ATM [PDF]

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Câu 1: The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: A. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point B. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point C. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over D. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over Câu 2: The vertical separation minimum shall be nominal 300 meters (1000ft)....: A. Below flight level 290 B. Below an altitude of 8850 meters (29.000ft) C. At or below flight level 290 D. At or below flight level 190 Câu 3: Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flight shall not be operated : A. Below FL 200 B. Below minimum flight level C. Above FL 200 D. Above minimum flight level Câu 4: The DME system shall provide for continuous and accurate indication in the cockpit of the ...of an equipped aircraft from an equipped ground reference point: A. Vertical distance B. Horizontal distance C. Slant range distance

D. all of above Câu 5: Pilots should notify air traffic control a revised estimated time if the reported estimate for the reporting point is found to be in error in excess of: A. +-05 minutes B. 03 minutes C. +- 02 minutes D. +-04 minutes Câu 6: ADS-B is: A. Automatical Depend Surveillance - Broadcast B. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast C. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast D. None of above Câu 7: The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called : A. Essential separation B. Combined separation C. Reduced separation D. Composite separation Câu 8: The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft"on track" uses DME stations, is: A. 20 NM B. 10 NM C. 5 NM

D. 15 NM Câu 9: In order to indicate hijacking the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code: A. 7000 B. 7500 C. 7700 D. 7600 Câu 10: The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing is the definition of...: A. An Airway B. A Holding point C. A Aiming Point D. A Threshold Câu 11: Recording tapes of air ground communication shall be normally kept for at least: A. 30 days B. 15 days C. 20 days D. 10 days Câu 12: An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by: A. 4 ATC Units B. An ATC Unit C. 3 ATC Units D. 2 ATC Units Câu 13: Aeroplane reference field length for code number 2 aerodrome: A. 1800m and over

B. Less than 800m C. 800m up to but not including 1200m D. 1200m up to but not including 1800m Câu 14: Clearance limit mean: A. The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive B. The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly C. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance D. The point at which an aircraft is going to hold

C. Câu 29. transfer rad Câu 15: In local routine and special reports and in METAR and SPECI: cloud amount should be reported using the abbreviations: A. "FEW” (1 to 2 oktas), "OVC" (3 to 4 oktas), "SCT” (5 to 7 oktas) or “BKN” (8 oktas) B. "BKN” (1 to 2 oktas), "SCT” (3 to 4 oktas), “FEW” (5 to 7 oktas) or "OVC" (8 oktas) C. "SCT" (1 to 2 oktas), “FEW” (3 to 4 oktas), “BKN” (5 to 7 oktas) or "OVC" (8 oktas) D. "FEW” (1 to 2 oktas),"SCT" (3 to 4 oktas), "BKN” (5 to 7 oktas) or “OVC" (8 oktas) Câu 16: In ATFN messages, what is ZQZX? A. For Area Control Center B. For a computer facility at Area Control Center C. For an airport control tower D. Military Flight Operational Control Center

Câu 17: Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: A. Only AIP and NOTAM's B. Only NOTAM's and Circulars C. Integrated Aeronautical Information Package D. AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC Câu 18: A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights: A. Air Trraffic Control Services B. Flight Information Services C. Alering Services D. Traffic Advisory Services Câu 19: If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in-approach, A departing aircraft may take off in any direction until.....before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway A. 2 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 5 minutes Câu 20: A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by: A. Less than 730 m

B. 730 m C. Less than 760 m D. 760 m or more Câu 21: Tolerance value used to determine that pressure altitude derived level information displayed to controller is accurate shall be ......out of RVSM airspace: A. F 60 m B. F 90 m C. F 100 m D. F 30 m Câu 22: What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP Vietnam? A. TORA/TODA/ASDA/TODA B. RWY, SWY, CWY C. CWY, SWY D. TORA/TODA/ASDA/TODA, RWY Câu 23: The objectives of Airspace management (ASM) are to: A. Airspace Design B. Balance Capacity and Demand C. Provide Separation D. Provide Capacity Câu 24: When an aircraft is being held in flight, when should vertical separation be provided between holding aircraft and enroute aircraft? A. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding point. B. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 miles flying time of the holding areas

C. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding areas D. When the en-route aircraft is within 15 minutes flying time of the holding areas Câu 25: What's air traffic control instruction: A. The term is used to prefix a message of noncontrol information when it is relayed to an aircraft by other than an air traffic controller. B. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit C. Directives issued by air traffic control for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action. D. None of above Câu 26: Transition Level is : A. The lowest flight level an aircraft can use during its flight B. 300m (1000ft) above transition altitude C. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude D. The lowest flight level that can be given to an arriving aircraft by air traffic unit. Câu 27: Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be.............. A. 10 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 3 minutes D. 15 minutes Câu 28: The order of priority for the transmission of messages in the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network shall be as follows: A. DD,FF, GG, KK, SS

