of the pushbutton then the First Officers flight director is active. When will the Flight

Only when the autopilot is disengaged.

Director "SYNC" switch operate? How long will the

3 seconds or as long as the button is held down.

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"SYNC" message appear on the PFD when the Flight Director SYNC switch is pressed? Selecting the TOGA

1. Updates the FMS with the current runway coordinates.

switch on the thrust

2. Activates the "Takeoff" lateral and vertical modes.

levers will do what

3. Lateral mode goes to "Heading Hold" with a 5 degree

while on the ground?

bank authority. 4. Selects a variable Pitch up mode. 5. Displays "TO" in the "Active" field of the FMA.

What is the default

ROLL

"lateral mode" when selecting the autopilot "ON"? What is the default

PITCH

"vertical mode" when selecting the autopilot "ON"? What will happen to

If the aircraft's bank is less than 5 degrees the aircraft will

the aircraft bank if the

roll wings level. If the aircraft's bank is greater than 5

autopilot is engaged

degrees the current bank angle is maintained.

during a gradual turn? What occurs when you

The "Heading Bug" will sync to the current aircraft's

press the center of the

heading.

"Heading Select" knob on the Flight Control Panel? What "NAV SOURCES"

1. VOR

may be selected on

2. LOC

the Air Data Reference

3. FMS

Panel? "Localizer Capture" will

1. 1/2 Bank Mode

automatically disarm

2. Turbulence Mode

what modes?

3. Heading Mode

What does selecting

Restricts the aircrafts bank angle to 15 degrees.

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the "1/2 Bank Mode" do? When does the "1/2

Above 31,600 feet.

Bank" mode "automatically" engage? Is it possible to de-

YES, by selecting the 1/2 Bank pushbutton.

activate "1/2 Bank Mode" when above 31,600 feet? "1/2 Bank" selection is

1. Takeoff

not available in what

2. Approach

modes?

3. Go-Around

How is altitude capture

A flashing green "ALTS" message in the FMA.

indicated on the

Only occurs when within 100 feet of selected altitude.

Primary Flight Display? If another altitude is

"ALT" (Altitude Hold)

selected in the altitude "Pre-Select" what does the "ALTS" change to? At what times will the

1. 1,000 feet prior to reaching altitude.

"Altitude Alert"

2. Deviations of more than 300 feet from selected

function sound tones?

altitude. 3. Deviations of more than 1,000 feet causes the altitude bugs and digital altitude readout to "Flash" amber.

When the "TOGA"

Single Engine: Approx. 10 degrees pitch up

button is pressed, what pitch indication will

Two Engine: Approx. 15 degrees pitch up

you receive during a go-around? Single Engine:? / Two Engine:? The Pitch mode of the

1. Pressing the "speed button" 3 times.

Flight Control Panel

2. Manually moving the Pitch wheel.

may be engaged by

3. Automatically engages the pitch mode if no other mode is selected when the autopilot is turned "ON".

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what different Each "click" of the methods?

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

1/2 degree pitch change

manual pitch wheel will adjust the pitch command bars by how much? Repeatedly pressing

1. IAS

the "SPEED" button on

2. Climb or Descent (depending on whether the selected

the Flight Control

altitude is above or below you).

Panel will cycle

3. Pitch

between what modes? After a new "Pre-

If the selected altitude is "ABOVE" your current altitude

Select" altitude is

"CLB" is automatically selected. If the selected altitude is

selected, the

"BELOW" you current altitude "DES" is automatically

"CLM/DES Mode" will

selected.

indicate what? Each "click" of the

Pitch Mode: 1/2 degree

"Manual Pitch Wheel"

Vertical Speed Mode: 100 feet per minute

on the Flight Control Panel will adjust the pitch by how much? Pitch MODE:? / Vertical Speed Mode:? At what point does

31,600 feet

changeover from IAS to MACH automatically occur? What "manual" method

Press the center of the "SPEED" pushbutton on the Flight

can be used to

Control Panel.

changeover from IAS to MACH? What will happen if

The mode will automatically switch to "IAS MODE" and

descending in "Vertical

the aircraft will automatically pitch up to reduce its

Speed Mode" and an

speed.

over speed condition occurs?

Mode indicator on the FMA will flash "amber" and the over speed clacker will sound.

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What is required to

1. Both Flight Control Computers must be operational.

"Engage" the

2. At least one (1) yaw damper operational and engaged.

autopilot?

3. At least one (1) Stab Channel engaged. 4. No faults in the Stab Trim System. 5. No significant instability with the aircraft. 6. Autopilot "Disconnect Bar" is "UP" on the FCP.

The autopilot may be

1. Selecting the "Disconnect Bar" on the FCP "OFF".

dis-engaged by what

2. Pressing the "ENGAGE" button on the FCP.

means?

3. Pressing the "Autopilot Disconnect" switch on yoke. 4. Activation of the stab trim split switches. 5. Pressing the "YAW DAMPER DISC" button. 6. Pressing the "TOGA" button on thrust levers.

The autopilot will

1. Stall Warning (stick shaker)

"automatically"

2. Windshear warning (after 2 seconds)

disconnect when what

3. Failure of both yaw dampers

occurs? If you advance the

70%

thrust levers beyond _____% during takeoff without a "Takeoff Config OK" advisory message you will receive an aural alert as well as a status message. What components

1. Flaps / Slats

must be configured

2. Aileron Trim

correctly to receive a

3. Rudder Trim

"Takeoff Config OK"

4. Stabilizer Trim

advisory message?

5. Spoilers 6. Parking Brake 7. Autopilot

If an "Out of Trim"

An amber boxed "E" or "A" symbol is displayed on the

condition occurs with

Primary Flight Display.

the autopilot engaged, what indication is

An EICAS message is generated.

displayed? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What is the purpose of

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

It reduces the autopilot gain.

the "Turbulence" pushbutton on the Flight Control Panel?

At what times is the

1. Takeoff Mode

"Turbulence Mode"

2. Approach Mode

automatically

3. Go-Around Mode

disabled? Pressing the "AP/SP"

1. Automatically disengages the autopilot.

switch on the yoke will

2. Disables the stick pusher for as long as the switch is

do what?

held down.

How long is the audio

5 seconds

warning heard when the autopilot is disconnected using the "AP/SP" switch on the yoke? What is the function of

It provides the "Interface" between the different

the "Audio Integrating

communications system components.

System"? Are the "Audio Control

Yes, however the "Observers Panel" does not have all the

Panels"

same functions as the pilot's and co-pilot's panels.

interchangeable? Do the "Audio

NO

Warnings" go through the "Audio Control Panels"? Is the audio warnings

NO

volume adjustable? Is it necessary to press

NO

the "receive" button on

Receive function is automatically enabled.

the Audio Control Panel when the transmitter is selected to that radio? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What is the purpose of

It allows you to receive "voice only" or "voice and

the "Voice / Both"

identifier" when verifying navigational radio signals.

switch on the Audio Control Panels?

What functions are

1. Overhead Speaker is inoperative.

"disabled" on the

2. Norm/Emergency switch is disabled.

"Observers" Audio Control Panel? What is the purpose of

It will bypass the Audio Control Panels features.

the "EMER/NORM"

Aural warnings do not go through the Audio Control

switch on the Audio

Panel!

Control Panels? Directly connects: CAPTAIN's: NAV #1 / COMM #1 F.O's: NAV #2 / COMM #2 The Interphone

1. Flight Deck

System connects what

2. Both Flight Attendant Panels

locations?

3. External Service Panel 4. Re-Fuel / De-Fuel Panel 5. Aft Equipment Bay 6. Avionics Bay

The PA systems

1. Either engine is running

"volume" goes to

2. APU is running

"HIGH" automatically when what occurs? What is the "Priority"

1. Captain

order for transmitting

2. First Officer

over the PA System?

3. Flight Attendants

What other function

It provides the logic for chimes and lights associated

does the PA System

with the flight deck and cabin calls.

provide other than direct communications? The "Interphone

1. PA

Control Panel" has four

2. CALL

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(4) switchlights, what

3. CHIME

are they labeled? What type of chime

4. EMER High / Low

does the "CHIME" switchlight produce when pressed? Of the four (4)

CHIME

switchlights on the Interphone Control Unit (ICU) one is not lighted. Which one is it? The "CALL" switchlight

High / Low

produces what type of chime when pressed? In order to activate the

The "Transmit Select" switch on the Audio Control Panel

"EMER" switchlight on

must be selected to "PA" position first.

the Interphone Control Unit what must occur? When the "EMER"

1. Causes the switchlights to flash in both the cockpit and

pushlight is pressed on

"Both" Flight attendant panels.

the Intercom Control

2. A High / Low "Triple chime" will sound.

Unit what indications

3. Illuminates the "Flashing Red Light" on the mid-cabin

appear in the cabin?

overhead emergency exit sign.

When the "NO

Low Chime

SMOKING" or "FASTEN SEATBELT" signs are selected "ON", what type of chime is heard in the cabin? What occurs when the

It will sound a chime in the External Service Panel and

"Mechanic" switchlight

illuminate the Mechanic call switchlight for 30 seconds

is pressed on the

only.

Ground Prox Test panel? What are the Primary

Remote Transmitting Units (RTU's)

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Radio Frequency Controllers? What frequencies can

1. Comm Frequencies

be changed from both

2. NAV Frequencies

the RTU's and the FMS

3. ADF Frequencies

radio page?

4. Transponder Codes

The Captain's RTU

1. COMM #1

controls what

2. NAV #1

frequencies?

3. ADF #1 4. Optional COMM #3

The First Officer's RTU

1. COMM #2

controls what

2. NAV #2

frequencies?

3. ADF #2 4. HF Radio

How do you turn the

You cannot turn them off.

RTU's "OFF"?

They are powered anytime that AC Power is available to the aircraft.

What two (2) pages

1. TOP Page

can be displayed on

2. MAIN Page

the RTU's? What is the purpose of

It allows you to individually control the features of the

the "MAIN" page of

selected COMM or NAV radio.

the RTU's? If the Main page is

20 seconds

selected and nothing is entered, how long before the main page reverts back to the TOP page on the RTU's? The RTU's are capable

1. Active frequency

of displaying three (3)

2. Recall frequency

different types of

3. Pre-select frequency

frequency presentations. What are they? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If the "squelch" is

A "SQ OFF" message is displayed on the "TOP PAGE" of

selected "OFF" through

the RTU.

the RTU, how is it indicated?

What is the purpose of

It provides reversionary control of the RTU's in the event

the "Backup Tuning

that "Both RTU's" were to fail or complete electrical

Unit" (BTU)?

failure.

What is displayed on

Screen goes black.

the RTU screen if it were to fail? If the #1 RTU were to

You would have to select the "INHIBIT" switch on the

fail how could NAV #1,

BTU for the respective RTU. This will allow "Cross Side

COM #1, ADF #1

Tuning" from the opposite sides RTU. Cross Side tuning is

frequencies be

not functional "if the RTU fails" unless the "INHIB" switch

changed?

is selected for the failed RTU.

What powers the

It is powered through the "Battery Bus". It remains

Backup Tuning Unit"

powered anytime that the Battery Master is selected

(BTU)?

"ON".

During "Normal

Standby

Operations" the Backup Tuning Unit is selected to what mode? What frequencies will

NAV #1 and COMM #1

the Backup Tuning Unit "duplicate" when selected to the standby mode? How is "Cross Side

The selected data will display as "Amber".

Tuning" indicated? What is the purpose of

When selected to "OFF" it takes away the FMS ability to

the FMS "TUNE

auto tune DME channel #1. It will still auto tune channels

INHIBIT" toggle

2 and 3.

switch? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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How would you

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Transmit over the #2 VHF radio on SELCALL frequency.

"cancel" a "SELCAL VHF 2" status message displayed on the EICAS?

The cockpit voice

1. Captain's Voice

recorder will record

2. First Officer's Voice

four (4) different

3. Area Microphone

channels of

4. Mixed PA and Observer's voice

communications. What are they? The "Underwater

30 days

locator" feature of the cockpit voice recorder will activate for how long? When is the cockpit

As soon as electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

voice recorder activated? The "Cockpit Voice

120 minutes (2 hours)

Recorder" will record data for how long? Where is the Cockpit

In the AFT tail section of the aircraft.

Voice Recorder physically located? What will happen

Electrical power is automatically removed to prevent

"upon impact" to the

accidental erasure.

cockpit and data voice recorders? When is the "Flight

1. Beacon "ON"

Data Recorder"

2. Strobes "ON"

automatically

3. Weight Off Wheels

powered? How much data will

Last 25 hours

the "Flight Data https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Recorder" record? The underwater

30 days

locating device on the "Flight Data Recorder" will function for how long? What is the function of

It will put a DATE/TIME stamp on the recording for later

the "FDR EVENT"

review by maintenance personnel.

button? An EICAS message is displayed when the button is selected. Where is the "ELT"

Aft tail section.

physically located on the aircraft? If the ELT is actually

An "ELT ON" amber caution message is displayed on

transmitting a signal,

EICAS.

how is it known? DC current is provided

1. Main Battery

by what sources?

2. APU Battery 3. TRU's (4)

AC and DC electrical

Electrical Power Control Panel

systems are controlled from what panel? How many Circuit

Five Circuit Breaker Panels

Breaker panels are there and where are

CB Panel #1: Behind Captain's seat

they located?

CB Panel #2: Behind First Officer's Seat CB Panel #3: Aircraft Nose Compartment CB Panel #4: Aft Equipment Bay CB Panel #5: Location unknown!

CB Panel #1 services

1. AC Bus #1

include what?

2. DC Bus #1 3. Battery Bus 4. AC Essential Bus 5. DC Emergency Bus

CB Panel #2 services

1. AC Bus #2

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include what?

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

2. DC Bus #2 3. AC Service Bus 4. DC Service Bus 5. DC Utility Bus 6. DC Essential Bus 7. Battery Bus

The Engine Driven AC

Independent Drive Generators (IDG's)

generators are know as _________. The Independent

1. Act as a constant speed drive

Drive Generators serve

2. 40 KVA AC Electrical Generator

two (2) functions. What are they? The engine driven AC

115 / 200 VAC

generators provide:

3 Phase Power

___ VAC / ____ Phase

400 HZ

Power / ____ HZ How may the IDG's be

By pressing the "IDG DISC" switchlight on the Electrical

disconnected from the

Power Panel.

accessory gearbox? Once the IDG has

Only by maintenance personnel while on the ground.

been "disconnected", how may it then be reconnected? The IDG's provide ____

40 KVA Power to 41,000 feet

KVA power to _____ feet. Overload protection is

45 KVA for 5 minutes

provided from the IDG's. What are the

60 KVA for 5 seconds

overload limits? Independent Drive

The accessory gearbox.

Generators are driven by what? How can you verify

On the electrical synoptic page the IDG is surrounded

IDG disconnect once

by a white box and "DISC" is displayed beneath it.

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switchlight has been pressed? What faults will cause

1. IDG Overheat

the IDG switchlight to

2. Low Oil Pressure

illuminate? If the "electrical

1. A mechanical disconnect will occur when the IDG

disconnect" fails to

reaches a pre-determined internal temperature.

disconnect the IDG for whatever reason, what

2. The shaft will shear if the bearings begin to seize up.

other features will disconnect the IDG? Generator fault

1. Under Voltage / Over Voltage

protection is provided

2. Under Frequency / Over Frequency

for what?

3. Generator and Bus Over Current 4. Generator Phase Sequence

The "Generator

1. Bus Priority

Control Units" provide

2. Fault Protection

for what? What occurs when the

The respective generator is tripped "OFF-LINE".

Generator Control Unit detects a fault? When does the AC

Anytime that a bus becomes unpowered. When

"APU generator"

operating it will pick up the load on "ALL FAILED BUSES".

provide power to the aircraft? The APU generator is

40 KVA

rated to _____ KVA to ______ feet.

41,000 feet

The "External Service

AC 6 PIN power only!

Panel" allows for what type of external power to be applied to the aircraft? Where is the "External

Right / Forward Nose of the aircraft.

Services Panel"

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located on the What controls and aircraft?

External Power Monitor (EPM)

regulates the external power input? What indication will

Green "AVAILABLE" light illuminates on the cockpit

you receive in the

Electrical Panel.

cockpit if external power is plugged into the aircraft and the EPM senses that the power is within parameters? Selecting the green

All unpowered buses.

"AVAILABLE" switchlight "ON" on the electrical panel will enable the external power to power what buses? What is the "Priority"

1. Engine Driven Generators (IDG's)

for power to operate

2. APU Generator

the aircraft systems?

3. External Power

If the green

External Power is "not within parameters".

"AVAILABLE" light does not illuminate on the electrical control panel with external power applied, what would be suspected? Once the green

The switchlight will indicate "IN USE" (White).