B. DD,FF, SS, GG, KK C. GG, KK, SS, DD, FF D. SS, DD, FF, GG, KK Câu 29: Where the transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data, the control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information regarding the position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as observed by radar or ADSB immediately ........ the transfer. A. prior to B. after C. A and B D. request for Câu 30: Area control service shall be provided by...... A. an area control centre B. the unit providing approach control service in a control zone or in a control area of limited extent which is designated primarily for the provision of approach control service and where no area control centre is established C. A and B D. A or B Câu 31: Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus: A. 30 seconds of UTC at all times B. 1 second of UTC at all times C. 1 minute of UTC at all times D. 10 seconds of UTC at all times

Câu 32: If two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft which shall give the way is : A. The one that has the other on its left B. The one that has the other on its right C. The one that is faster than the other D. The one that has the other on in sight first Câu 33: NOTAM with series C used for: A. International flight B. Domestic flight C. Both of them D. None of them Câu 34: CDM will improve 199119921999, by sharing information and data between airport operators, aircraft operators, ground handlers and air traffic control. A. air traffic management B. air traffic services C. airlines operator D. all of correct Câu 35: ....... is a semi-prepared surface at the end of a runway designed to reduce the damage if an aircraft lands short or over runs the runway: A. SWY B. Runway strip C. RESA D. CWY

Câu 36: Your aircraft has track between 90° and 269°, your flight level or altitude must be....: A. odd B. even C. none of above D. odd or even Câu 37: Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to foreign VIP flights carrying the guests of party and state? A. Minister of national defense B. Civil Aviation Authority of VN C. Minister of transport D. Minister of foreign affairs Câu 38: A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriate authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height: A. Runway strip B. Runway C. Clearway D. Stopway Câu 39: In non RVSM, VFR flight is: A. FL310 B. none of above C. FL290 D. FL300

Câu 40: Your aircraft has track between 180° and 359°, your flight level or altitude must be..... A. none of above B. even C. odd or even D. odd Câu 41: Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR is at least...and at a distance of...more from the facility. A. 15 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km) B. 15 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km) C. 10 degrees, 15 NM (28 km) D. 15 degrees, 15 NM (28 km) Câu 42: At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP arrives, airport operation will be restricted: A. 05 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear B. 15 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation C. 15 minutes before landing time of VIP flight, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear D. 05 minutes after VIP flight lands, that RWY can resume normal operation Câu 43: At, Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP departs, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available: A. 03 minutes after VIP flight takes off B. 05 minutes after VIP flight takes off C. After VIP flight is airborne D. None of above

Câu 44: Flight plans shall not be submitted more than..... before the estimated off-block time of a flight: A. 48 hours B. 60 hours C. 120 hours D. 72 hours Câu 45: ATM include search and rescue: A. Definitely B. True C. Probably D. False Câu 46: The following shall always be read back: A. ATC route clearance B. clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross and backtrack on any runway C. runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions. heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in ATIS broadcasts, transition levels D. All of above Câu 47: The change indicator TEMPO in the TAF used when : A. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions, lasting less than one hour in each instance and covering less than half of the forecast period. B. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular or irregular rate

C. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate D. The probability that a certain change or value occurs Câu 48: What does the abbreviation ""'NOSIG"" mean? A. No report received B. Not signed by the meteorologist C. No significant changes D. No weather related problems Câu 49: What is the correct AFTN address of Tan Son Nhat Approach? A. VVTSZRZX B. VVTSZTZX C. VVTSZDZX D. VVTSZAZX Câu 50: On a precision approach, where does the intermediate approach segment start? A. FAF B. IAF C. MAPt D. IF Câu 51: DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Light (L) Category, are all aircraft types of: A. 7600 kg or more B. 7600 kg or less C. 10000 kg or more

D. 10000 kg or less Câu 52: The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter ... Receiver ...: A. 1090 MHz - 1090 MHz B. 1030 MHz - 1090 MHz C. 1030 MHz - 1030 MHz D. 1090 MHz - 1030 Mhz Câu 53: When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes? A. 7500, 7600, 7700 B. None of correct C. 7500, 7600, 7777 D. 7555, 7666, 7777 Câu 54: Destination alternate aerodrome is: A. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure B. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route C. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic D. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing Câu 55: What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach? A. Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing

B. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach C. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach D. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing Câu 56: Minimum safe altitude ensures (Vietnam rules of the air): A. At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area B. At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area C. At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea, D. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL. Câu 57: TODA = ...+.....: A. = TORA +RWY B. = TORA + CWY C. = TORA +SWY D. = TORA Câu 58: Approach control service is: A. air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights B. Service for meteorological and alerting service C. air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas D. air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic Câu 59: "ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX (ARR-HVN 322- VVTS-VVDN 0359). The message informs: A. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 03.59 UTC

B. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 03.59 UTC C. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 03.59 UTC D. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVND at 03.59 UTC Câu 60: The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: A. indicated air speed (IAS) B. true air speed (TAS) C. Ground speed (GS) D. true air speed at 65% power Câu 61: Manoeuvring area is: A. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, including aprons. B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxing of aircraft, excluding aprons C. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons. D. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft Câu 62: What are the three principal processes of air traffic management? A. Air traffic services, Airspace mannagement and Air traffic flow management B. Air traffic control, Airspace mannagement and Air traffic flow management C. Air traffic control, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance D. Airspace management, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance Câu 63: In alerting services, "Distress phase" when:

A. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is the earlier, or when an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is the later... B. information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety... C. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety...! D. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft... Câu 64: The definition of AIRAC: A. An acronym signifying a system aimed at advance notification, based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices B. A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation C. A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters D. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations

Câu 65: In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: A. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R" B. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter C. By a letter for 2 parallel runways D. By a number like ""O"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways Câu 66: In the vicinnity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed as: A. altitude above sea level at or above the transition altitude B. flight level at or below the transition altitude C. flight level at or below the transition level D. altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude Câu 67: Heading is the direction in which the .... Axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually expressed in degrees from ... (true, magnetic, compass or grid) A. Longitudinal/ north B. Horizontal/ south C. Longitudinal/ South D. Horizontal/ north Câu 68: The definition of VFR flight: A. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance B. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules C. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMCI D. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules

Câu 69: Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000-RA SC1025 BECMO 1010 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKNOZO. Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ? A. 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt B. 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt C. 140° / 10 kt D. 250° / 20 kt Câu 70: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001. What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC? A. 500 m. B. 2000 m. C. Between 500 m and 2000 m. D. Between 0 m and 1000 m. Câu 71: Which following departure sequence is correct? A. Hospital flight - Commercial flight - Training flight B. Training flight - Hospital flight - VIP flight C. Training flight - VIP flight - Hospital flight D. Commercial flight - Hospital flight - Training flight Câu 72: When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QFE altimeter setting, it shall indicate: A. Altitude B. Elevation C. Flight level D. Height Câu 73: Which abbreviation is used for Coordinated universal time?

A. LCT B. GMT C. UTC D. COUT Câu 74: The units providing Air Traffic Services are: A. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office B. Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower. C. Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower D. Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower Câu 75: A standard instrument arrival is known as a: A. SDP B. STAR C. SIA D. SID Câu 76: A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled in the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a delay in excess of: A. 30 minutes B. 45 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 15 minutes Câu 77: The definition of Altitude:

A. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level B. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013 hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum D. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL) Câu 78: The abbreviation OCA means: A. Obstacle Confirmation Altitude B. Obstruction Collision Altitude C. Obstruction Clearance Altitude D. Obstacle Clerance Altitude Câu 79: In NOTAM format, the LOWER/UPPER limit shall be expressed in .... A. Altitude B. Flight level C. Height D. Elevation Câu 80: When the aircraft is...miles from the threshold on final approach,speed control should not be applied: A. 5 B.3 C. 10 D.4

Câu 81: Instrument meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, .......... the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.: A. equal to or less than B. better than C. equal to or better than D. less than Câu 82: Flight permission granted to flights arriving and departing at the airports of Viet Nam shall become effective at 12 (twelve) hour prior to and until ... hours after the ETA, ETD indicated in the permission: A. 6 B. 24 C. 12 D. 18 Câu 83: Who shall provide ANS at VietNam? A. ICAO B. Minister of national defense C. VATM D. Minister of transport Câu 84: We can distinguish types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within: A. 25 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line B. 10 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line C. 15 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line D. 5 degrees the alignment of the runway center-line

Câu 85: Information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as dove A. NOTAM B. AIP amendments C. AIP supplements D. AIC Câu 86: On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with tracks flown being reciprocal. This is called: A. base turn B. procedure turn C. reverse procedure D. racetrack Câu 87: The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass, or grid): A. Bearing B. Track C. Heading D. Course Câu 88: When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the longitudinal separation minima must be...when the level is crossed: A. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same type B. 10 minutes C. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same Mach number D. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed

Câu 89: The schedule of AIRAC effective dates must be based on interval of....? A. 14 days B. 42 days C. 28 days D. 56 days Câu 90: ............. shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below: A. Military aircraft B. Emergency aircraft C. VIP aircraft D. Hospital aircraft Câu 91: Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR? A. V B. Y C. Z D. I Câu 92: The ratio of an aircraft's true air speed to the speed of the sound is: A. CAS B. TAS C. Mach Number D. Relative Wind Câu 93: Alerting service shall be provided:

A. for all aircraft provided with air flight information service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference B. for all aircraft provided with alerting service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference C. for all aircraft provided with air traffic control service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference D. for all aircraft provided with air traffic control service; in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan; and to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference Câu 94: Whilst flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be reported as: A. flight level B. it depends upon what is set on the altimeter C. altitude D. height Câu 95: Expected approach time is: A. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay will leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing B. The time at which the pilot of an arriving aircraft expects to leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing C. The time at which it is estimated that an arriving aircraft will commence its approach for landing D. All the above

Câu 96: In non RVSM airspace, An aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 290 when SSR mode C derived level information indicates: A. 293 B. 296 C. 295 D. 294 Câu 97: VFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with: A. Instrument Filght rules + General rules B. Visual Flight rules + General rules C. Instrument Filght rules D. Visual Flight rules Câu 98: What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach? A. 15 kt B. +20 kt C. +25 kt D. + 10 kt Câu 99: Who has final authority of an aircraft: A. The operator of the aircraft B. The manufactuer C. The controller D. The pilot in command Câu 100: An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class

A. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 B. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140C. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL70 C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a instruction to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a instruction to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? D. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 -------- HẾT ---------Câ u 1: Information of long duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as A.AIP amendments B. AIP supplements C. AIC D. NOTAM Câ u 2: Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in conjunction with SSR? A Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7600 B. Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7700 C. Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700; Communications failure 7600 D. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600; Communications failure 7500 Câ u 3: Area control service is: A. air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic ( B. air traffic control service for controlled flights control areas C. air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled flights

D. Service for meteorological and alerting service Câ u 4: "ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX (ARR-HVN 322- VVTS-VVDN 0359). The message informs: A. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 03.59 UTC B. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 03.59 UTC C. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 03.59 UTC (D. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVND at 03.59 UTC Câ u 5: Air traffic services unit clocks and other time-recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus of UTC at all times: A. 15 second ( B. 30 second C. 60 second D. 20 second Câ u 6: Clearance limit mean: A. The point at which an aircraft is going to hold B. The flight level at which an aircraft plans to fly C. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance D. The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive Câ u 7: The Air traffic service includes: A. ATC Services and Air Traffic Advisory Services B. Flight Information Services C. Alering Services D. All of above

Câ u 8: What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach? A. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach B. Initial: Intermediate: Descent; Final; Landing C. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing D. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach Câ u 9: Which appropriate authority of Vietnam shall grant flight permission to vietnamese and foreign military aircraft? A. Civil Aviation Authority of VN B. Minister of transport C. Minister of foreign affairs D. Minister of national defense Câ u 10: In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: A. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R" B. By a number like "O"" and "01" for 2 parallel runways C. By a letter for 2 parallel runways D. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and "R"" and the central has no letter Câ u 11: Therder of priority for the transmission of messages in the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network shall be as follows: A. GG, KK, SS, DD, FF B. DD,FF, SS, GG, KK C. DD,FF, GG, KK, SS D.SS, DD, FF, GG, KK

cau. 12: Pilots should notify air traffic control if the variation in true aispeed at criusing level bet wantic control if the variation in true aispeed at criusing level between the reporting point Vary by: A. 04 rumutes B.03 minutes c. 05 minutes D. + 02 minutes CAU 13 Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when a frequent determination of position and speed provided that the pre or aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit than the succeeding aircraft will be...........mauon of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a speed of 20 kt or more faster A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 3 minutes Câ u 14: ADSC05: A. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contact B. Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract C. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Contract D. Automatically Dependent Surveillance - Contact Câ u 15: Visual meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, .......... the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.: A. equal to or better than

B. less than C. equal to or less than D. better than Câ U. 16: The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed: A. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point B. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over C. Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over D. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point Câ u 17: The definition of Special VFR flight: A. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules B. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules C A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC D. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance Câ u 18: Collaborative decision-making (CDM) is the process whereby all ATM decisions, except ....... ATC decisions, are based on sharing of all information relevant to air traffic operation between all civil and military partners: A. tactical B. planning C. strategic

D. pre – tactical Câ u 19: The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight pian form. This speed is the: A. true air speed at 65% power B. Ground speed (GS) C. indicated air speed (IAS) D. true air speed (TAS) Câ u 20: The missed approach procedure is show in the......: A. En-route Chart B. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B ( C. Instrument Approach Chart D. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type A Câ u 21: What is the correct AFTN address of Ho Chi Minh center? ( A.VVTSZRZX B.VVTSZTZX C. VVTSZDZX D. VVTSZPZX Câ u 22: The projection on the earth's surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid): ( A. Track ( B. Heading C. Bearing

D. Course Câ u 23: In RVSM, VFR flight is: A. FL300 B.FL295 C. FL290 D. FL310 Câ u 24: Enterprise which provides air traffic service must: A. Provide adequate and uninterrupted air traffic service B. Comply with regulations on the management, utilization and defense of the airspace, rules of the airand related guidance manuals on air trafic service C. all of above D. Coordinate with organizations concerned in handling emergency situations, unlawful interference against civil flight operations and air defense operation. Câ u 25: The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level: A. Air Route B. Transition Layer C. Holding pattern D. Boundary layer Câ u 26: Track separation between aircraft using NDB is at least...and at a distance of... more from the facility. A. 45 degrees, 15 NM (28 km) (B. 30 degrees, 15 NM (28 km) C.45 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km)