"AVAILABLE" switchlight is pressed, what will then indicate on the Electrical Control Panel? With "External Power"

The white "IN USE" switchlight will change and indicate

powering the aircraft,

green "AVAILABLE" again.

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what will happen when an engine driven

The engine driven generator will pick up the entire

generator comes "ON-

electrical load.

LINE"? How may the "AC

By pressing the "AC" switchlight on the "External Service

Service Bus" be

Panel".

powered? What is the purpose of

It will power the "AC Service Bus".

the "AC" switchlight on the "External Service

This supplies power to the electrical outlets within the

Panel"?

cabin and lavatory for aircraft cleaning purposes. Also provides power to the "APU Battery Charger".

If the "AC" pushbutton

It will override the AC pushlight on the External Service

is selected "IN" on the

Panel and power all of the AC buses.

External Service Panel, what will happen if the "AVAILABLE" switchlight is depressed from within the cockpit on the Electrical Control Panel? The "AC Service Bus" is

AC Bus #2

normally powered by what other bus? By what other means

By selecting the "AC" switchlight on the External Service

may the "AC Service

Panel with external AC applied.

Bus" be powered? What are the four (4)

1. AC Bus #1

main AC Buses?

2. AC Bus #2 3. Essential AC Bus 4. AC Service Bus

What power source

Generator #1

"Normally" powers AC Bus #1?

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What power source

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Generator #2

"Normally" powers AC Bus #2? What power source

AC Bus #1

"Normally" powers the AC Essential Bus? What power source

AC Bus #2

"normally" powers the AC Service Bus? If AC Bus #1 becomes

It will automatically transfer to AC Bus #2.

"Unpowered", what happens to the Essential AC Bus? If AC Bus #1 "FAILS"

Select the "AC ESS XFER" switchlight on the Electrical

and the Essential AC

Control Panel "IN" to manually transfer the Essential AC

Bus does not

Bus to AC Bus #2.

automatically transfer to AC Bus #2, what can be done? What is the power

1. Generator #1

source "priority" for AC

2. APU Generator

Bus #1 as assigned by

3. Generator #2

the "Automatic Transfer

4. External AC

System"? What is the power

1. Generator #2

source "priority" for AC

2. APU Generator

Bus #2 as assigned by

3. Generator #1

the "Automatic Transfer

4. External AC

System"? If one generator was

The remaining generator would power all of the ships

to "fail" with the APU

buses.

generator "OFF", what would occur? What would occur if a

The buses associated generator would "Trip Off-Line".

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occur on either AC Bus #1 or AC Bus #2? Once a bus "Faults"

Restoring a "Faulted Bus" requires you to completely

how can power be

power down the aircraft and then re-power again to

restored to that bus

clear the fault.

again?

What is the purpose of

It will "Isolate" the associated bus from the automatic

the "Manual Transfer

transfer system. This is a checklist item used in the event

Inhibit" switchlight?

of isolating a electrical fire.

What will happen to

The ADG will automatically power the Essential AC Bus.

the "Essential AC Bus" if the ADG deploys? Following ADG

Push the "Power TXFR Override" button on the ADG

deployment, if a ships

Control Panel to transfer the Essential AC Bus back to

generator once again

the priority system. This prevents load shedding the bus

becomes operational

below 135 kts during landing.

what must be done? When will the ADG

1. Any ships generator must have been On-Line for 3.45

"automatically"

seconds.

deploy?

2. AC Bus #1 and AC Bus #2 becomes un-powered (below 50 Volts). 3. Weight Off Wheels (airborne).

If the ADG fails to

By manually pulling the ADG handle on the lower

deploy automatically,

pedestal.

how else can it be deployed? Once deployed the

1. Hydraulic Pump 3B

ADG will power what?

2. Flaps and Slats (Above 140 kts) 3. Essential AC Bus (Above 135 kts) 4. Pitch Trim (Above 108 kts)

The ADG generator,

15 KVA

when deployed,

400 HZ

produces _____ KVA _____ HZ power. When will the

Essential AC Bus: Below 135 kts

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following "Load Shed"

HYD Pump 3B: Never

during approach when

Flaps / Slats: Below 140 kts

the ADG is deployed?

Pitch Trim: Below 108 kts

Essential AC Bus / HYD Pump 3B / Flaps / Slats / Pitch Trim To prevent the ADG

Flaps and Slats: 140 kts

from "Stalling" the

Pitch Trim: 108 kts

aircraft must be configured by what speed? How does the ADG

It is a "direct cable connection" to the "up-locks" for the

"pull handle" deploy

ADG.

the ADG? What are the aircraft's

1. Main Battery

sources of DC power?

2. APU Battery 3. Four TRU's a. Essential TRU #1 b. Essential TRU #2 c. TRU #1 d. TRU #2

There are nine (9) DC

1. DC Bus #1

Buses. See how many

2. DC Bus #2

you can name!

3. DC Essential Bus 4. DC Service Bus 5. DC Utility Bus 6. DC Direct Battery Bus 7. DC Emergency Bus 8. Main Battery Direct Bus 9. APU Battery Direct Bus

Each TRU is rated at

120 amps

______ amps. Where are the TRU's

In the "Nose Compartment".

physically located on the aircraft?

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What is the primary

1. To provide battery power for APU Start.

function of the APU

2. To provide "Backup DC Power".

Battery? What is the primary

To provide "Backup DC Power" only!

function of the MAIN Battery? Where is the "MAIN

Nose Compartment with the TRU's.

Battery" physically located on the aircraft? Where is the "APU

In the AFT Equipment Bay.

Battery" physically located on the aircraft? Which is the largest of

APU Battery

the two (2) batteries? The APU battery is

43 amps

rated at _____ amps. The MAIN battery is

17 amps

rated at ____ amps. How are the batteries

Each battery has its own battery charger. The battery

charged?

chargers are not shown on the electrical synoptic page unless there is a problem.

When are the "Battery

Anytime that there is AC power applied to the aircraft.

Chargers" powered? With only the AC Service Bus powered through the external service panel, only the APU battery charger will be powered! How long can the

30 minutes

batteries provide power to the aircraft in the event of total electrical failure? The aircraft battery

1. Battery temp exceeds 65 degrees.

chargers will

2. Cell imbalance of 1 volt.

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automatically

3. Shorted temperature sensor

shutdown when?

4. Shorted imbalance sensor 5. Loss of AC power input 6. Charger Failure.

Through which circuit

CB Panel #1 (Behind Captain's seat)

breaker panel is DC Bus #1 controlled? Through which circuit

CB Panel #2 (Behind First Officer's seat).

breaker panel is DC Bus #2 controlled? What does the "DC

1. NAV Lights

SERVICE BUS" power?

2. Toilet Motor and Waste System 3. Selected Passenger Cabin Lighting

What ways can the

1. Anytime that AC Power is available to the aircraft.

"DC Service Bus" be powered?

2. By selecting the "DC SERVICE" toggle switch "ON" from the Electrical Control Panel.

What is the purpose of

It powers non-essential systems.

the "DC Utility Bus"? Automatically load sheds anytime that "Main Bus Tie" closes. When will the "MAIN

Anytime that TRU #1 "OR" TRU #2 fails.

BUS TIE" automatically close? What automatically

The DC Utility Bus is "Load Shed".

occurs anytime that the DC "MAIN TIE" closes? What items are

Items which are critical to flight.

powered through the "DC ESSENTIAL BUS"? What items are

Emergency services:

powered through the DC "EMERGENCY

1. Engine and APU Fuel Shutoff Valves

BUS"?

2. Engine Hydraulic Shutoff Valves 3. Fire Extinguisher Circuits

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What are the names of

1. MAIN TIE

the "DC BUS TIE's"?

2. ESSENTIAL TIE 3. CROSS TIE

When does the DC

Failure of TRU #1 "or" TRU #2.

"MAIN TIE" automatically close? When does the DC

Failure of Essential TRU #1 "or" Essential TRU #2.

"ESSENTIAL TIE" automatically close? When does the DC

Multiple TRU failures.

"CROSS TIE" automatically close? Are the DC Bus Ties

NO

controlled by the pilots? When will the

1. Loss of Essential TRU #1 while the ADG is suppling

"Essential TRU #2

emergency power to the aircraft.

Transfer Contactor" close?

2. Essential TRU #1 failure followed by failure of AC Bus #2.

What is the purpose of

A redundant system to help insure that the Essential DC

the Essential TRU #2

Bus remains powered at all times.

Transfer Contactor? What power source

It is powered directly through the ships Battery Bus. The

powers the "DC

battery switch must be "ON" for operation.

Emergency Bus"? What DC bus is "Not

The DC Emergency Bus is not shown on the electrical

Shown" on the

synoptic page unless there is a problem.

electrical synoptic page? The ADG will "Arm to

1. Weight off wheels

Deploy" when:

2. Any AC generator is on line for at least 3.45 seconds.

The ADG will

1. Complete Loss of All AC Power (Loss of AC Bus #1 &

automatically deploy

#2)

when:

- AC Bus #1 and AC Bus #2 both below 50 volts. 2. Weight Off Wheels

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3. Any generator has been on-line for at least 3.45 seconds. When will the "Seatbelt

1. When flaps are selected greater than 0 degrees.

Sign" illuminate when

2. When Gear is selected down.

selected to the "AUTO"

3. At Cabin altitudes of 10,000 feet or more.

position? When will the "No

1. When the gear is selected down.

Smoking Signs"

2. When the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet.

illuminate when selected to the "AUTO" position? From what locations

1. Cockpit

may the Emergency

2. Forward Flight Attendant Panel

Lights be controlled from? At what times will the

Emergency Lights are selected to "OFF" (abnormal).

"Emergency Lights" caution be displayed? What does the

1. Selected cabin ceiling and floor lighting.

"Emergency Lights"

2. Emergency Exits.

illuminate?

3. Egress Lighting (exterior).

How are the

Four (4) re-chargeable battery packs

"Emergency Lights" powered? The "Emergency lights"

Provides 15 minutes of illumination.

will illuminate for how long when activated? Will the Forward Flight

YES ... If the cockpit switch is selected to the "OFF"

Attendant panel switch

position.

for the emergency lights override the cockpit switch? When the "Emergency

Failure of the Essential AC Bus "or" Essential DC Bus.

Lights" are "ARMED" they will automatically illuminate when? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What must be selected

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Battery Master

to "ON" for the Emergency Lights to operate? Where is the Flight

Aft Equipment Bay

Data Recorder physically located on the aircraft? At what times is the

1. Beacon "ON"

Flight Data Recorder

2. Strobes "ON"

operating?

3. Weight off wheels

How much data will

Last 25 hours

the Flight Data Recorder record? How many "navigation

Two (2)

lights" are installed in each wing tip? What are the names of

Primary and Secondary

the two (2) navigation lights in each wingtip? When will the

1. Failure of the Primary navigation light bulb.

Secondary navigation

2. Primary navigation light overheats.

light illuminate? Is the Primary

NO ... The Secondary navigation light bulb is smaller.

navigation light and Secondary navigation light the same size bulbs? How many landing

Three (3):

lights are there and what is their locations?

Left Wing Right Wing Nose

Where are the taxi

In the wing roots co-located with the landing lights.

lights physically

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located on the At what distance are aircraft?

100 feet

the landing lights focused at? How many switches

Two (2)

are installed for control of the "Passenger Lighting" in the cabin? Where are the two

Forward Flight Attendant Panel

switches located for control of the passenger lighting system? What is the function of

LEFT SWITCH:

the two (2) switches for

1. Selects low intensity cabin & entrance lighting.

the passenger

2. "ARMS" the right switch.

lighting? LEFT SWITCH:

RIGHT SWITCH:

RIGHT SWITCH:

1. Entrance lights go to HIGH intensity. 2. Turns "ON" air stair lighting.

How are all the

By pressing the "Test Switch" located on the Forward

Passenger Service

Flight Attendants Panel.

Units (PSU's) tested at once? After testing all of the

By pressing the "OFF" switch on the forward flight

passenger service

attendant panel.

units (PSU's) with the test switch on the forward flight attendant panel, how can they be reset? How many fire

4

extinguishers are onboard the aircraft,

(1) Behind the First Officers seat

and where are their

(1) In wheelchair stowage compartment

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How many portable oxygen bottles are

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(1) Above coat closet in cabin 4 (1) Aft cabin wall

there on the aircraft

(2) in wheelchair stowage compartment for "Passenger

and where are their

Emergency First Aid".

locations?

(1) above galley food storage compartment, right side of cabin. (1) in aft cabin overhead bin at row 17DE, right side of cabin.

How many PBE's are

4

there on the aircraft and what are their

(1) Behind the captain's seat.

locations?

(1) In the wheelchair stowage compartment. (1) in cabin overhead bin at row 1AB. (1) on aft cabin wall.

The "Fire Protection

1. Engines

System" can "DETECT"

2. APU

fires from what

3. Wheel Bays

locations?

4. Cargo Compartments 5. Aft Lavatory

"Smoke Detection" is

1. Both Cargo Bays

provided for in what

2. Aft Lavatory

areas? The engines and APU

DUAL

are protected using a ______ loop protection system. The wheel wells are

SINGLE

protected using a _______ loop protection system. Will the engine and

YES

APU fire protection system function if one

The loop is automatically inhibited and the remaining

(1) loop was to fail?

loop will provide protection.

What controls the

FIDEEX Unit

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Engine and APU fire detection system? How many "smoke

Forward Cargo: 3

detectors" are there in

AFT Cargo: 2

each cargo bay? What is the purpose of

To detect and indicate a wheel or brake overheat

the fire detection

condition.

loops in the main landing gear wheel bays? What areas are

1. Engines

protected by a "Fire

2. APU

Extinguishing" system?

3. Both Cargo Bays 4. Aft Lavatory waste disposal

What is indicated if

Smoke has been detected within the respective cargo

one of the "Cargo

bay on at least two (2) of the smoke detectors.

Smoke" switchlights illuminates? Pressing the "Cargo

FWD:

Smoke" switchlight will

Arms "BOTH" of the fire bottles to discharge into that

do what?

compartment.

FWD: ? / AFT: ? AFT: Arms "BOTH" of the fire bottles to discharge into that compartment, and: 1. De-energizes the heater. 2. Closes the "Intake and Exhaust Valves". Where is the Lavatory

Inside the waste container.

fire bottle located? What must occur for

Automatically discharges into the waste container when

the Lavatory fire bottle

the "heat sensitive squibs (2) melt.

to discharge? If any part of the

1. You will not receive the "FIRE SYS TEST OK" advisory

"Fireex System does

message.

not test properly what

2. The effected system switchlight will not illuminate.

is displayed?

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What monitors the fire

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FIDEEX Unit

detection loops for a fault? The FIDEEX unit will

resistance

indicate a fire when a change in ______ is detected within the loops. Where are the fire

Aft Equipment Bay

extinguishing bottles for the engines and APU physically located on the aircraft? Where are the fire

Right wing fairing.

bottles for the cargo compartments physically located on the airplane? How many fire bottles

Two (2)

are installed for the "engines" use? How many fire bottles

One (1)

are installed on the aircraft for the "APU's" use? How many fire bottles

Two (2)

are installed on the aircraft for the "cargo compartments" use? Pressing the "LH/RH

1. Trips respective generator off-line.

ENG FIRE PUSH"

2. Closes the hydraulic Shutoff Valve

switchlight will do

3. Closes the respective fuel shutoff valve.

what?

4. Shuts off bleed air from the respective engine. 5. Arms "Both" bottles to fire into that engine.

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Pressing the "BOTTLE

Fire the respective fire bottle into the engine as selected

1/2 ARMED PUSH TO

by the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight.

DISC" switchlight will do what? Pressing the "APU

1. Shuts down the APU.

FIRE" switchlight will

2. Closes the APU fuel SOV.

do what?

3. Closes the APU Load Control Valve. 4. Trips the APU generator off-line. 5. ARMS the "APU BOTTLE ARMED - PUSH TO DISC" switchlight.

If a fire is detected

GROUND:

within the APU what

1. APU shuts down automatically.

will occur?

2. After 5 seconds the APU Fire bottle will discharge.

GROUND: ? INFLIGHT: ?

INFLIGHT: 1. APU will shutdown automatically. 2. APU Fire Bottle "Must be manually discharged".

Is it possible to

YES

interrupt the automatic discharging of the fire

You must press the "APU FIRE" switchlight within 5

bottle into the APU

seconds to cancel the automatic discharging of the APU

while on the ground?

fire bottle.