D. 30 degrees, 10 NM (18.5 km) Câ u 27: How long is strip marking remained: A. 60 days B. 45 days C. 90 days D. 30 days Câu 28: METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012626KT 1200 NW +SHRA BKN010 SCT015CB 28/27 Q1012 A. The present weather is light shower rain B. The present weather is heavy shower rain C. The present weather is heavy rain D. The present weather is heavy thunderstorm with rain Câu 29: The altitude at which or below which the position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes. That i definition of: A. Transition Altitude B. Minimmum En-route Altitude C. Transition Flight level D. Minimum Sector Altitude Câu 30: Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKNO15CB PROB30 TSRA. Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ? A. Continuous moderate rain B. Moderate snow showers

C. Light drizzle and fog (D. Heavy rain showers Câu 31: The date-time group consists of six figures, the first two figures indicating the day of the month and the next four figures indicating for METAR and SPECI: A. The full hour in UTC (of which the last two figures are always 00) preceding the transmission time; for other forecasts, the standard time of observation in UTC on which the forecast is based B. The time of observation in UTC C. The standard time of observation in UTC D. The time of origin in UTC of the text of the bulletin(s) Câu 32: What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP Vietnam? A. RWY, SWY, CWY B. TORA TODA/ASDA TODA C. CWY, SWY D. TORA TODA/ASDA/TODA, RWY Câu 33: Minimum safe altitude has been establish for ATS routes: A. At least 600m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 900m (3000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area B. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL. C At least 300m (1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area, 600m (2000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area D. At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain and 600 m (2000 ft) above sea, Câu 34: Who shall decide the establishment of an enterprise providing air trafic service at VietNam?

A. Prime minister B. Minister of national defense C. ICAO D. Minister of transport Câu 35: The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing is the definition of...: A. A Holding point B.An Airway C. A Threshold D. A Aiming Point Câu 36: ASDA =... + …. A=TORA + SWY B=TORA + CWY C. = TORA +RWY D. = TORA Câu 37: A standard instrument departure is known as a: (A) SID B. SIA C. STAR D. SDP Câu 38: In the event of a delay of ... minutes in excess of the EOBT for a controlled flight or delay of ... minutes for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted , the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled, whichever is applicable:

A. 60, 60 B. 60, 30/ C. 30, 60/ D. 30, 45 Câu 39: Take-off alternate aerodrome is: A. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic ( B. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure C. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route D. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing Câu 40: Your aircraft has track between 0° and 179o, your flight level or altitude must be..... A. odd B. none of above C. even D. odd or even Câu 41: Aeroplane reference field length for code number 4 aerodrome: A.1200m up to but not including 1800m B. 1800m and over C. 800m up to but not including 1200m D. Less than 800m Câu 42: Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?

A. Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shan thiso be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about B. THE ARLERT phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received C. Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit D. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of unlawful interference Câu 43: Estimated time of arrival is: A. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome B. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be concerned C. The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will land on the runway D. A or B Câu 44: Your aircraft has track between 270° and 359° & between 0° and 89°, your flight level or altitude must be..... A. odd B. none of above C. even D. odd or even, Câu 45: A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as asuitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the definition for:

A. Clearway B. Runway strip C. Stopway D. Runway Câu 46: Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend ( A. 10 NM B. 20 NM C. 12 NM D. 15 NM Câu 47: The abbreviation OCH means: A. Obstacle Clerance Height B. Obstacle Confirmation Height C. Obstruction Collision Height D. Obstruction Clearance Height Câu 48: At which may reduce vertical separation minimum be used: A. Above FL410 B. Between FL275 to FL410 C. Between FL245 to FL410 D. Between FL290 to FL410 Câu 49: In RVSM airspace, An aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 290 when SSR mode C derived level information indicates:

A. 293 B. 292 C. 294 D. 295 Câu 50: Tolerance value used to determine that pressure altitude derived level information displayed to controller is accurate shall be .....in RVSM airspace: A. -+90 m B. -+60 m C. -+ 100 m D. +-30 M Câu 51: The .......... types of separation methods are..... A. 2 (vertical + horizonral separation) B. 2 (lateral + vertical separation) C. 3 (lateral, vertical + horizontal separation) D.3 (vertical + longitudial separation) Câu 52: The Transponders equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter ... Receiver ...: A.1990 MHz - 1030 Mhz B. 1030 MHz - 1030 MHz C. 1030 MHz - 1090 MHz D. 1090 MHz - 1090 MHz Câu 53: ........... is a Mandatory Chart: A. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type A +

B. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B ( C. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Chart D. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart- Type C Câu 54: Approach control service shall be provided by.......... A. by an aerodrome control tower or area control centre when it is necessary or desirable to combine under the responsibility of one unit the functions of the approach control service with those of the aerodrome control service or the area control service B. by an approach control unit when it is necessary or desirable to establish a separate unit C. A and B D.) A or B Câu 55: The .......... types of horizontal separation are......... A2 (lateral + longitudial separation) B. 2 (lateral + vertical separation) C. 2 (radar + longitudial separation) D. 2 (lateral + radar separation) Câu 56: When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision: A. The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way B. The aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way C. 293 D. F30 m Câu 57: When the aircraft is... miles from the threshold on final approach,speed control should not be applied: A. 5 –

B.3 C.4 D. 10 Câu 58: Choose the correct statement from the following: A. LDA TORA B. TODA > TORA C. LDA ASDA D. TORA > TODA Câu 59: What's air traffic control clearance: A. Clearance issued by App controller B. Clearance by area controller C. Clearance for aircraft issued by tower controller D. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit Câu 60: Where lateral separation is not provided, how long should vertical separation be provided for opposite direction traffic? A. 05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed B. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed C. Until they are estimated to have passed ( D. 10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed Câu 61: If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same track and the following aircraft will be fiu... through the level of the preceding aircraft . Action must be taken to ensure that the .... Separation will be maintained or increased when cruising levels are crossed.

A. 10 minutes B. 2 minutes C.5 minutes D. 3 minutes Câu 62: An aircraft operates in a defined airspace shall be controlled by: ( A. An ATC Unit B. 2 ATC Units C. 3 ATC Units D. 4 ATC Units Câu 63: Movement area is: A. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxing of aircraft , excluding apsom B. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons. C) That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron. D. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft Câu 64: Where the transfer of control is to be effected using radar or ADS-B data, the control information pertinent to the transfer shall include information regarding the position and, if required, the track and speed of the aircraft, as observed by radar or ADSB immediately ........ the transfer. ( A. prior to B. after C. request for

D. A and B Câu 65: What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach? A. + 15 kt B. + 20 kt c. +25 kt D. + 10 kt Câu 66: A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans: ( A, Air Traffic Advisory Services B. Air Trraffic Control Services C. Flight Information Services D. Alering Services Câu 67: IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with: A Instrument Filght rules B. Visual Flight rules + General rules ( C. Instrument Filght rules + General rules D. Visual Flight rules Câu 68: The definition of Flight level: A. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level ( B. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from a specified datum

C. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level (MSL) D. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013 hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals Câu 69: Which following arrival sequence is correct? A. Shortage of fuel flight - Commercial flight - Hospital flight B. Hospital flight - Commercial flight - Shortage of fuel flight C. Hospital flight - Shortage of fuel flight - Commercial flight D.Shortage of fuel flight - Hospital flight - Commercial flight Câu 70Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? A. I B. V C. Z D. Y Câu 71: At, Tan Son Nhat airporT, when VIP arrives, the reserved RWY for VIP flight will be available: A.05 minutes after VIP flight stops at the parking at airport, B. When VIP flight stops at the parking C. After VIP flight vacates the RWY D.05 minutes after VIP flight lands Câu 72: Which aircraft along the following has first priority: A. Arriving aircraft in the traffic pattern B. Arriving aircraft on final approach

C. Taxiing aircraft D. Departing aircraft Câu 73: The DME system shall provide for continuous and accurate indication in the cockpit of the ...of an equipped aircraft from an equipped ground reference point: A. Vertical distance B.Slant range distance C. Horizontal distance Ď. all of above Câu 74: During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be reported as: A. flight level during descent B. altitude above mean sea level during descent/ C. either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb D. altitude above mean sea level during the climb Câu 75: In alerting services, " Alert phase" when: A. no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received, or from the time an unsuccessful attempt to establish communication with such aircraft was first made, whichever is the earlier, or when an aircraft fails to arrive within thirty minutes of the estimated time of arrival last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is the later... B. information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety... /

C.information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted, or to be insufficient to enable the aircraft to reach safety... D. information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing is likely, or when an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established with the aircraft... Câu 76: The objectives of Air traffic services (ATS) are to: A. Balance Capacity and Demand (B. Provide Separation C. Airspace Design Ď. Provide Capacity Câu 77: The change indicator BECMG in the TAF used when : ( A. The MET conditions are expected to reach or pass specified values at a regular or irregular rate B. The probability that a certain change or value occurs C. Temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions, lasting less than one hour in each instance and covering less than half of the forecast period. (D. All the MET conditions are to pass specified values at a regular rate Câu 78: Intergraded Aeronautical Information Package includes: A. Check list and Summary B. All of above CAIP, AIP amendment, AIP supplements D. AIRAC, AIC, NOTAM, PIB