What indications

1. "Cargo Smoke" warning is displayed on EICAS.

appear if smoke is

2. Triple chime is heard.

detected in one of the

3. Associated cargo smoke switchlight will illuminate.

cargo bays? Pressing the "Bottle

1. Rapidly discharges the first fire bottle into the

Armed - Press to Disc"

associated compartment to knock down fire.

switchlight on the Cargo Fireex Panel will

2. The second bottle will then discharge more slowly to

do what?

provide a halon rich atmosphere.

How can it be verified

A "CARGO SQUIB 1/2" caution message is displayed.

that the cargo fire bottles have actually fired? What occurs if smoke

1. Smoke detector sounds.

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is detected in the aft

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2. "SMOKE AFT LAV" is displayed on EICAS.

lavatory? How can the smoke

By pressing the "Test/Reset" button on the smoke

detector be reset in

detector.

the lavatory? Where is the portable

Behind the First Officers Seat.

fire extinguisher located on the flight deck? What does the "MLG

Heat has been detected within the main landing gear

BAY OVERHEAT"

wheel bay due to tire or brake overheat.

EICAS warning message indicate? What is indicated by

The overheat detection system for the wheel bays has a

the "MLG OVHT FAIL"

fault.

caution message on the EICAS? When testing the Main

OVHT:

Landing Gear Bay

Simulates a false overheat condition.

Overheat system, what is each switch actually

WARN FAIL:

testing?

Simulates a failure of the overheat protection system.

OVHT: ? WARN FAIL: ? When testing the "Fire

"FIRE SYS TEST OK" Advisory message

Detection System" on the FIREEX Monitor test panel, what are you looking for to insure an operable system? The wing is a single

10

piece, bolted to the fuselage in _____ separate locations. What flight controls

1. Elevator

are considered

2. Rudder

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"Primary Flight

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

3. Ailerons

Controls"? What flight controls

1. Flaps

are considered

2. Slats

"Secondary Flight

3. Inboard and outboard Ground Spoilers

Controls"?

4. Multifunction Spoilers 5. Stabilizer Trim 6. Aileron Trim 7. Rudder Trim

What are the

Power Control Units (PCU's)

"actuators" called that actually move the flight controls? Are the Power Control

Hydraulically

Units (PCU's) mechanically or hydraulically actuated? How many Power

Ailerons: 2

Control Units (PCU's)

Rudder: 3

are there on each:

Elevator: 3

Aileron:? / Rudder: ? / Elevator: ? The "Left Aileron" is

Hydraulic System #1

powered by what two

Hydraulic System #3

(2) hydraulic systems? The "Right Aileron" is

Hydraulic System #2

powered by what two

Hydraulic System #3

(2) hydraulic systems? Each wing has how

4

many "Spoiler Panels"? The two (2) "Inboard

Ground Spoilers

Spoiler Panels" on each wing are called what? The two (2) "Outboard

Multi-Function Spoilers

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Spoiler Panels" on each wing are called what? What "Flight Controls"

1. Flaps

are "Electrically"

2. Slats

operated?

3. Stabilizer Trim 4. Rudder Trim 5. Aileron Trim

The primary flight

Electrically controlled

controls are ______

Hydraulically actuated

controlled and _______ actuated. What flight controls

All spoilers

are "Fly By Wire"? The elevators are

Torque Tube

"coupled together" by what? When separated, the

Captains

left elevator is controlled through which yoke? When separated, the

First Officers

right elevator is controlled through which yoke? What is the "Pitch

To overcome a "Cable Malfunction".

Disconnect" T handle used for? Both the pilot's and

Summing Mechanism

first officer's rudder inputs go into a single _______ Mechanism. The "Summing

Rudder

Mechanism" provides a single input into what flight control? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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At what times can the

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

In-flight only with "both engines operating".

rudder input be limited? What is the function of

Limits rudder travel while "in-flight" only, to reduce

the "Rudder Travel

rudder load.

Limiter"? If a "single" PCU jams

Load Limiter

on the rudder, what will isolate the jam? Protection for a "cable

Anti-Jam Mechanism

jam" in the rudder system is provided for by a _______. What provides for

Trapped hydraulic fluid

"Gust Lock" functions while on the ground? What is required for

Power from at least one (1) hydraulic system

the rudder trim to function? How many "Yaw

Two (2)

Damper" systems are there on the aircraft? Yaw damper #1

FCC #1

receives input from what Flight Control Computer? Yaw damper #2

FCC #2

receives input from what Flight Control Computer? How can the yaw

By pressing the Yaw Damper disconnect button on the

dampers be

yaw damper control panel.

disconnected? What is the purpose of

To engage the yaw dampers only!

the yaw damper switchlights? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Status message

failure will cause what kind of message? A "dual" yaw damper

"YAW DAMPER" Caution Message

failure will cause what kind of message? When the aileron

Captain's yoke

torque tube has been disconnected, which control operates the left aileron? When the aileron

First officer's yoke

torque tube has been disconnected, which control operates the right aileron? How many PCU's are

Two (2)

there on each aileron? What is the purpose of

To disconnect the ailerons in the event of a Jammed

the "Roll Control

aileron.

Disconnect" T-Handle? What will assist the

The Multi-Function Spoilers (Roll Assist Mode).

ailerons during low speed banks? The Multi-Function

During "Low Speed" turns, on the "Down Wing Only".

Spoilers will assist the ailerons at what times? When the "Roll

1. Left aileron

Disconnect" T-Handle

2. Right Multi-Function Spoilers

is pulled, the captains yoke will control what? When the "Roll

1. Right Aileron

Disconnect" T-Handle

2. Left Multi-Function Spoilers

is pulled, the first

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officer's yoke will control What switchlight what? will

"ROLL SELECT" switchlight will illuminate 20 seconds

illuminate after the

after pulling the T-Handle.

"Roll Disconnect" THandle is pulled? What is the purpose of

It confirms that the "Roll Disconnect" T-Handle has been

the "ROLL SELECT"

pulled.

switchlight?

Select the respective sides switchlight on the operative aileron control to engage "all spoilers" on that side.

What is indicated if the

An aileron PCU runaway has occurred and the system

"PLT ROLL" switchlight

"has given that side control of the ailerons".

illuminates while inflight? What are the purpose

1. Prevents aileron flutter if all hydraulics are lost while in-

of the aileron "Flutter

flight.

Dampers"?

2. Acts as a gust lock while on the ground with the hydraulics depressurized.

The "Stabilizer Trim"

Nose Up: +13 degrees

will control the

Nose Down: -2 degrees

stabilizer angle between: Nose Up: ? Nose Down: ? How many channels

Two (2)

are there for the stabilizer trim? How can the Stabilizer

By selecting the two (2) stab channel switchlights "IN".

Trim channels be engaged? How can the Stabilizer

Only by selecting the "Stab Trim Disconnect" switch on

Trim channels be dis-

the captain's and First Officer's yokes.

engaged? If a "single" stabilizer

Status Message

channel fails, what is displayed on EICAS? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If "BOTH" stabilizer

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Caution Message

channels fail, what is displayed on EICAS? What is the "Only Way"

By use of the "Stab Disconnect Switch" on each yoke.

to disconnect the stabilizer channels? The "Stabilizer Trim"

Split Type Switches

switches are _______ type switches. What is the "Priority"

1. Captains Trim: (High Speed)

for the stabilizer trim?

2. First Officer's Trim: (High Speed) 3. Autopilot Trim: (High Speed with flaps in motion) 4. Auto Trim: (High Speed with flaps in motion and "Autopilot OFF") 5. Mach Trim: (Low Speed with Autopilot OFF above .4 mach)

If Stabilizer trim

3 seconds

movement is detected for more than _______ seconds, a clacker will sound. What is the purpose of

It will improve the aircraft's stability when operating

the "Mach Trim"?

above .4 mach with the autopilot disengaged (hand flown).

What is required for

1. At least one (1) stab trim channel engaged.

the "Mach Trim" to

2. Autopilot "OFF".

operate?

3. Above .4 Mach

What is required for

At least one (1) hydraulic system powered.

the "Aileron Trim" system to function? Control for the flaps is

1. Flap select Lever

provided for by what

2. Emergency Flap Switch

two (2) sources? Is the "Slats/Flaps

Electrically

Lever" electrically or

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hydraulically At what positions are controlled?

8 degrees

there "Hard Gates" on

20 degrees

the Slat/Flap selection lever? During slat/flap

Slats, then flaps

"Extension", which moves first? During slat/flap

Flaps, then slats

"Retraction", which moves first? What are the Flap

0 degrees

Lever "positions" as

1 degrees

indicated on the flap

8 degrees

lever?

20 degrees 30 degrees 45 degrees

At the 0 degree

Both are fully "UP"

position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what position do the Slats/Flaps extend? At the 1 degree

Slats: 20 degrees

position on the

Flaps: 0 degrees

Slats/Flaps lever at what position do the Slats/Flaps extend? At the 8 degree

Slats: 20 degrees

position on the

Flaps: 8 degrees

Slats/Flaps lever at what position do the Slats/Flaps extend? At the 20 degree

Slats: 25 degrees

position on the

Flaps: 20 degrees

Slats/Flaps lever at what position do the Slats/Flaps extend? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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At the 30 degree

Slats: 25 degrees

position on the

Flaps: 30 degrees

Slats/Flaps lever at what position do the Slats/Flaps extend? At the 45 degree

Slats: 25 degrees

position on the

Flaps: 45 degrees

Slats/Flaps lever at what position do the Slats/Flaps extend? How many "Leading

Three (3)

Edge Slats" panels are there on each wing leading edge? Which is the "Largest"

Inboard

leading edge slat? They get progressively smaller towards the wing tips. How are the "Slats" de-

Using bleed air through "Piccolo Tubes".

iced? What will occur if One

The other two (2) would drag the slat into position.

(1) slat actuator were to fail? What type of sensor is

A Skew Disconnect Sensor

located between each "Slat Panel"? What would occur if

The "Skew Disconnect Sensor" would disable the slats

one of the "Slat Panels"

and illuminate a "SLATS FAULT" caution message on

failed to move when

EICAS.

selected? What would occur if

Slats would "lock" in there present position and a "SLATS

the "Slats" on the left

FAIL" caution message would be displayed on EICAS.

wing do not extend equally with those on the right wing? What type of flaps

Double Slotted

does the CRJ 700 https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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have? How many "Flap

Two (2)

Panels" are there on each wing?

Inboard and Outboard Flaps

How many actuators

Two (2)

are there on each flap? What will occur if the

Over speed warning will occur.

flap speed is exceeded? If the flaps are being

Flaps and Slats will only move at 1/2 speed.

powered by the ADG, what difference in operation is there? What is the maximum

1 degree: 230 kts

flap operating speeds:

8 degrees: 230 kts 20 degrees: 230 kts 30 degrees: 185 kts 45 degrees: 170 kts

What is the purpose of

Positions the Slats to 25 degrees and the Flaps to 20

the "Emergency Flap"

degrees in the event of Slat/Flap lever failure.

switch? If the "Emergency

YES

Slat/Flap" switch has been DEPLOYED in flight, will selecting the switch back to the "NORMAL" position restore normal operation through the Slat/Flap lever if the lever becomes operational again? If the "Emergency

Only after movement of the Slat/Flap selector lever.

Slat/Flap" switch has been DEPLOYED on https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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the ground, will selecting the switch back to the "NORMAL" position restore normal operation through the Slat/Flap lever if the lever becomes operational again? When operating above

NO

the maximum flap speed of 230 kts will the "Emergency Slat/Flap" lever function? When are the Slat/Flap

1. Slats or Flaps are greater than 0 degrees.

positions indicated on

2. Gear is not "Up and Locked".

the EICAS Primary

3. Brake temperatures are not in the green range.

page?

4. Slats/Flaps are indicating 1/2 Speed.

At what times will the

1. Single PCU failure

Slats/Flaps operate at

2. Powered by ADG

"1/2 speed"? What are the "Multi-

1. Speed Braking

Function Spoilers used

2. Roll Assist at low airspeeds on down wing

for?

3. Ground Lift Dumping

What are the available

0

position selections for

1/4

the "Flight Spoilers"?

1/2 3/4 MAX

Which panels are

Inner two (2)

considered the "Ground Lift Dumpers"? What are the available

MAN ARM

selections on the

AUTO MAN DISARM

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"Ground Lift Dumpers" Ground Lift Dumper control panel?

1. Switch is selected to "AUTO ARM".

system will "ARM"

"AND"

when:

2. Thrust levers are advanced towards takeoff. "AND" 3. Wheel speed indicates 45 kts or more.

The Ground Lift

1. System has "armed" itself.

Dumper (GLD) system

"AND"

will automatically

2. Both thrust levers are retarded towards IDLE.

"DEPLOY" when: "AND ANY TWO OF THE FOLLOWING" - Wheel speed indicates greater than 16 kts. - Radar altimeter indicates 7 feet or less. - At least one (1) Weight on Wheels indication. The Ground Lift

1. Both thrust levers are below Takeoff thrust.

Dumper (GLD) system

"AND"

will automatically

2. The aircraft is on the ground for at least 40 seconds.

"RETRACT" when:

"AND" 3. The wheel speed is below 45 kts for at least 10 seconds.

The Multi-Function

A weight on wheels indication is received from "BOTH"

spoilers will assist the

mains.

Ground Lift Dumping system when:

"AND any one of the following" - The wheel speed is greater than 16 kts on "any pair". - The radar altimeter indicates 7 feet or less.

What is required to

Only a "single" valid weight on wheels signal.

"MANUALLY" deploy the Ground Lift Dumpers? A "TAKEOFF CONFIG"

1. Autopilot

warning will occur if

2. Flaps

any of the following is

3. Parking Brake

out of configuration:

4. Spoilers 5. Stab Trim

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6. Aileron Trim At what N1 setting will

7. Rudder Trim 70% N1 on both engines

a "Takeoff Config" warning occur during takeoff if the system is mis-configured? What is the purpose of

Allows either pilot to disengage the stick pusher if

having a "Stick Pusher"

necessary.

ON/OFF switch on both sides of the cockpit? What is required for

Both stick pusher switches must be selected to "ON".

the stick pusher to operate? What will occur if the

1. Autopilot is disconnected

"AP/SP" switch is

2. Stick Pusher is disabled for as long as the switch is

depressed on the

held down.

yoke? When will the "Stall"

It is activated with "Stick Pusher" activation.

switchlight on the glare shield illuminate and flash red? With the onset of a

1. Auto Ignition activates.

stall, what are the stall

2. Stick Shaker / Autopilot disengages

activation "Trip

3. Stick Pusher / Stall Warning switchlight activates.

Points"?

4. Stall Warbler audio tone is heard.

What are the 3 sources

1. 2 AC Display Fans

of cooling air for the

2. Recirc Fan

EFIS and EICAS

3. Cockpit Air Conditioning Duct.

displays? What does the color

GREEN: Normal

logic indicate for the

AMBER: Below Normal

following colors on the

RED: Above Normal

EICAS system?

BLACK: No Flow BLUE: Structure

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GREEN / AMBER / RED What does the / BLACK / BLUE

WHITE: Valve is operable / waiting for work

different valve colors

AMBER: Valve is inoperable

indicate on the EICAS

GREEN: Valve is actually performing work

system?

1/2 MAGENTA: Insufficient Data to determine proper

WHITE / AMBER /

color

GREEN / 1/2 MAGENTA CAS messages are

Takeoff:

"Inhibited" when? Condition #1: 1. Engines are at takeoff thrust. 2. Below 100 kts Condition #2: 1. Above 100 kts. 2. Less than 400 feet AGL - cancels 30 seconds after takeoff. Landing: Condition #3: 1. Within 400 feet AGL with "gear down". - cancels 30 seconds after landing or climbing back through 400 feet following a go-around. The EICAS system

ED #1

consists of two

ED #2

displays. What are there names? ED #1 normally

Primary Page

displays what page? ED #2 normally

Status Page

displays what page? Are the CRT displays

YES

interchangeable? What will occur if ED

The Primary page will automatically transfer to ED #2.

#1 Display (Primary https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Page) fails? Some engine

1. N1 Vibration

indications are only

2. N2 Vibration

displayed on the

3. APR and REV icons

"Primary Page" on an "As Required" basis. What are they? At what time is the N1

When "both" engines are running and the oil pressure is

Vibration gauges

normal.

displayed? When are the "Landing

1. Gear is selected down.

Gear", "Flaps/Slats",

"or"

and "BTMS" indications

2. Flaps are selected down.

shown on EICAS?

"or" 3. Brake temperatures are not normal "or" 4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed message is displayed.

ED #2 normally

Status

displays the ______ page as default. How many different

8 different synoptic pages as well as the menu page.

synoptic pages may be displayed on ED #2? At what times are the

When the APU "PWR/FUEL" switchlight is depressed.

APU RPM and EGT gauges shown on the Status Page (ED #2)? At what times is the

It is always displayed.

APU "Door Position" displayed on the EICAS Status Page? At what times are the

Always

aileron, rudder and stabilizer trim settings shown on the status page? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If the trim settings are

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Needles indicate a green color "while on the ground".

within acceptable parameters for takeoff how are they displayed? If the trim settings "are

Needles are shown as a white color.

not" within acceptable parameters for takeoff how are they displayed? During flight what

White

color are the trim settings displayed as? What indications are

1. O2 Pressure

"always" displayed on

2. Trim Position

the Status Page of

3. Apu Intake Door Position

EICAS? At what times are the

Always

O2 pressures displayed on the EICAS Status Page? The EICAS system uses

GREEN: Normal operating range

color logic to display

RED: Above Normal

system data. What is

AMBER: Below Normal

meant by the following

BLACK: No Flow

colors?

BLUE: Structure

GREEN / RED / AMBER / BLACK / BLUE Valve operations on

WHITE: Operating Valve waiting to do work.

the synoptic pages are

GREEN: Operating valve (working valve)

colored in accordance

AMBER: Failed Valve

with their status. What

1/2 Magenta: Insufficient data to determine the proper

are the valve colors?

color

Where does the EICAS

From the "Battery Bus".

system's ED #1 and ED

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#2 displays receive their power? What limit applies to

5 minute limitation do to the AC cooling fans not being

the ED Displays while

powered.

on battery power only? By what means do the

1. Two (2) AC cooling fans

CRT's receive cooling

2. Recirc Fan

air flow?

3. Cockpit Conditioned Air duct

If a cooling fan fails for

Select either the "Flt Altn or Gnd Altn" position on the

the CRT's, what must

"Display Fan" control to use the alternate cooling fan.

be done? The "Data

They provide information to:

Concentrator Units (DCU's) provide

1. EICAS Displays

information to what?

2. Lamp Driver Units 3. Maintenance Diagnostic Computer 4. Flight Data Recorder

How many Data

Two (2)

Concentrator Units are there? Are both Data

Yes ... Each DCU provides different information.

Concentrator Units "Active" at all times? If one Data

The remaining DCU will provide all data.

Concentrator Unit fails, what will automatically occur? What provides the

Data Concentrator Units

"Aural Alerts"? If a "Warning" occurs

Triple Chime

what type of chime will the DCU provide? If a "Caution" occurs

Single Chime

what type of chime will the DCU provide? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What type of chimes

1. Single Chime

or bells will the DCU's

2. Triple Chime

provide?

3. Engine / Apu fire bells

What generates the

Data Concentrator Units

"Voice Messages"? Can the audio

All may be disabled by selecting the appropriate DCU

warnings that the

switchlight "OFF" except:

DCU's provide be disabled?

1. Ground Prox warnings 2. TCAS Alerts

What will the DCU's do

The DCU's will prioritize the warnings.

if multiple alerts occur at once? Is it possible to clear

No

or "box" a red warning on the Primary page? Is it possible to clear

Yes

or "box" a amber caution on the Primary page? Is it possible to clear

No

or "box" a green advisory message on the status page? Is it possible to clear

Yes

or "box" a white status message on the status page? A "RED" warning

RED switchlight

message is associated with a _______ elsewhere. A "AMBER" caution

AMBER switchlight

message is associated with a _______ elsewhere.

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If all of the warning or

Pressing the CAS button on the EICAS Control Panel will

caution messages

cycle through the pages.

cannot be displayed on the Primary Page, how can the remaining messages be retrieved? What does a "Green

Advises of aircraft's system configuration.

Advisory Message" indicate? What does a "White

Advises of System Status.

Status Message" indicate? What is the purpose of

The lamp Driver Unit sends the signal as instructed by

the "Lamp Driver

the DCU to illuminate the appropriate switchlight.

Units"? What is achieved by

It tests channel 1 of the lamp driver unit.

selecting the "Lamp Test Switch" to the Channel 1 position? At what times can the

Takeoff:

DCU minimize "Distracting Warning

Condition #1:

and Caution

1. Both thrust levers are advanced to "Takeoff Power".

Messages"?

2. Speed below 100 kts. Condition #2: 1. Groundspeed greater than 100 kts. 2. Terminates at 400' or 30 seconds after WOW. Landing: Condition #3: 1. Aircraft within 400' w/ landing gear down. 2. Terminates 30 seconds after landing or climbing back through 400' following a go-around.

There are four (4)

1. PRI

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buttons on the EICAS

2. STAT

Control Panel which

3. CAS

are mechanical, which

4. STEP

are they? What is accomplished

Causes the Primary page to be displayed on ED #2.

by pressing the "PRI" button on the EICAS Control Panel? What is accomplished

It causes the "Status" Page to be displayed on ED #2.

by pressing the "STAT"

If the status page is already displayed it will box the

button on the EICAS

white status messages.

Control Panel? What is accomplished

It will box the caution messages on the Primary page

by pressing the "CAS"

"or" cycle through the pages if multiple pages exist.

button on the EICAS Control Panel? What is accomplished

It will cycle through the synoptic pages beginning with

by pressing the "STEP"

the last page displayed.

button on the EICAS Control Panel? At what times is the

Only when the "Menu" page is displayed on ED #2.

"SEL, UP, DN" button on the EICAS Control Panel operative? With the Menu page

Fuel used reset

selected on the EICAS Control Panel what types of data may be entered? What is the purpose of

Provides control for an alternate method of displaying

the "Reversionary

PFD and EICAS information in the event one of the ED

Control Panel"?

screens fails.

What alternate data

1. EICAS Status Page information

may be selected to

2. PFD

display on the MFD by using the https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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"Reversionary Control Panel"? The "Reversionary

The Multi-function Display

Control Panel directly controls what is displayed on what screen? What does the "Source

A way to provide alternate data to both PFD's at once.

Selector Panel" provide? On the 'Source

It will select which Display control Panel will control

Selection Panel", what

"BOTH" displays in the event that one fails.

happens if the "DISP CONT" knob is selected to either the 1 or 2 position? On the "Source

It selects which ED display will display "all" EICAS

Selection Panel" what

information in the event that one (1) ED were to fail.

happens if the EICAS switch is selected to the ED1 or ED2 position? If you are viewing "all

If a page other than the primary page is displayed a

EICAS Information" on

triple chime will be heard and the display will

one ED as selected by

automatically revert to the "Primary Page".

the Source Selection Panel, what will occur if a "RED Warning" occurs? If you are viewing "all

Only a single chime will be heard. The page "does not"

EICAS Information" on

automatically revert to the Primary Page!

one ED as selected by the Source Selection Panel, what will occur if a "AMBER Caution" occurs? Maintenance

1. Captain's MFD

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Diagnostic information

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

2. First Officer's MFD

may be selected to display where? What are two (2)

1. Counts Engine Start Cycles

primary purposes of

2. Records Trend Data.

the Maintenance Diagnostic Computer"? At what times does the

1. Beacon ON

"Flight Data Recorder"

2. Strobes ON

begin recording?

3. Weight off wheels

The "Flight Data

25 hours

Recorder" will record the last _______ of data. The Flight Data

30 day

Recorder is equipped with a ________ underwater locating device. Upon impact what is

Power is removed.

automatically accomplished to prevent erasure of the Flight Data Recorder? Where is the flight data

Aft Equipment Bay

recorder physically located on the aircraft? What is the purpose of

It places a Time / Date stamp on the flight data recorder

the "Event" switch on

for later review.

the Misc Test Panel?

The tape is marked as a "significant event".

By what two (2) means

1. Pressure Refueling

are the "Wing Tanks"

2. Gravity Refueling (Overwing)

refueled? By what means may

Pressure Refueling Only!

the "Center Fuel Tank" https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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be refueled? What is the fuel

Pressure Refueling: 7,492 lbs

capacity of the wing tanks for:

Overwing Refueling: 7,290 lbs

Pressure Refueling? / Overwing Refueling? What is the fuel tank

4,610 lbs

capacity for the center tank following "Pressure Refueling"? What is the fuel

Gravity refueling of the center tank is not allowed. The

capacity of the "Center

center fuel tank may only be "Pressure Refueled"!

Tank" following "Gravity Refueling"? Fuel quantity

1. EICAS Primary Page

information is

2. Fuel Synoptic Page

displayed where? What does the "Fuel

1. Refuel / Defuel operations

Computer" control?

2. Fuel Feed 3. Fuel Balancing 4. Fuel quantity indications

Where are the

Within the "Center Tank".

collector tanks physically located on the airplane? All fuel drawn from the

The collector tanks.

fuel system comes from where? Where does the APU

The left collector tank only!

draw its fuel from? What keeps the

Scavenge Ejector pumps

collector tanks full? What powers the

Motive flow fuel from:

Scavenge Ejector pumps?

ENGINES OPERATING: HP Fuel pumps

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ENGINES SHUT DOWN: Fuel Boost Pumps How is fuel transferred

Fuel is never transferred directly to the collector tanks

from the Center tank

from the center tank. It must first be transferred to the

to the Collector tanks?

wing tanks and then back to the collector tanks via the "Scavenge Ejector Pumps".

Fuel tank venting is

NACA vents

provided for by what? Where are the NACA

Underside of the wings near the trailing edge.

vents physically located on the aircraft? What is the purpose of

To provide venting during:

the NACA vents? 1. Refueling / Defueling operations 2. Normal venting during flight 3. Provides a "positive" head of pressure to the fuel tanks during flight. If fuel inadvertently

It is returned to the "Center Tank".

enters the NACA vents, where does it go? Is it normal for the

Yes ...

"Center tank" to show an increase in fuel

Fuel has entered the NACA vents and has been returned

quantity during a

to the center tank.

climb?

This is normal operation.

What do the NACA

A positive head of pressure (Ram Air) to the fuel tank

vents provide while in-

system.

flight? What prevents fuel

One Way Flow valves.

from moving within the main tanks during low wing maneuvers? How many "Fuel

Only one (1), but it has two channels (Channel A and

System Computers"

Channel B).

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are there on the aircraft? If one channel of the

The other channel will automatically take control.

Fuel Control Computer fails what will happen? When does the "Fuel

Continuously

System Computer" automatically test itself (BITE)? What are the names of

1. Main Ejectors

the three (3) different

2. Scavenge Ejectors

ejectors within the fuel

3. Transfer Ejectors

system? What is the purpose of

Provides a positive head of pressure to the Engine Drive

the "Main Ejectors"?

HP fuel pumps.

What is the purpose of

The transfer ejectors move fuel from the center tank to

the "Transfer Ejectors"?

the wing tanks.

What is the purpose of

The Scavenge Ejectors move fuel from the wing tanks to

the "Scavenge

the collector tanks.

Ejectors"? What powers the

Normally motive flow fuel from the engine drives HP

ejector pumps?

pump with the engines operating. With the engines shutdown the boost pumps provides the motive flow fuel to power the main ejectors for engine start.

What is the "Primary"

To provide a backup source of fuel pressure in the event

purpose of the fuel

of "Main Ejector" failure.

boost pumps? What is the

To provide "Motive Flow" fuel to power the ejector

"Secondary" purpose

pumps with the engines shutdown.

of the fuel boost pumps? Are the Fuel boost

DC powered.

pumps AC or DC powered? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If only "Battery power"

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Only the "Left Boost Pump" will operate.

is available will the fuel boost pumps operate? Both pumps will

Either

operate when _____ switch is selected to the "ON" position if AC power is available. What does actually

It will "ARM" the fuel pumps to operate when a decrease

occur when both fuel

in pressure is detected within the fuel manifold.

boost pump switches are selected to "ON"? During engine start,

Both fuel boost pumps will function if only 1 engine is

will "both" fuel boost

running. Following the second engine start the boost

pumps be actually

pumps are then in the "Armed" position.

working? Are the Fuel Shutoff

Open

Valves normally open or closed? How may the Fuel

1. Pressing either ENG FIRE switchlight.

Shutoff Valves be

2. Pressing the APU FIRE switchlight.

"Closed"? Are the fuel shutoff

Electrically operated.

valves spring loaded or electrically operated valves? How is the fuel heated

Fuel / Oil heat exchanger

within the fuel system? What will happen if the

"Fuel Filter" caution light illuminates and a bypass valve

fuel filter becomes

opens to allow fuel to bypass the fuel filter.

clogged?

The Fuel Filter caution light actually means that "Fuel is about to be bypassed".

Is the APU fuel pump

DC powered.

DC or AC powered? All fuel delivered to

Left Collector tank only.

the APU is drawn from https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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where? What will occur if the

Fuel is automatically drawn from the left collector tank

APU fuel pump fails?

via the APU suction.

When does "Automatic

When the wing tank fuel quantity reaches 94% the Fuel

Fuel Transfer" occur

Control Computer directs the transfer pumps to transfer

from the center tank to

fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks.

the wing tanks?

Transfer stops when the wing tank level reaches 97%.

By what two (2) means

1. Powered Crossflow (Automatic & Manual)

is fuel crossflow

2. Gravity Crossflow

(balancing) provided for? "Powered Crossflow"

1. Automatic

can be accomplished

2. Manual

by two means, what are they? How is "Automatic"

The Fuel Control Computer will automatically cross flow

powered crossflow

fuel when a 200 lb fuel imbalance occurs.

(balancing) between the main tanks

Crossflow operations will stop when the fuel is balanced

achieved?

+50 lbs.

How is "Manual"

1. Press the MAN Crossflow switchlight

powered crossflow

2. Activate the crossflow pump on the "Low Tank Side".

(balancing) between

- This tells the Cross Flow Pump to pump to that side.

the main tanks achieved? At what point will the

800 lb fuel imbalance.

"Fuel Imbalance" caution light illuminate? At what times would

Only if the Powered Crossflow system fails!

you use the "Gravity Crossflow" method to balance the wing tanks? How is "Gravity

1. Select the "Gravity Crossflow" switchlight "OPEN"

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Crossflow" (balancing)

2. When fuel is balanced you must manually close the

of the main fuel tanks

Crossflow valve again.

achieved? Where is the Refuel /

Right wing root leading edge.

Defuel panel physically located on the aircraft? What does the Refuel /

1. System testing of the "Fuel System Computer".

Defuel panel allow

2. Pressure fueling in both automatic and manual modes.

for? What two methods are

1. Digital display

provided for fuel

2. Magnetic Level Indicators (MLI's)

quantity gauging? How many magnetic

5 Total MLI's

level indicators are there on the aircraft

Two (2) in each Wing Tank

and where are their

One (1) in the Center Tank

locations? On what page of the

Primary Page

EICAS system is fuel quantity displayed? At what two (2)

1. EICAS Primary Page

locations can you view

2. Fuel Synoptic Page

the fuel quantity? The digital fuel

1. Total fuel quantity is less than 900 lbs.

quantity readout will

2. Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs.

turn "Amber" when? What will be displayed

Quantity displayed turns to a "1/2 Magenta" color.

on the fuel synoptic page if the fuel quantity readings are invalid? At what time will the

When the Center Fuel tank quantity is at least 10 lbs.

"Center Tank" fuel quantity indication be

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shown as a "Green" At what time will the color? "Center Tank" fuel

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

When the center fuel tank quantity is 0 lbs.

quantity indication be shown as a "White" color? At what times may the

During un-coordinated flight.

fuel quantity readout

The wings must be level for at least 30 seconds for

be unreliable?

accurate fuel level readings.

By what three (3)

1. Automatically following aircraft power-up.

means can the "Fuel

2. Manually by entering a new fuel quantity on the "PERF

Used" readout be

INIT" page.

reset?

3. Manually by selecting the fuel synoptic page, then menu key, then "Fuel Used Reset" (On Ground Only).

Where is the "Bulk Fuel

The right wing tank only!

Temperature" measured from? The "Bulk Fuel

Bulk Fuel Temperature is above -40 degrees C.

Temperature" readout will be "GREEN" colored when? The "Bulk Fuel

The Bulk Fuel temperature is below - 40 degrees C.

Temperature" readout will be "AMBER" colored when? At what temperature

+5 degrees C or above.

will the Fuel Feed temperature indicate a "GREEN" color? At what temperature

Fuel temperature is BELOW + 5 degrees C

will the Fuel Feed temperature indicate a "AMBER" color? If you measure the fuel

The "Inclinometer" must be referenced behind the first

tank quantity using the

officers seat and compared with the charts to obtain the

Magnetic Level

actual fuel quantity.

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Indicators (MLI's), what must be referenced? Are you allowed to

NO

have the fuelers "DeFuel" the aircraft?

Defueling is a maintenance function!

What is the maximum

500 lbs if "each" main tank fuel quantity is less than 4,400

allowable fuel in the

lbs.

center tank for

"OR"

takeoff?