Câu 79: Each NOTAM shall be located a series identified by .......... and a four-digit number followed by a stroke and a twodigit number for the year: ( A/a number B. a letter and number C. a letter or a number D. a letter Câu 80: NOTAM with series A used for: A. Domestic flight (B, International flight C. Both of them D. None of them Câu 81: In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code: A. 7500 ( B.)7600 C. 7700 D. 7000 Câu 82: An airspeed indicator displays: A. TAS B. Relative Wind C. CAS (D. IAS

Câu 83: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal: A. base turn B! Procedure turn C. racetrack D. reverse procedure Câu 84: What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC? ( A. Time separation and track separation B. Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation C. Vertical, horizontal and composite separation D. Composite separation Câu 85: The minimum difference between the AIRAC publication date and effectivedated is at least..... A. 14 days ( B. 28 days ( C. 42 days D. 56 days Câu 86: Over-flight permission shall become effective 03(three) hours prior to and until ... hours after estimated over-flight time indicated in the flight permission. A. 36 B. 48 C. 72

D. 24 Câu 87: DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of: A 135 000 kg or more B, 136 000 kg or more C. less than 136 000 kg but more than 126 000 kg D. 146 000 kg or more Câu 88: At Tan Son Nhat airport, when VIP departs, airport operation will be restricted: A. 15 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation B. 05 minutes after VIP flight takes off, that RWY can resume normal operation C. 15 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear D. 05 minutes before VIP flight lines up, the reserved RWY for VIP flight should be clear Câu 89: When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QNH altimeter setting, it shall indicate: A. Elevation ( B. Altitude C. Flight level D. Height Câu 90: ATM also aids in search and rescue: A, True B. Definitely C. Probably D. False

(Câu 91: An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class Y A. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 1400. When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70 B. When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120 C. When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130 ( D. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a instruction to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a instruction to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? Câu 92: What should we know as heading: A. The same as bearing ( B.) The longitudinal axis of an aircraft pointed and expressed in degrees from North C. The same as track D. A and C Câu 93: On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start? A. IF B. MAPt C. IAF D.FAF Câu 94: The definition of AIC A.A notice containing information that does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP, but which relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative matters B. A publication issued by or with the authority of a State and containing aeronautical information of Inntinn shorontor essential to air navigation

C. An acronym signifying a system aimed at advance notification, based on common effective dates, of circumstances that necessitate significant changes in operating practices D. A special series NOTAM notifying by means of a specific format change in activity of a volcano, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is of significance to aircraft operations Câu 95: What are the three principal processes of air traffic management? A. Airspace management, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance B. Air traffic control, Air traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance ( C. Air traffic services, Airspace mannagement and Air traffic flow management D. Air traffic control, Airspace mannagement and Air traffic flow management Câu 96: When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence nonradar minimum time separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be: A. 2 minutes B. 5 minutes (C)3 minutes D. 4 minutes Câu 97: In ATFN messages, what is YNYX? (A. For a computer facility at Area Control Center ( B. International NOTAM Office C. For Area Control Center Military Flight Operational Control Center Câu98: A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least .....before departure: A. 60 minutes

B. 30 minutes C. 45 minutes D. 15 minutes Câu 99: In METAR, the term "CAVOK" is used when : A. Visibility is 10 km or more B. No weather of significance to aviation C. No cloud of operational significance D. All of above Câu 100: Which abbreviation is used for Coordinated universal time? A. GMT B. ICT C. COUT D.UTC

CÂU HỎI NĂNG ĐỊNH Question 1 : Air traffic means:  a. All aircraft in the air  b. All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an aerdrome.* c. All aircraft and helicopters flying within a FIR.  d. All aircraft in the air. Aircraft on apron, and aircraft operating in a hangar. 

Question 2 : Minimum flight altitudue ensures:  a. At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL  b. At least 300m ( 1000ft) above terrain.  c. At least 300m ( 1000ft) above highest abstacle in plain area, 600m(2000ft) above  abstacle in mountain area.*  d. All the above.  Question 3: Critical positions of aircraft in the aedrodrome traffic and taxi circuits are: a. Where an a/c receives aedrorome information, taxi-off, or landing clearance.* b. Where an a/c operating on maneuvering area may experience dangerous conditions. c. Where an a/c within an aerodrome needs urgent assistance from air traffic unit.  Question 4: The sequence of emergency phases are:  a. ALERFA, INCERFA, DETRESFA.  b. INCERFA, ALERFA, DETRESFA.*  c. DETRESFA, ALERFA, INCERFA.  d. No difference  Question 5 : Transition level is :  a. The altitude below which the vertical position of an a/c is controlled by reference  to altitudes.  b. The altitude at which or below which the vertical position of an a/c is controlled by  reference to altitudes.  c. The altitude above which the vertical position of an a/c is controlled by reference to  flight levels.  d. The altitude at which a pilot has to change the altimeter setting.  Question 6 : Visual approach is: 