Each main tank is above 2,000 lbs and: 1. The allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 lbs. 2. The CG is verified to be within the allowable CG envelope.

What are the names of

Hydraulic System #1

the three independent

Hydraulic System #2

hydraulic systems?

Hydraulic System #3

What is the "normal"

3,000 psi

operating pressure of each hydraulic system? How many hydraulic

2

pumps does each hydraulic system have? Hydraulic Systems #1

Engine Driven Pump

and #2 main pump is driven by what? Hydraulic Systems #1

Electric AC Motor pumps

and #2 "backup" pump is powered by what? Hydraulic Systems #3

AC Motor Pump

"main" pump is powered by what? Hydraulic Systems #3

AC Motor Pump

"backup" pump is powered by what?

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All Hydraulic System

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AC Motor Pumps

#3's pumps are powered how? What hydraulic pumps

System #1 Backup Pump

are directly controlled

System #2 Backup Pump

from the "Hydraulic

System #3 Main Pump

Control Panel"?

System #3 Backup Pump

What systems does the

Landing Gear

Hydraulic Systems

Brakes

power?

Steering Primary Flight Controls Secondary Flight Controls Thrust Reversers

What does Hydraulic

Left Aileron

System #1 Power?

Rudder Elevator Outboard Flight Spoilers Outboard Ground Spoilers Left Engine Thrust Reverser

What does Hydraulic

Right Aileron

System #2 Power?

Rudder Elevator Inboard Flight Spoilers Inboard Ground Spoilers Right Engine Thrust Reverser Landing Gear Aux Actuators Outboard Brakes

At what times are

Anytime that the respective engine is running.

Hydraulic System #1 and Hydraulic Systems #2 "MAIN" pumps actually working? Hydraulic System #1

Engine Accessory Gearbox

and Hydraulic System #2's main pumps are engine driven pumps.

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What is actually driving Do Engine Driven the the pumps?

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

No

main pumps for the

hydraulic system have any control switches? What are the switch

Pump 1B: ON, OFF, AUTO

positions on the

Pump 2B: ON, OFF, AUTO

Hydraulic Control

Pump 3A: OFF, ON

Panel for the "Backup"

Pump 3B: ON, OFF, AUTO

hydraulic pumps? When in "Auto Mode"

Anytime that:

hydraulic pumps 1B, 2B and 3B will operate

1. AC power is available.

when?

2. Flaps (not Slats) are selected out of the zero degree position.

What is the purpose of

It allows you to operate the hydraulic system backup

the "Ground Interlock"

pumps while on the ground without the flaps being

for the Hydraulic

selected out of the zero position.

System? All "Primary Flight

Two

Controls" are powered by at least _____ hydraulic systems. What systems are

Ailerons

powered by "ALL

Rudders

THREE" hydraulic

Elevators

systems? What is the purpose of

Provides positive pressure to the:

"pressurizing" the hydraulic systems

Engine Driven Main Pumps

reservoir?

All Backup Pumps

Where are the

They are installed in the "supply lines" of the engine

Hydraulic shutoff

driven "Main" pumps.

valves installed within the hydraulic system? Are the Hydraulic

Open

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Shutoff Valves normally "Open" or "Closed"? Where can the

Hydraulic System Synoptic Page

hydraulic shutoff valve position be viewed? In what ways is it

1. Pressing the "Eng Fire Push" switchlight

possible to "CLOSE"

2. Pressing the "HYD SOV" switchlight

the hydraulic shutoff valves? What is the purpose of

To isolate the flow of hydraulic fluid from the engine

the "Hydraulic Shutoff

driven pumps in the event of:

Valves"? 1. Overheat 2. Fluid Leak Also provides a means to cool the fluid if necessary. Which of the hydraulic

Hydraulic system #1A

systems require

Hydraulic system #2A

cooling? Why does Hydraulic

Because of their close proximity to the aircraft's engines.

Systems #1 and #2 require fluid cooling? How is the hydraulic

Air / Oil Heat Exchanger

fluid cooled for Hydraulic Systems #1 and #2? Where does the "AIR"

Ram Air Scoop at the base of the tail.

come from to cool the heat exchanger for the hydraulic systems? While operating on the

A fan begins to operate within the ram air duct at the

ground what

base of the tail anytime that the aircraft is on the ground

automatically happens

and stationary.

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exchangers for the hydraulic systems? Which hydraulic

Hydraulic System #3

system powers the "Largest Demands"? Hydraulic system #3

1. Rudder

provides pressure to

2. Elevator

what systems?

3. Ailerons 4. Inboard Ground Spoilers 5. Landing Gear 6. Nose wheel Steering

Does Hydraulic System

No

#3 have any "Engine Driven" pumps? Does Hydraulic System

No

#3 require fluid cooling? When do the Hydraulic

Anytime that:

System "Backup pumps" normally

1. AC Power is available to the pumps.

operate?

"AND" 2. The flaps (not slats) are selected out of zero degrees. NOTE: You would normally want the backup pumps to operate for takeoffs and landings.

If the "Main" hydraulic

NO. The backup pump must be selected to the "ON"

pump fails while in-

position.

flight, will the backup pump automatically power the system? Will the backup

Yes

hydraulic pumps operate if only "External AC power" is available to the aircraft while on the ground? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If all AC power is lost

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System #3

while in-flight with the engines not operating

The ADG will power hydraulic system 3B pump

(APU not running),

regardless of switch position.

what provides hydraulic power? If all AC power is lost

It doesn't matter.

while in-flight and the

Pump 3B will automatically provide System #3 pressure

ADG deploys, what

regardless of pump switch position.

position must hydraulic system #3 pump 3B be selected to for operation of the system 3B pump? At what point does the

Below 1,800 PSI

Hydraulic system pressure readout turn "AMBER" on the hydraulic system synoptic page? At what point does the

Above 1,800 psi

Hydraulic system pressure readout turn "GREEN" on the hydraulic system synoptic page? At what point does the

Above 3,200 PSI

Hydraulic system pressure readout turn "WHITE" on the hydraulic system synoptic page? When will the

Below 96 degrees C

Hydraulic system "Temperature" readout indicate "GREEN" on

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the hydraulic synoptic When will the page?

Above or equal to 96 degrees C

Hydraulic system "Temperature" readout indicate "AMBER" on the hydraulic synoptic page? When will the

Between 45% and 85%

Hydraulic System "Quantity" readout indicate "GREEN"? When will the

Below 45% or Greater than 85%

Hydraulic System "Quantity" readout indicate "AMBER"? At what point will "ALL"

When fluid quantity drops below 5%

hydraulic system fluid quantities disappear on the hydraulic synoptic page? If the "Engine Driven

If the pump malfunctions and overheats the "Shear Pin"

Hydraulic Pumps"

will break.

overheat how can they

There is no manual means of disconnecting the engine

be disconnected?

driven hydraulic pumps. They are driven by the gear box and constantly operate anytime that the engine is operating.

What systems are

1. Cowl Anti-Ice

protected by the "Ice

2. Wing Anti-Ice

and Rain" protection

3. Forward Windshields

systems?

4. Side Windows 5. Air Data Probes & Sensors 6. Ice Detection System 7. Windshield wipers

What provides anti-

Anti-Ice protection for the tail is not required!

icing for the tail? With regards to the Ice

1. Cowl Anti-Ice

Protection system,

2. Wing Anti-Ice (including slats)

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which areas are protected with bleed air? The Anti-Ice synoptic

pneumatically

page only shows those areas which are ______ de-iced. With regards to the

1. Forward Windshields

Anti-Ice system, which

2. Side Windows (De-Misted only)

areas are "electrically"

3. Windshield wipers

protected?

4. Air Data Probes 5. Ice Detection Probes

How many Ice

Two (2) fully independent systems

Detection systems are there on the CRJ700? What must occur for

At least one (1) ice detection system must have sensed

an "Ice" caution to

Ice.

occur? Where are the "Ice

One on each side of the nose below the pilot's

Detect Probes"

windshields.

physically located on the aircraft? Each "Ice Detector"

A probe and a microprocessor.

consists of what? The ice detect probes

The ice detect probe "decreases" its vibration to the pre-

vibrate within the

set trip point.

slipstream. What causes the "ICE" annuciator to display? When "ICE" is detected

1. EICAS "Primary Page"

the "ICE" caution

2. Anti-Ice Synoptic Page

message is displayed where? What would occur if

You would receive a "ICE DETECT FAIL" Caution

"BOTH" anti-ice

Message on the EICAS Primary Page.

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systems were to fail? What would occur if

You would receive a "#1/#2 ICE DETECT FAIL" status

"ONE" anti-ice systems

message on the EICAS.

were to fail? If Ice is detected a

The "ICE" caution message is replaced by an "ICE"

"ICE" caution message

advisory message on the status page.

will be displayed on the EICAS Primary Page. What occurs following selection of the wing anti-ice switches to the "ON" position? When "ICE" is

They are automatically electrically heated for as long as

detected, how are the

ice is detected.

Ice Detection Probes

They will automatically turn "OFF" the heating source

heated and for how

after a pre-determined amount of time following clear of

long?

icing conditions.

Will the Ice Detect

NO ... The probes will heat and cool for as long as ice is

Probes receive heat

detected.

continuously when ice is detected? When conducting the

1. Switchlight illuminates.

"Ice Detection" test

2. "ICE" is annunciated

what indications are you looking for?

HOT WING: White "ICE" status message COLD WING: Amber "ICE" caution message 3. "ADS HEAT TEST OK" advisory message displays.

Selecting the "Cowl

1. Engine Cowls (pneumatically)

Anti-Ice" switches to

2. T2 Probe sensor within the engine cowls (electrically)

the "ON" position will de-ice what? By what two (2) means

1. Automatically by the FADEC computer.

may the T2 Inlet

2. Manually by selecting the "Engine Cowl" anti-ice

Temperature probe be

switches to "ON".

de-iced? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What is the purpose of

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It measures inlet air temperature.

the T2 probe within the engine nacelle? Are the "Cowl Anti-Ice

They are normally always "OPEN".

Valves" normally fail saved "OPEN" or Closed"? What is required to

1. DC Electrical power

"CLOSE" the cowl anti-

2. Bleed Air

ice valves? Where are the "Cowl

Aft Equipment Bay

Anti-Ice Valves" physically located on the aircraft? At what times will you

1. Pressure in the duct with the cowl anti-ice selected to

receive a "L/R COWL

"OFF".

A/I" caution message?

2. No pressure within the duct with the cowl anti-ice selected to "ON".

What directs the hot

Piccolo Tubes

bleed air into the engine cowls when the cowl anti-ice is selected to "ON"? Where is the exhaust

Through louvers on the underside of the engine.

bleed air expelled from when the engine anti-ice system is selected to "ON"? What portion of the

Wing leading edges and slats.

wings is de-iced when the "Wing Anti-Ice" is selected to "ON"? Where does the left

Left Engine

wing "Normally" receive its bleed air for de-icing? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Where does the right

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Right Engine

wing "Normally" receive its bleed air for de-icing? What controls the

The respective "Anti-ice Leak Detection Controller"

amount of bleed air

(AILC) modulates the wing anti-ice valve.

which travels through the wing for de-icing purposes? Is it possible to de-ice

YES

the left wing if the #1 engine fails?

By selecting the "Wing Crossbleed Valve" to the "Right Wing" position.

What actually occurs if

1. The "right wing anti-ice valve closes.

the "Wing Crossbleed

2. The wing crossbleed valve opens.

Valve" is selected to

3. "WING ISOL OPEN" message appears on EICAS.

the "From Left" position? What actually occurs if

1. Left wing anti-ice valve closes.

the "Wing Crossbleed

2. Cross bleed valve "OPENS".

Valve" is selected to

3. "WING ISOL OPEN" message appears on EICAS.

the "From Right" position? If the "Wing Cross

It will fail in the last position selected when power was

Bleed Valve" fails, does

removed.

it fail OPEN or Closed? How does the "Anti-Ice

It modulates the wing anti-ice valve to maintain the wing

Leak Detection

temperature depending on the temperature schedule.

System" (AILS) regulate wing temperatures? Each Anti-Ice Leak

Two (2)

Detection System has how many channels? How many sensors are

Four (4) ... Channel A controls 2 and channel B controls 2.

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there in each wing used to control and monitor wing temperature when using the wing anti-ice system? What is the purpose of

Measures for a wing anti-ice duct "Under heat condition".

the wing temperature sensors on the outboard portion of the wing? What is the purpose of

Monitors the wing temperature for a "Overheat"

the wing temperature

condition.

sensors on the inboard portion of the wing? If an "Under heat"

1. "L/R Wing A/I" caution message on EICAS.

condition is detected

2. Wing anti-ice duct turns an amber color.

by the wing sensors for the wing anti-ice system what is displayed? If an "Overheat"

1. Triple Chime

condition is detected

2. "WING OVHT" warning message is displayed on

by the wing sensors

EICAS.

for the wing anti-ice

3. "Wing Overheat" voice message is heard.

system what is

4. Wing anti-ice duct turns a red color.

displayed? At what times does the

When slats are extended.

wing anti-ice system heat the wings to the "HIGH" temperature schedule? At what times does the

With the slats retracted.

wing anti-ice system heat the wings to the "LOW" temperature schedule? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Are the "Wing Anti-Ice

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CLOSED

Valves" fail saved OPEN or CLOSED? When will the "Wing

1. Overheat is detected within the wing.

Anti-Ice Valves"

2. Bleed air supply is removed.

automatically

3. Electrical power to the valve is removed.

"CLOSE"? The wing anti-ice ducts

Piccolo Tubes

are referred to as _____. Where is exhaust

Underneath the wing leading edge (upper surface).

bleed air utilized by the wing anti-ice system expelled from? How is bleed air

Through telescoping Piccolo Tubes interconnected by

ducted to the slats for

flexible connectors.

de-ice purposes? What will the N2

A variable white arc ranging from 0% to 77%.

gauge indicate when the wing anti-ice is selected to "ON"? What is the purpose of

Keeping the N2 RPM above the white arc ensures

the variable white arc

adequate bleed air to de-ice the wings.

on the N2 indicator? What will automatically

1. Triple Chime is heard

occur if a wing

2. Respective wing anti-ice valve will close.

"OVERHEAT" occurs?

3. "L/R WING OVHT" warning is displayed on the EICAS Primary Page. 4. Anti-ice ducting will turn RED. 5. Aural "Wing Overheat" is heard.

What is indicated if a

The "outboard sensors" of the wing has detected an

"L/R WING A/I"

under heat in the wing anti-ice system.

caution message is

The flow lines will turn amber in color and a "L/R WING

displayed on the

A/I" caution is displayed.

EICAS Primary Page? When does the wing

Only during initial aircraft power-up.

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anti-ice system automatically test itself? What three (3)

1. Tests circuitry and probes. (ICE msg)

functions does the "Ice

2. Tests probe heating (ADS HEAT TEST)

Detector Test"

3. Tests the icing indicator switchlight.

accomplish? How are the forward

Electrically

windshields heated? How are the side

Electrically - De-misted only

windows heated? How many

Four (4)

temperature

One for each windshield & side window

controllers are there for the windshields? Are the windshield

Yes

temperature controllers interchangeable? Each window is

True

controlled by a separate controller. True or False What occurs when the

The windshield goes through a "warm-up" cycle and is

left windshield is

then heated to low.

selected to the "LOW" position?

Side window is heated to low (De-Misted).

What occurs when the

The windshield goes through a warm-up cycle and is

left windshield is

then heated to high heat.

selected to the "HIGH" position?

The side window remains in "LOW" position (De-misted only).

The "LH WSHLD" heat

1. Left forward windshield

switch controls what

2. Left side window.

windows? The windshield heat

OFF / RESET

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switches are three (3)

LOW

position switches.

HIGH

What are the switch positions? What occurs when the

1. Power is removed from the respective windows.

windshield heat

2. Temperature controller is reset.

switches are placed in the OFF/RESET position. What is meant if the

1. The windshield heat is selected to "OFF"

"L/R WSHLD HEAT"

"or"

caution message is

2. The windshield has overheated.

displayed on EICAS? What will automatically

1. A "L/R WSHLD HEAT" caution message is displayed.

occur if the

2. Power is removed from the window.

windshields overheats? How is the "Probe

By switches on the "Anti-Ice Control Panel".

Heat" controlled? The "Probe Heat"

Ground control switches

switches can be thought of as _______. With the "Probe Heat"

The pitot heat is in "Low Heat" (1/2 Power) anytime there

switches selected to

is an operating generator on-line.

the "OFF" position is anything heated while on the ground? The "Left" probe heat

Captain's side of aircraft.

switch controls what probes? The "Right" probe heat

First Officer's side of aircraft.

switch controls what probes? Does the "Probe Heat"

No .. all probes goes to high heat passing 60 kts on the

switches have any

takeoff roll regardless of switch position.

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control when the aircraft is airborne? In "Ground Mode" of

Probe Heat switches selected "OFF":

the probe heat, what is heated with:

1. No heat to static ports and AOA vane.

Probe Heat switches

2. Pitot probes 1/2 power with an operating generator

selected "OFF":

on-line.

Probe Heat switches selected "ON":

Probe Heat switches selected "ON": 1. Full power to static ports and AOA vane. 2. Pitot probes 1/2 power with an operating generator on-line.

What is the purpose of

To de-ice the static ports during "Ground Icing"

the "Probe Heat"

conditions.

switches? What is required to

An engine generator must be on-line.

provide power to the "pitot probes" during ground operations? Landing gear position

ED #1 Primary Page

is displayed where? At what times is the

1. Gear selected down.

Landing Gear position

2. Flaps selected down.

indicator displayed?

3. BTMS temperatures not normal. 4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed message.

How many PSS sensors

Main Gear: 2 (Dual PSS Sensors for redundancy)

are there for the landing gear?

Nose Gear: 2 (Dual PSS Sensors for redundancy)

Main Gear? / Nose Gear? At what time is the

30 seconds after:

landing gear indication system removed from

1. Gear is up and locked.

view on the Primary

2. Flaps are up.

Page? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Which hydraulic

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3. BTMS system indicates normal temperatures. Hydraulic 4. No FlapSystem or Slat #3 1/2 speed message.

system powers the landing gear system? At what time does

During "Alternate Gear Extension".

Hydraulic System #2 assist Hydraulic System #3 in regards to landing gear extension and retraction? Does the main landing

NO

gear doors "fully enclose" the main gear

The tire assembly remains exposed.

wheel bays? Does the nose landing

Yes

gear doors "fully enclose" the nose gear wheel bay? What will be the

Amber hash marks (------) are displayed.

indication on the landing gear indicator while the gear is in transit? What will be displayed

The amber hash marks (-----) will turn RED.

on the landing gear indicator if the gear stays "In Transient" too long? The landing gear

False

handle is mechanically connected to the landing gear system. TRUE or FALSE How are the "up-locks"

Hydraulically

for the landing gear system released using https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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the normal extension system? How is the "Main Gear"

1. Hydraulically

locked in the down

2. Two (2) over-center springs

position? Does the "Main Gear"

Inwards

retract inwards or outwards? How are the "Main

They are mechanically fixed to the main gear strut.

Gear" doors attached to the airframe? What is provided to

Anti-Spin Mechanism

stop the tire rotation of the nose gear following retraction? How is the nose

1. Mechanical Up-Lock assembly

landing gear held up?

2. Over-center mechanism

How is the "up-lock"

Hydraulically

released when extending the nose

Note:

landing gear?

Utilizes the Aux #2 actuator powered by Hydraulic System #2.

How is the nose gear

Over-center mechanism

held in the down

(Same mechanism which held it up)

position? In which direction

Forward

does the nose landing gear retract? Is the nose gear bay

Yes

fully enclosed with the gear retracted? With the gear selected

No

down, do the nose

They remain open.

gear doors close and cover the gear bay? What feature on the

A "Down Lock" solenoid.

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landing gear system prevents an "UP" selection of the gear while on the ground? If a PSS fails after

"Down-lock Release" button must be depressed to

takeoff in the landing

mechanically retract the solenoid pin.

gear system, what must be accomplished to raise the gear? The landing Gear Horn

1. Flaps are selected beyond 20 degrees with the gear

will sound when:

up. "OR" 2. The speed is below a predetermined value. "OR" 3. One (1) thrust lever is selected toward IDLE with the gear up.

The landing gear horn

1. Flaps are selected more than 30 degrees with the gear

"Cannot be Muted"

up.

when:

"OR" 2. Both thrust levers are retarded to idle.

At what times will the

During windshear conditions.

landing gear horn "automatically" mute? What is indicated on

"HORN MUTED" advisory message on Status Page.

EICAS when the gear horn is manually selected to "MUTE"? The "TOO LOW GEAR"

1. Within 500 feet AGL

warning will sound

"AND"

when:

2. Below 190 kts.

When is the main gear

1. Failure of the landing gear control circuitry.

"Emergency Extension"

2. Loss of System #3 Hydraulic pressure.

procedure used? What is accomplished

MAIN Gear:

by pulling the

Mechanically releases the uplocks. Allows gear to free fall down assisted by Hydraulic

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System #2 pressure.

Handle"? NOSE GEAR: Hydraulic system #2 pressure releases the uplocks and Once the landing gear

the slipstream forces the nose gear down. Hydraulic System #3 pressure must be restored.

is extended using the alternate system, what must happen in order to raise the gear again using the normal system? What Hydraulic

Hydraulic system #2 "Aux Actuator" assists in main gear

systems are required

extension.

to extend the gear using the "Alternate

Hydraulic System #2 assists in releasing the "Uplocks" for

Gear Extension"

the nose gear.

method? What caution lights

The nose gear will not extend if "Both" the "#2 HYD LOW

would prevent the

PRESS" and the #3 HYD LOW PRESS" caution lights are

nose gear from

illuminated.

extending using the

System #2 pressure is required to release the uplocks for

alternate gear

the nose gear!

extension method? Main landing gear

Single Loop overheat detection wire.

bays contains what to provide for "Over-Heat Protection"? When conducting the

MLG BAY OVHT:

"Main Landing Gear

Checks the continuity of the loops.

Overheat" test, what

Generates a "MLG BAY OVHT" warning on EICAS if the

are you actually

test was successful.

testing in the following switch positions?

MLG OVHT FAIL:

MLG BAY OVHT / MLG

Simulates a failure of the overheat "Detection" system.

OVHT FAIL

Generates a "MLG OVHT FAIL" caution on EICAS if successful.

Is the nose wheel

NO

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steering system

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It is a "Steer By Wire" system.

directly connected to the rudder pedals? What hydraulic system

Hydraulic System #3

powers the nose wheel steering system? What are the steering

POWERED:

limits of the nose

80 degrees left and right

wheel steering system?

UNPOWERED: 8 degress left and right FREE CASTORS: 80 degrees left and right

During towing

360 degrees

operations the torque links can be removed to provide what degree of nose wheel castor? Where is the torque

On the back of the nose gear assembly.

links actually located on the nose wheel steering system? What is indicated if a

A "STEERING INOP" caution message is displayed on

failure occurs within

EICAS.

the nose steering system?

System will default to the free castor mode (+/- 80 degrees) steering.

If the nose wheel

The nose wheel steering will default to the free castor

steering system

mode of 80 degrees.

"faults", what will automatically happen? How many "Fuse

4

Plugs" are there on each tire? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What are the wheel

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Steel Brakes

brakes constructed of? The inboard brakes are

Hydraulic System #3

powered by what hydraulic system? The outboard brakes

Hydraulic System #2

are powered by what hydraulic system? In order to check the

The parking brake must be set.

"Brake Wear Indicator Pins" what must be accomplished?

Normally how many of

All Four Wheels.

the main wheels will "hold" if the parking brake is applied? With the hydraulics

Only the "Inboard Brakes".

"OFF" which wheel brakes will hold? With the hydraulics

6 brake applications.

"OFF" how many parking brake applications will the accumulator permit? Loss of either

50%

Hydraulic System #2 or Hydraulic System #3 will cause a loss of ____% of braking capacity. The "Anti-Skid Control

Independently

Unit" will regulate brake pressure to each wheel brake

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"Independently" or At what times is the "Together"?

1. With the parking brake set.

Anti-Skid system

2. Below 10 kts.

disabled?

3. Anti-Skid System selected to "OFF". 4. In-flight

What conditions must

1. Switch must be selected to "ARM".

be met to "ARM" the

2. Parking brake must be OFF.

Anti-Skid system?

3. At least one (1) main landing gear must be down.

When will the Anti-Skid

1. Above 35 kts

system become

"OR"

"OPERATIONAL" after

2. Weight on Wheels + 5 seconds (with wheel speed

landing?

sensor failure)

At what times does the

1. During aircraft power-up.

"Anti-Skid" system test

2. Continuously thereafter.

itself? Where are the brake

On the EICAS ED #2 Status Page.

temperatures displayed? Brake temperatures are

1. Landing Gear is extended.

displayed when:

2. Flaps or Slats are extended. 3. Brake temperatures are not normal. 4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed Message.

What is the numerical

1 to 20

range of the brake temperature system (BTMS)? Each number on the

95 degrees F

BTMS system

35 degrees C

represents an increase of how many degrees? Is it required to

Yes

confirm that the brake temperatures are within the normal https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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operating range prior to takeoff? Once the brake

The "BTMS OVHT WARN RESET" button must be pressed

temperatures cool

to restore the color logic of the indicator.

following a brake overheat warning, what must be accomplished? Once the BTMS system

YES ... but the color logic must be reset.

displays an overheat, will the numerical values read accurately as the brake temperatures cool? If the BTMS monitoring

(----) (----) (----) (----)

system fails, what will

Amber Dashes

the indicator show? The EFIS system

4 .... 2 on each side!

consists of how many CRT displays? Each pilot is provided

1. Primary Flight Display (PFD)

flight information on

2. Multi-Function Display (MFD)

two displays with the EFIS system. What are the display names? What are the 7

1. HSI

available NAV formats

2. Nav Air Sector Map

for the Multi-Function

3. FMS Map

Displays (MFD's)?

4. FMS Plan Map (North Up) 5. Radar 6. EGPWS 7. TCAS

What other displays

1. Primary Flight Display (PFD)

can be transferred to

2. EICAS Display

display on the MultiFunction Display through the https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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"Reversionary Display Panel"? What is the purpose of

It "directly controls" what is displayed on the Multi-

the "Reversionary

Function Display.

Display Panel"?

Used in the event that a Primary Flight Display (PFD) or EICAS display were to fail.

What is the purpose of

It provides an alternate source of data to "Both" the PFD

the "Source Selector

displays at the same time.

Panel"? Each Display Control

NORM

Panel will control its respective EFIS displays provided that _____ is selected on the Source Selection Panel. Selecting the "Source

It will allow the selected Display Control Panel to

Selection Panel's"

operate both the pilot's and First Officer's EFIS displays.

DISPL CONT knob to

It is used in the event one Display Control Panel were to

either the 1 or 2

fail.

position will do what? If the Source Selection

Either DCP1 or DCP2, depending on which alternate

Panel's "DSPL CONT"

control was selected.

knob were selected to either the 1 or 2 position, what would be displayed on the Primary Flight Displays? What is the purpose of

It selects the altimeter settings and speeds.

the "Air Data Reference Panel"? The EFIS "Comparison

Pilot and First Officer's Primary Flight Displays.

Monitor" compares what two (2) instruments? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If the EFIS

A caution message will be displayed on the pilot's and

"Comparator Monitor"

First Officer's Primary Flight Display indicating what

detects a mismatch,

system has mismatched (HDG, ROL,IAS,ALT,LOC,GS,RA).

how is it displayed to the pilots? What information does

1. Heading: Difference of more than 6 degrees

the "Comparison

2. Roll: Difference of 4 degrees before glideslope

Monitor" compare and

capture

what are the

Difference of 3 degrees after glideslope capture

tolerances?

3. IAS: Airspeed difference of more than 10 kts 4. Altitude: Altitude difference of more than 60 feet 5. Localizer: Any difference between receivers 6. Glideslope: Any difference between receivers 7. Radar Altitude: Only monitored within 1,000 feet AGL

What are the

1. Captain's Pitot Tube (P1)

components of the

2. First Officer's Pitot Tube (P2)

Pitot Static System?

3. Standby Pitot Tube (P3) 4. Captain's Static Source (S1) 5. First Officer's Static Source (S2) 6. Static Source to ISI (S3)

Where is the "Total Air

Below the First Officer's side window.

Temperature" probe physically located on the aircraft? What references can

1. Altimeter

the "Air Data Reference

2. MDA

Panel" set?

3. DA 4. Takeoff Speeds (V1, V2 and Vr) 5. Target Speed (VT)

What is the range of

40 to 400 kts

the "Airspeed Tape" along the left side of the Primary Flight Display? What errors are

1. IAS

displayed on the

2. ALT

Primary Flight Display

3. V/S

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with "Air Data Flags" (Red Boxed)? "Low Flap Speed Cues"

Red/Black barber pole on speed tape

are displayed on the Primary Flight Display by what means? "High Flap Speed

Red/Black Barber pole on speed tape.

Cues" are displayed on the Primary Flight Display by what means? What is the function of

It displays where the airspeed will be in 10 seconds at

the "Trend Vector"?

the current trend.

The airspeed "Trend

Above .45 mach

Vector" will only show above what airspeed? At what airspeed will

Above .45 Mach

the "Mach Number" be displayed on the Primary Flight Display? At what airspeed will

Below .40 Mach

the "Mach Number" disappear from the display on the Primary Flight Display? When is "Speed

Anytime that the autopilot is engaged and the ALT/ALTS

Reversion" active?

mode is not engaged.

What will occur during

The aircraft will pitch up to slow the airspeed.

"Speed Reversion" if the maximum airspeed is exceeded? At what times will the

Approaching the selected altitude (Acquisition Mode):

altitude alert sound?

- Alert sounds when within 1,000 feet

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What does the

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Altitude Deviations (Deviation Mode): Numerical readout flash "AMBER". - Alert sounds whenwill deviations of 300 feet occur

numerical readout of the altitude alert do when deviations exceed 300 feet? With "Vertical Nav"

Altitude Tape: Snowflake

selected (Vnav) what

VSI: Doughnut

symbols will indicate the appropriate rate of

NOTE:

descent on:

The snowflake and Doughnut will only display when:

Altitude Tape: ? /

- At least a 100 fpm climb rate is indicated.

Vertical Speed

- At least a 500 fpm descent rate is indicated.

Indicator: ? What is the "Altitude

-20 to 2,500 feet

Range" displayed for the Radar Altimeter? The "Radar Altitude"

Within 200 feet AGL: AMBER Cross Hatched

readout will display

Above DA: GREEN

what when:

Below DA: AMBER

Within 200 feet AGL / Above DA / Below DA: ? What is the digital

0 to 999 feet

range which may be set by the pilot when setting MDA or DA? Selected Decision

By a Cyan (blue) reference line.

Height / MDA is display on the "Altitude Tape" how? If the Radar Altimeter

By a red Boxed "RA" displayed on the Primary Flight

data becomes "Invalid"

Display.

how is it indicated? What is the purpose of

In "MAG Mode" it will cause the compass to slew to a

the "Slew Switch" on

new value, however it will return to its original value

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the Compass Control

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once the switch is released.

Panel? In "DG Mode" it will slew the compass in the selected If the AHARS are

direction. ON GROUND: Do not move the aircraft!

indicating "ATT/HDG ALIGNING DO NOT

IN FLIGHT: Hold the aircraft "Straight and Level" for the

TAXI" what action

first 30 seconds of alignment.

should be taken when: ON GROUND / IN FLIGHT: ? The "IRS system" can

(NAV) NAV Mode

be operated in two (2)

(ATT) ATTITUDE Mode

modes. What are they? What is the difference

NAV mode will supply all position data.

between the NAV mode and the ATT

ATT mode will not supply "position data".

mode of the IRS system? Is it possible to re-

No

align the IRS while inflight and in "NAV" mode? How long must the

3 minutes

aircraft remain stationary when realigning the IRS while in "NAV" mode? One (1) brick

2 Balls

deflection on the "Slip / Skid" indicator is equal to how many balls width on a conventional slip/skid indicator? What does "AMI" stand

Alpha Margin Indicator

for in relation to https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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windshear indications? What does the "Alpha

It represents the maximum pitch allowed prior to

Margin Indicator"

reaching "Stick Shaker".

represent when displayed on the Primary Flight Display during a windshear encounter? How long will the

For the longer of:

Alpha Margin Indicator (whiskers) be displayed

30 seconds after the windshear encounter has ended

following a windshear

"or"

encounter?

60 seconds from windshear "Onset" minimum

An "AMBER" windshear

Increasing performance

alert is displayed for what? A "RED" windshear

Decreasing Performance

alert is displayed for what? Each circle on the

1/4 degrees of deviation

"glideslope" display is equal to what?

NOTE: There are 2 circles above and 2 circles below the "On Glideslope" attitude.

The Primary Flight

Pitch Exceeds: +30 degrees to -20 degrees

Display will "DeClutter" when:

Bank Exceeds: 65 degrees

Pitch Exceeds: ? / Bank Exceeds: ? During the "De-

Only Essential Information

Clutter" function of the Primary Flight Displays, what type of information is displayed? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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If the Primary Flight

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When the Pitch and Roll limits are restored.

Displays have "DeCluttered", when will normal operation resume? When operating in the

5 degrees deviation

"VOR Mode", what does each dot of deviation represent on the Primary Flight Display? When operating in the

1 degrees deviation

"LOC Mode", what does each dot of deviation represent on the Primary Flight Display? When operating in the

5 NM deviation

"FMS Mode", what does each dot of deviation represent on the Primary Flight Display? What are the "NAV

1. VOR 1 / LOC 1

SOURCE" selections

2. VOR 2 / LOC 2

available to display on

3. FMS 1 / FMS 2

the Primary Flight

4. OFF

Displays? When displaying

Display indications are "AMBER" in color.

"Cross Side" information how is it identified? If the #1 DME is in

1. An amber "H" is displayed next to the frequency on the

"HOLD" function, how

Nav radio.

is it displayed?

2. An amber "H" is displayed on the PFD next to the NAV

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The ADF and VOR "Bearing Pointers" on

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Identifier and the station identifier information is Bearings from #1 receivers are: Single Line (Magenta) removed. Bearings from #2 receivers are: Double Line (Cyan)

the primary Flight Display can display both ADF #1 and ADF #2 as well as VOR #1 and VOR #2. How can you tell the needles apart? What is indicated if a

The associated Display Control Panel has failed.

RED Boxed "DCP 1 or

Select the "Source Selection Panels" DSPL CONT switch

DCP 2" warning is

to the opposite Display Control Panel.

displayed on the

The selected Display Control Panel will now operate

Primary Flight

both sides.

Displays? If a CRT overheats,

A red "DISPLY TEMP" is indicated on the associated

what is displayed?

display.

If a CRT overheats is it

YES

possible to regain the

It will automatically resume operation once the display

displays function?

cools again.

What information can

1. HSI

be displayed on the

2. Navaid Sector Map

Multi-Function

3. FMS Map

Display?

4. FMS Plan Map (North Up Map) 5. Radar 6. TCAS / EGPWS 7. Maintenance Diagnostics 8. EICAS Information as Reversionary (Status Page) 9. PFD as Reversionary

Rotating the "Format"

1. HSI

knob on the Display

2. Nav Sector Map

Control Panel will

3. FMS Map

cycle through what

4. FMS Plan Map (North Up Map)

different formats?

5. Radar

The "Radar" will not

1. HSI

overlay on what Multi-

2. FMS Plan Map

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Function Display formats? The "Terrain" format

1. HSI

will not overlay on

2. FMS Plan Map

what other Multi-

3. Radar

Function Display Formats? What functions will the

1. Altitude

Integrated Standby

2. Airspeed

Indicator (ISI) provide?

3. Attitude

What source powers

Battery Bus

the Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI)? Where does the

NAV #1 or the Backup Tuning Unit (BTU)

Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI) receive its navigation data from? What does the "CAGE"

It will reset the horizon to 0 degrees when held in for 2

button do on the

seconds.

Integrated Standby Instrument (ISI)? What does the "STD"

Changes the barometric pressure to 29.92" HG.

button do on the Integrated Standby Instrument (ISI)? How can you tell what

A dot will appear above the selected mode on the

mode the clock is

clock.

displaying? What is the warning

1. Stalls

"Priority" order of the

2. Windshear

EGPWS system?

3. Ground Prox

How many VHF

Two (2)

"Navigation Radios" are installed? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Each "Navigational

One (1) VOR/DME

Radio" is capable of

Two additional DME Channels

receiving what? At what times will the

Only when "Auto Tune" is selected and:

FMS tune the #1 DME channel?

1. DME Hold is "OFF" 2. Nav Source is selected to FMS (White Needles)

What is the FMS

1. ADF Radio Frequencies

display capable of

2. Transponder Codes

tuning?

3. Channel #1 of Nav Radios 4. Com Frequencies

What three (3)

1. Active Frequency

frequencies are

2. Standby Frequency

displayed on the "Top

3. Recall Frequency

Page" of the RTU's? When the "DME Hold"

1. An amber "H" is displayed on the RTU Main and Top

is selected what is

pages.

displayed to indicate

2. Amber "H" is displayed on the PFD and MFD.

its selection?

(Replaces the NM indication)

With the "Auto Tune"

DME Channels 2 and 3

disabled, what navigation frequencies will the FMS utilize for navigation? What three (3)

1. VOR

navigational sources

2. LOC

may be selected using

3. FMS

the "Nav Source" knob on the Display Control Panel? ADF needle #1 on the

Single Line / Magenta

Primary Flight Display is shown as a _____ line needle and colored what color? ADF needle #2 on the

Double Line / Cyan (Blue)

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Primary Flight Display is shown as a _____ line needle and colored what color? In order for the ADF

A valid ADF frequency must be selected for the pointers

needles to display on

to display.

the PFD's what must be selected? ADF bearing pointers

1. Primary Flight Display

may be displayed on

2. Multifunction Display

what two (2) instruments? From what instruments

1. RTU's

may the frequencies

2. FMS CDU

be changed for the ADF's? How many

Two (2)

transponders are installed on the aircraft? From what panel are

Backup RTU

the transponders selected from? Can the transponders

No ... Receive Only!

"interrogate" while on the ground? How many antennas

Two (2)

does each

Upper Fuselage and Lower Fuselage.

transponder have and where are they located? If the transponder is in

WHITE

the "STBY" mode what color will its frequency be displayed as? If the transponder is in

GREEN

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the "1 or 2" position what color will its frequency be displayed as? The "Enhanced Ground

1. Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF)

Proximity Warning

2. Terrain / Obstacle Awareness Display (TAAD)

System" (EGPWS) has two databases, what are they? The Terrain Clearance

1. Worldwide coverage of all airports with at least a

Floor (TCF) database

3,500 foot runway.

includes what?

2. Provides increased protection around the center point of airports.

The Terrain / Obstacle

1. All of U.S with parts of Mexico, Canada, and the

Awareness Display

Bahamas.

(TAAD) database

2. All known obstacles at least 100 feet high (except man

includes what?

made). 3. Provides protection for potential conflicts ahead of the aircraft!

Which has

Windshear Warnings

precedence, windshear warnings or ground prox warnings? What is the "Priority" of

1. Stall Warning

ground prox

2. Windshear Warning

warnings?

3. Ground Prox Warning

The EGPWS utilizes

Shading or Low Density:

"color logic" to display

No immediate threat to aircraft!

terrain information ahead of the aircraft.

Solid or High Density:

What is meant by the

Immediate Danger

following colors?

Voice Warning is heard

Shading or Low

EGPWS switchlight flashes

Density? / Solid or High Density? What will automatically

The terrain overlay will automatically display on the MFD

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occur if conflicting

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if it isn't already displayed.

terrain is detected ahead of the aircraft?

Range is automatically set to 10 NM "Caution Terrain" or "Caution Obstacle" voice is heard Ground Prox switchlight flashes

When receiving a

60 seconds

"Caution" from the EGPWS system, how long is available prior to impact? When receiving a

30 seconds

"Warning" from the EGPWS system, how long is available prior to impact? What two (2) warnings

1. Terrain Warnings

may be inhibited on

2. Flap Warnings

the EGPWS system? The EGPWS system

1st alert: (Soft Alert)

will alert the pilots if

More than 1.3 dots below glide path

the aircraft descends

Audio volume is at 1/2

below the glide path

"Glideslope" audio is heard

during approach. What are the two (2) alerts?

2nd Alert: (Hard Alert) Within 300' AGL / 2 dots low Audio volume is at "FULL" "Glideslope" audio is heard

During a "Windshear

2 seconds after a "Windshear Warning".

alert" the autopilot is automatically disconnected after how long? TCAS indications are

1. Primary Flight Display (above VSI)

presented on what two

2. Multifunction Display

(2) instruments? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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TCAS "Other Traffic" is

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Blue "Open" diamond

displayed how? TCAS "Proximity

Blue "Solid" Diamond

Traffic" is displayed how? What is the definition

Within 1,200 feet / 6 nautical miles of your aircraft.

of "Proximity Traffic" with regards to the TCAS System? A TCAS "Traffic

Target aircraft is within 40 seconds CPA. Displayed as a

Advisory" alert is

"Solid Yellow Circle".

generated when, and how is it displayed?

A TCAS "Resolution

Target aircraft's approach is within 25 seconds CPA.

Advisory" alert is

Displayed as a "Solid Red Square".

generated when and how is it displayed? If a TCAS "Resolution

5 seconds

Advisory" is generated, you must respond within what time frame? If a TCAS "Corrective

2.5 seconds

RA" is generated, you must respond within what time frame? If an arrow appears

The target aircraft is either climbing or descending at

next to a TCAS target

least 500 fpm in the direction of the arrow.

what does it mean? All TCAS "RA

Takeoff: No RA's below 1,100 feet.

Advisories" are

No Descent commands below 1,200 feet.

inhibited when? Takeoff: Landing:

Landing: No RA's below 900 feet. No Descent commands below 1,000 feet.

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The TCAS system "will

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1,450 feet agl

not" instruct you to "Increase Descent" when below what altitude? It is possible to have

1. Airport elevations above 5,300 feet.

insufficient

2. Bank angle in excess of 15 degrees.

performance to follow

3. Single Engine operations.

a TCAS "Resolution

4. Thrust below normal "Takeoff Settings".

Advisory" under the

5. Unusual aircraft configurations.

following conditions:

6. Reversal RA commands.

TCAS modes (TA Only

Remote Tuning Unit (RTU)

etc.) may be selected on what instrument? The TCAS "altitude"

REL: Shows the altitude as a difference between the

format of target

aircraft and the intruder.

aircraft may be displayed in two

ABS: Shows the altitude of the intruder aircraft in

different modes. What

reference to barometric pressure altitude (FL330).

are they? When the TCAS system

9,900 feet above / 2,700 feet below

is selected to the "ABOVE" mode, what are the altitude limits? When the TCAS system

2,700 feet Above / 9,900 feet Below

is selected to the "Below" mode, what are the altitude limits? When the TCAS system

9,900 feet Above / 9,900 feet Below

is selected to the "ABOVE and BELOW" modes, what are the altitude limits? How can the "Ground

By pressing the center of the "Gain Control" knob on the

Clutter Suppression"

radar.

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mode of the radar unit be activated? When the "Ground

12 seconds

Clutter Suppression" mode is activated on the radar, how long will it suppress clutter? Pushing the "Sector

30 degrees and 60 degrees

Scan" pushbutton on the radar control panel will cycle between what scan arcs? What is the purpose of

It selects which radar control panel will operate both

the "Transfer"

radars in the event one control panel fails.

pushbutton on the radar control panel? What is the purpose of

It will turn "ON" and "OFF" the automatic stabilization

the "STAB" pushbutton

mode of the radar antennae.

on the radar control

Used in the event of a "USTB" caution message.

panel?

Selecting the stabilization "OFF" allows you to manually control the radar antennae tilt.

How many satellites

24 total Nav Star satellites (21 active and 3 spares)

are there in orbit to provide GPS data? How many satellites

There are always at least 4 satellites in view at any given

are "always" in view to

point.

provide navigation? Two (2) dimensional

3

navigation requires at least _____ GPS satellites. Three (3) dimensional

4

navigation requires at least _____ GPS satellites. How many satellites

2

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can be manually disabled through the FMS if they become disabled? Oxygen is supplied by

1. Cockpit (gaseous)

two (2) independent

2. Cabin (chemical reaction)

systems. What are they? If the cockpit oxygen

The green "blowout disc" will be missing next to the

system "thermally

airstair door.

discharges" how is it indicated? At what PSI is the

1,850 psi

cockpit oxygen bottle full? Where is the oxygen

Right side of nose, aft of radome.

service panel physically located on the aircraft? Where is the oxygen

In the wardrobe closet behind an access panel.

cylinder physically located on the aircraft for the cockpit system? Where is the oxygen

EICAS Status Page.

bottle pressure displayed? The oxygen pressure

Below 960 PSI

readout will turn "amber" when? What size oxygen

77 cubic foot bottle

bottle does the CRJ700 have? At what oxygen bottle

Below 960 PSI

level for the cockpit system will the "OXY https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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LOW PRESS" caution illuminate? The cockpit oxygen

NORMAL: Allows a mixture of ambient air and oxygen.

mask regulators have three settings, what are

100%: Provides 100% oxygen "On Demand".

they and what do they provide?

EMERGENCY: Provides 100% oxygen "Under Pressure Continuously".

At what point will the

Above 30,000 feet "Pressure Altitude".

cockpit oxygen mask deliver "Emergency" oxygen regardless of the mask setting? What does the "Yellow

That oxygen is flowing!

Cross Hair" indicator indicate? What does the "ON

That the oxygen shutoff valve is "OPEN". Press the

FLAG" indicate when it

"RESET" lever to close.

is visible on the left compartment door? What is the correct

1. Re-stow the mask

procedure to re-stow

2. Close the compartment doors.

the oxygen mask in the

3. Press the reset lever to shutoff the oxygen shutoff

cockpit compartment?

valve.

At what times will the

1. Masks have automatically deployed above 14,000 feet.

"PASS O2" switchlight

2. Masks have been manually deployed by pressing the

illuminate?

switchlight. NOTE: Pressing the switchlight "sends the signal to deploy the masks".

How much oxygen will

13 minutes of continuous flow to 3 masks.

the "Passenger Service Units" provide? Oxygen in the

Chemical Generators.

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provided for by what means? How many oxygen

3

masks are there in each PSU in the cabin? How many oxygen

2

masks are there in the overhead compartments near each flight attendant station and the lavatory? When will the

Cabin altitudes above 14,000 feet.

passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy? What controls the

Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module (CPAM)

dropping of the oxygen masks? How many "portable

4

oxygen bottles" are there in the cabin? Each portable oxygen

2

bottle in the cabin has how many masks? The masks attached to

2 liter

the portable oxygen

4 liter

bottles for the cabin provide both ____ liter and ____ liter connections. How many PBE's are

4 PBE's

there on the aircraft and what are their

- one behind the captain's seat

locations?

- one in the wheelchair stowage compartment

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- one in the forward cabin overhead bin (left side) How many "Emergency

- one behind the last row of seats in the cabin 2

Flashlights" are there in the cockpit and where

- Behind Captain's seat

are they located?

- Behind First Officer's seat

How many portable

4

fire extinguishers are there on the aircraft

- One is located behind the first officer's seat.

and where are they

- One is installed on the aft cabin wall.

located?

- One is installed in the compartment above the crew bag stowage closet. - One is installed in the wheelchair stowage compartment.

At what altitude will

30,000 feet Pressure Altitude

the cockpit oxygen masks deliver 100% oxygen regardless of switch position? The "Passenger

13 minutes

Service Units" (PSU's) provide oxygen for how long? What are the

1. Engines

"Pneumatic" Sources of

2. APU

pressurized air?

3. External Air Cart

What aircraft systems

1. Wing Anti-Ice

are powered by

2. Cowl Anti-Ice

pneumatic bleed air?

3. Pressurization 4. Air Conditioning 5. Engine Starting

How many "Air

Two (2)

Conditioning System Controllers" (ACSC) are there on the aircraft? What is the purpose of

1. Controls automatic bleed air switching.

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the "Air Conditioning

2. Controls the Air Conditioning System.

System Controllers"?

3. Monitors duct pressures. 4. Monitors the position of "ALL" bleed air valves and

Where are the "Air

anti-ice valves. Aft Equipment Bay

Conditioning System Controllers" (ACSC) physically located on the aircraft? Each "Air Conditioning

You Can't!

System Controller" has two channels A & B. How can you tell which is the active channel?

When does the "active"

On a Daily basis.

channel of the Air Conditioning System Controller alternate? What is the purpose of

It divides the bleed air manifold into two separate

the "Isolation Valve"?

systems.

Is the isolation valve

Electrically

electrically or pneumatically operated? If electrical power is

It will remain in the last energized position.

removed, what will happen to the isolation valve? What is the purpose of

Controls the operation of 10th stage bleed air when

the "High Pressure"

needed.

bleed valve? What is required to

1. 10 stage bleed air pressure.

"OPEN" the Engine

2. Signal from the respective ACSC controller.

"High Pressure" Bleed Valve? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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The aircraft's bleed air

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

6th stage

system is normally powered from ____stage bleed air. Under "High Demand"

10 Stage

the High Pressure Bleed Valve will open and supply ____ stage bleed air to the system. Is it possible to tell if

No

10th stage bleed air is being supplied to the system?

Do the High Pressure

Closed

Bleed Valves fail safe "OPEN" or "CLOSED"? At what times will the

1. Loss of ACSC signal.

engine "High Pressure"

2. Engine Shutdown

Bleed Valves close

3. Engine Fire Pushlight is pressed.

automatically? What is the purpose of

It regulates bleed air to maintain a constant pressure

the Engine Bleed

within the bleed air manifold.

Valve? The Engine Bleed

Pressure Regulating

Valve could be known as a ______ valve. Is the Engine Bleed

Closed

Valve fail safed "OPEN" or "CLOSED"? How can the Engine

By pressing the Engine Fire Pushlight.

Bleed Valve be closed? What is the purpose of

It regulates the bleed air output of the APU to pressurize

the APU Load Control

the left side of the bleed air manifold.

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Valve? What controls the

The APU ECU.

APU's Load Control Valves operation? Bleed air from the APU

Left Side

is supplied to only one side of the bleed air manifold. Which side is it? Is the APU Load

Closed

Control Valve fail safed "OPEN" or "CLOSED"? At what times will the

1. Loss of ACSC signal

APU Load Control

2. APU shutdown

Valve close automatically? There are four (4) "One

One in each engines 6th stage bleed air duct to prevent

Way Check Valves"

backflow of 10th stage bleed air.

within the bleed air

One at the External air connector.

system. Where are they

One at the APU bleed air duct.

located? Where is the "External

Below the Left engine nacelle.

Ground Air" connector physically located on the aircraft? Is the external ground

No

air connector depicted on the ECS synoptic page? What automatically

The Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)

selects the appropriate bleed air source? What does the Air

1. Left Engine Bleed Valve.

Conditioning System

2. Left Engine High Pressure Bleed Valve.

Controller #1 control? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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What does the Air Conditioning System

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3. Apu Load Control Valve (normally) 1. Right Engine Bleed Valve 4. Isolation Valve (normally) 2. Right Engine High Pressure Valve

Controller #2 control? Acts as a backup to power the APU Load Control Valve and Isolation Valve if ACSC #1 fails. Bleed air source may

Bleed Air Control Panel.

be manually selected from what panel? The "Bleed Source"

The bleed air switch must be selected to "MANUAL".

rotary switch and "Isolation Valve" switch will only function under what circumstance? If the bleed air source

No

is selected to "MANUAL" with the APU selected as the source, will bleed air supply be automatically shutoff above 25,000 feet msl? If the bleed air source

NO ... the Load Control Valve will close and shutoff

is selected to

bleed air!

"MANUAL" and anti-ice is used, will the bleed source automatically transfer to the engines? What is indicated if a

It is in indication that the bleed manifold pressure has

"LEFT ENG BLEED" or

increased beyond normal range and the ACSC has

"RIGHT ENG BLEED"

closed the applicable engine bleed valve.

caution message is displayed? What source of bleed

APU

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air "Always" has priority while on the ground? What ensures that the

ACSC Interlock

engine bleed valves remain closed while on

The APU has priority while on the ground for supplying

the ground?

bleed air. The ACSC Interlock prevents the engines from supplying bleed air.

What normally

Air Conditioning System Controller #1.

controls the Isolation

If ACSC #1 fails then ACSC #2 will control the Isolation

Valve?

Valve.

The Isolation Valve is

Load Control Valve

directly related to what other valves position?

LCV OPEN = Isolation Valve OPEN LCV CLOSED = Isolation Valve CLOSED

What commands the

The engine Start Switch.

Isolation Valve to OPEN? With the "Bleed Air

1. Thrust levers reduced below "TO" position.

Source" selected to

"AND"

the "Auto" position,

2. Gear retracted

when does bleed air

"AND"

transfer back to the

3. Flaps less than 20 degrees.

engines after takeoff? With the bleed air

1. APU Running

source selected to the

"AND"

"AUTO" position, when

2. Gear Selected down.

will bleed air be

"OR"

transferred back to the

3. Flaps selected greater than 20 degrees.

APU during landing? What prevents the APU

The ACSC Interlock

from providing bleed air when the anti-ice is

With the anti-ice selected "ON" the ACSC Interlock will

selected "ON"?

close the APU Load Control Valve.

Bleed Air Leak

Anti-Ice Leak Detection System (AILS)

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for by what system? The Anti-Ice Leak

1. Left Bleed Duct

Detection System will

2. Right Bleed Duct

monitor what four (4)

3. Left Wing Anti-Ice

zones?

4. Right Wing Anti-Ice

Does the AILS system

No

monitor for leaks in the engine cowl anti-ice system? What monitors the

A Pressure Transducer.

cowl anti-ice system for bleed air leaks? What method is used

Left and Right Bleed Ducts:

to detect bleed air

Dual Sensing loops

leaks in the following systems?

Wing Leading Edge Anti-Ice Ducts:

Left and Right Bleed

Dual Sensing Loops and Temperature Sensors

Ducts? / Wing Leading Edge Anti-Ice Ducts? /

Engine Cowl Anti-Ice:

Engine Cowl Anti-Ice?

Pressure Transducer

If a bleed air leak is

Respective engine's bleed air valve.

detected within the engine bleed air duct what will automatically close? If a bleed air leak is

Respective Wing Anti-Ice Valve

detected within the Wing Anti-Ice Duct what will automatically close? How does the pressure

It measures the pressure difference between the inner

transducer function to

and outer duct.

detect a bleed air leak within the cowl anti-ice system? The engines supply

1. 6th Stage bleed air

what two sources of

2. 10th stage bleed air

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bleed air? What controls the APU

The APU ECU.

"Load Control Valve"? The APU supplies

The left side only!

bleed air to which side of the bleed air manifold? When will the APU

1. When the APU is shut down.

Load Control Valve

2. When ACSC signal is lost.

(LCV) close? What engines are

General Electric CF34-8C1 (OLD)

installed on the CRJ700 aircraft?

General Electric CF34-8C5B1 (NEW)

What controls each

Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)

engine? What is the "Maximum

12,670 lbs thrust

Thrust" produced for a "Normal Takeoff"? What is the "Maximum

13,790 lbs thrust

Thrust" produced for a "APR Takeoff"? What does "APR" stand

Automatic Power Reserve

for? N1 is actually what

Fan Bypass Airflow

type of airflow? N2 is actually what

Engine Core Airflow

type of airflow? During "Reverse

N1 (Bypass Airflow)

Thrust" operations you are diverting what type of airflow? The N1 Fan is a _____

Single Stage Fan

stage fan connected

Four stage compressor

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stage, low pressure compressor turbine. The N2 is a _____ stage

Two stage Turbine

Turbine connected by

10 stage compressor

a shaft to a ____ stage compressor. Is the Operability Valve

Hydraulically

electrically or hydraulically controlled? What is the function of

Off loads 10 stage bleed air during:

the "Operability Valve"?

1. Engine Starts 2. Times of high aerodynamic loading

What controls the

Engine Fadec System

"Operability Valve"? When the "Operability

Through the top of the engine nacelle.

Valve" off loads bleed air, where is it exhausted? What drives the

The respective engine.

"Accessory Gearbox"? What does the

1. Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps

"Accessory Gearbox"

2. Integrated Drive Generators (IDG's)

drive?

3. Air Turbine Starter 4. Fadec Generator (above 50% N2)

The engines FADEC

1. Fuel Metering

computer controls the

2. Compressor Airflow Management

operation of:

3. Engine Starting and Ignition Control

When does the

Following each engine shutdown.

operable FADEC channel alternate? At what times will both

Only during engine over speeds. Both channels will

FADEC channels

command the FMU to open and close to control the

function together?

over speed.

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What powers the

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Fadec is powered by the ships batteries through 50% N2.

FADEC system? Above 50% N2 the FADEC System has its own generator. If the designated

The ships electrical system will once again pick up the

FADEC alternator fails

load.

how will the FADEC computer become powered again when operating above 50% N2? What are the five (5)

1. SHUTOFF

thrust lever positions?

2. IDLE 3. Climb 4. TOGA 5. APR

Are there any

No

mechanical connections between the thrust levers and the engines? Following an engine

When a 15% N1 mismatch occurs, FADEC will increase

failure, what will

thrust on the operable engine.

FADEC do? Automatically selects "Continuous Ignition" Fadec will also try and relight the failed engine 3 times if the N2 remains within the start envelope (above 45%). "Cruise Range" is

Idle & Climb

between what thrust lever detents? Idle RPM is

FLIGHT IDLE

programmed by the

APPROACH IDLE

FADEC Computer.

LANDING IDLE

There are five (5)

REVERSE IDLE

different "IDLE"

GROUND IDLE

settings what are they?

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At what time does the

1. Thrust Lever to Idle

FADEC computer

2. Gear is up

schedule "Flight Idle"?

3. Flaps are 20 degrees or less Note: RPM "Increases" with pressure altitude.

At what time does the

1. Thrust levers at IDLE

FADEC computer

2. Gear is down

schedule "Approach

3. Flaps are selected more than 20 degrees

Idle"? At what time does the

Weight on Wheels "or" wheel rotation

FADEC computer schedule "Landing

NOTE:

Idle"?

Elevates the engine RPM in preparation for Reverse operations. FADEC will maintain landing Idle RPM for only 5 seconds if thrust reversers are not used!

At what time does the

1. Weight on wheels "or" wheel spin-up

FADEC computer

2. Piggy backs raised

schedule "Reverse

3. Transcowls moving to "OPEN" position

Idle"? At what time does the

1. Thrust levers idle

FADEC computer

2. Weight on wheels

schedule "Ground

3. Automatically set 5 seconds after landing if the thrust

Idle"?

reversers are not used.

The thrust mode

On Ground operations.

annuciator is displayed on the N1 gauge. At what times will it "default" to the "TO" setting? The thrust mode

During approach with the gear selected down "or" flaps

annuciator is displayed

are selected greater than 20 degrees.

on the N1 gauge. At what times will it "default" to the "GA" setting?

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The takeoff thrust

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

65 kts

setting is locked into memory passing what airspeed during the takeoff roll? Does FADEC lock the

No

thrust setting into memory during the takeoff roll if "Flex Thrust" is being used? The FADEC computer

Passing 400 feet "or" TOGA is set.

will lock the thrust setting into memory passing 65 kts during the takeoff roll when using normal thrust. At what point will it "unlock" again? Where can the FLEX

PERF MENU Page of the FMS.

temperature be set? When setting the "Flex

1. The assumed temperature must be higher than actual

Temperature" what

temperature.

restrictions apply for

2. Thrust levers must be at "IDLE" or "SHUTOFF".

the FADEC to accept

3. Weight on wheels for at least 1 minute.

the temperature?

4. Airspeed must be below 65 kts.

Flex power settings are

Magenta

displayed in what color? Engine Bleed Air is

6th Stage

drawn from what two

10th Stage

(2) locations? What does the FADEC

It computes a new MAX N1 value to prevent an engine

computer do

over temp.

automatically when selecting the anti-ice "ON"? https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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Which is the "MASTER"

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Left Engine

engine for the engine sync system? When using the engine

N1 SYNC: 1.5%

sync, what must the

N2 SYNC: 7.5%

values be within for: N1 SYNC ? / N2 SYNC ? What condition must

Thrust levers must be in the "Cruise" range.

occur for the engine sync system to function? During Single Engine

APR is selected when FADEC senses a 15% mismatch in

Operations the FADEC

N1 values.

computer will automatically increase the thrust on the operating engine when? Selecting the "High

It will increase the N1 power schedule to the next higher

Power" switchlight on

value.

the engine control panel will do what?

Cruise = Something More Climb = MCT TOGA = APR

What is the primary

To enable the pilots to select "Max Continuous Thrust"

purpose of the "High

on both engines.

Power" switchlight? What is automatically

MCT

selected by FADEC if an engine fails during a climb with the thrust levers set to the climb position? What is automatically

Something More

selected by FADEC if https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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an engine fails during cruise with the thrust levers set in the "cruise range"? There are two (2)

Ignition A

independent "Ignition

Ignition B

Systems" for each engine. What are their names? What powers "Ignition

AC Essential Bus

System A"? What powers "Ignition

Powered through a "Static Inverter" from the Battery Bus.

System B"? What controls the

FADEC computer

"Ignition Systems"? Which Ignition System

GROUND:

is normally "Active"?

Active ignition is alternated following each engine start.

GROUND ? / FLIGHT ? FLIGHT: Both systems are active. During engine start,

Energized when thrust levers are advanced to "IDLE"

when is the ignition

position.

energized and then

Stops at "Starter Cutout" (50%)

stopped? Under what

1. Flight Operations

circumstances are

2. "CONT IGN" switchlight is selected.

"both" ignition systems

3. Automatically at high angle of attacks near the stick

operative?

shaker.

The "Continuous

1. Near a stall

Ignition" system will

2. Auto engine relight (3 times)

automatically come on when: The "Air Turbine

Pneumatic

Starter" converts _______ energy into mechanical motion. https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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The Air Turbine Starter

CRJ 700 Systems (Extensive) Flashcards | Quizlet

Accessory Gearbox

mechanically engages what? Pneumatic pressure to

1. Engine Bleed Air (Crossbleed Start)

the Air Turbine Starter

2. APU

can come from what

3. External Air Source.

sources? Is it possible to

YES ... By maintenance personnel.

manually open and close the start valve. The engine oil is

Fuel / Oil Heat Exchanger

cooled by what means? At what point does the

Engines Shutdown: Below 80%

"OIL LEVEL LOW"

Engines Operating: Below 57%

status message display for the engines?

Minimum Oil quantity while in-flight is 20%. Minimum Oil quantity while on the ground with the engines shut down is 40%.

What is the minimum

40%

oil quantity required while on the ground? What is the minimum

20%

oil quantity required while in-flight? Engine "vibration" is

MILS

measured in terms of what? Are the engine

N1 Gauge: Displayed on the Primary Page when:

vibration gauges always displayed for:

1. Both engines are running

N1 Gauge? / N2

"AND"

Gauge?

2. Oil pressures are normal

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N2 Gauge: Only displayed when there is a problem. At what point will the

Showsthe When "VIB" vibration amber message exceeds 1.7 onMILS. N2 gauge.

N1 vibration gauge turn "AMBER" in color? At what point will the

When the N2 vibration exceeds "a pre-determined

N2 vibration gauge

value".

display the "VIB" caution? What is the purpose of

It schedules the appropriate fuel flow as determined by

the "Fuel Metering

the FADEC Computer.

Unit" (FMU)? What drives the Fuel

The accessory gearbox.

Metering Unit? The "Thrust Reversers"

N1 Bypass Air

utilize what kind of engine air? What provides the

Hydraulics

power source for moving the Translating Cowls on the thrust reverser system? The translating cowls

Hydraulic System #1

for the left thrust reverser is power by what source? The translating cowls

Hydraulic System #2

for the right thrust reverser is power by what source? Will the thrust

NO ... They will only function with weight on wheels.

reversers operate inflight? The "Thrust Reversers"

1. Switch is selected to "ARM".

will automatically

2. The respective hydraulic system is powered.

"ARM" if:

3. The Essential DC Bus is powered. 4. Weight on Wheels is detected.

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The thrust reverser

1. Hydraulically

"Translating Cowls" are

2. Mechanically

locked in the "stowed" position by what two (2) means? What is meant when an

The respective thrust reverser is in motion to deploy.

amber "REV" icon is displayed on the N1 gauge? What is meant when an

The respective thrust reverser is "Fully Deployed".

green "REV" icon is displayed on the N1 gauge? What is the minimum

75 kts

airspeed at which full reverse thrust may be used? Below 75 kts, what is

60% N1

the maximum N1 that may be used with "Reverse Thrust"? What is the maximum

99.5%

N1 setting allowed (over speed)? If an engine "over

1. Triple Chime

speed" occurs for

2. Respective N1 or N2 gauge turns RED.

either N1 or N2 what

3. "ENG OVER SPEED" warning is displayed on EICAS.

will automatically

4. "ENGINE OVER SPEED" voice message is heard.

occur?

5. Both FADEC computers command the FMU to regulate fuel flow to control the over speed.

What is the maximum

99.4%

N2 rpm allowed prior to over speed? FADEC generated

CYAN

thrust settings are https://quizlet.com/20209236/crj-700-systems-extensive-flash-cards/

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displayed in what color? Flex Thrust settings are

MAGENTA

displayed in what color? Describe the fuel

On the first flight of the day start the left engine first.

check-valve test.

Turn off both boost pumps and look for 3 amber EICAS messages, L and R BOOST PUMPS, and R FUEL LOW PRESS. This check is accomplished to verify that the one way check-valve is operating correctly and motive flow fuel is not pressurizing the opposite engine. Upon completion of the first flight, shut down the left engine and turn off off both boost pumps. Look for the three EICAS messages, L and R BOOST PUMPS, and L FUEL LOW PRESS to check the remaining check-valve.

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