a. An approach made by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument  approach procedure is not completed  b. An approach made by VFR flight.  c. Executed in visual reference to terrain.  d. a and c.  Question 7 : Radar separation is:  a. The separation used when a/c equipped with airbone radar.  b. The separation used when a/c operating in radar coverage area. c. The separation used by an air traffic controller having radar aontrol rating. d. The separation used when a/c positon information is derived from radar sources. Question 8: Secondary radar can provide:  a. A/c position information an azimuth and range.  b. A/c identification code.  c. A/c pressure altitude.  d. All the above.  Question 9: Primary radar means:  a. A radar system which provides primary information of air traffic to ATC unit. b. A radar system which uses reflected radio signal.*  c. A radar system which uses primary in for mation from a/c and displays them on  radar sreen.  d. A radar system which ATC uses fist to determine a/c’position in dis tance and  azimuth.  Question 10: Estimated time of arrival is:  a. The time at which it is estimated that the a/c will arrive over the aerodrome. b. The time at which it is estimated that the a/c will arrive over the designated point,  defined by reference to

navigation aids, from which it is intended that an  instrument approach procedure will be commenced.  c. The time at which it is estimated that the a/c will land on the RWY. d. a or b.*  Question 11: Expected approach time is:  a. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving a/c , following a delay will leave  the holding point to complete its approach for landing.*  b. The time at which the pilot of an arriving a/c expects to leave holding point to  complete its approach for a landing.  c. The time at which it is estimated that an arring a/c will commence its approach for  a landing.  d. All the above.  Question 12: Airway means:  a. A defined space which an a/c uses for it flights.  b. A profile of an actual track of an a/c.  c. A control area or portion therefore established in form of a corridor equipped with  radio navigation aids.*  Question 13: Missed approach procedure is:  a. The procedure to be followed if the a/c can not land.  b. The procedure which a/c uses when there are many obstacle on the RWY -in –use c. The procedure to be commenced by a/c decision height.  d. The procedure to be followed if the approach can not be continued.* Question 14: Air Traffic Control Clearance means::  a. Authorization for an a/c to proceed under conditions specified by an airport  manager. 

b. Authorization for an a/c to proceed under visual meteorogical conditions. c. Authorization for an a/c to proceed under instrument meterological specified. d. Authorization for an a/c to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic  control unit.  Question 15: Altitude means:  a. The vertical distance of a point or object considered as a point measured from  ground level.  b. The vertical distance of a point or object considered as a point measured from the  aeorome level.  c. The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point measured from  mean sea level.  d. The vertical distance of a point or object considered as a point measured from the  highest obtacle within a radius of 8 km from estimated position of the a/c. Question 16: Cruising level means:  a. A level maintained during the cruise.  b. A level maintained during the whole flight.  c. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.  d. A level assigned by air traffic control.  Question 17: Clearance limit means:  a. The point to which an a/c is granted an air traffic control clearance. b. The destination airport at which an a/c plans to arrive.  c. The flight level at which an a/c is going to hold.  Question 19: Approach sequence means:  a. The order in which 2 or more a/c land at an airport.  b. The order in which 2 or more a/c are cleared to land at an airport. 

c. The order in which to or more a/c are cleared to approach to land at an airport . d. The order in which to or more a/c are cleared to approach the navigation aid  serving the airport.  Question 20: Flight visibility means:  a. The horizontal distance at which prominent objects may be seen from the cockpit. b. The maximum distance at which prominent objects may be seen from the cockpit. c. The visibility of an a/c in flight.  d. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an a/c in flight.  Question 21: Choose the correct statement from the following:  a. A control zone extends from a specified height above sea level and also has an  upper limit.  b. An airway is a control area and extends from ground level to specified limit. c. An advisory route is a corridor from ground level to a specified upper limit. d. A control zone extends from ground level to a specified upper limit.  Question 22: Airbone collision avoidance system is:  a. An a/c system based on secondary secondary surveillance transponder signals. b. An a/c system based on GPS signals.  c. An a/c system which provides advice to the pilot of potential conflicting a/c that  are equipped with SSR transponder.  d. a and c.  Question 23: The use of radar for the purpose of providing a/c with information and advice  relative significant deviation from nominal flight path is:  a. Radar monitoring .  b. Radar vectoring.  c. Radar identification.  d. Radar separation.  Question 24: The current plan is:  

a. The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office. b. The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office and the  reporting office has checked and approved.  c. The flight plan which comprises all possible changes due to subsequence  clearance.  d. The flight plan concerning repetitive flights.  PART II: RULES AND PROCEDURES  Question 25: IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with:  a. General rules of the air.  b. Instrument flight rules.  c. Visual flight rules and general rules.  d. Instrument flight rules and general rules.  Question 26: Cruising levels at which a flight is to be conducted means: a. Flight levels  b. Altitudes  c. Flight level for flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or altitudes for  flights below the lowest usable flight level.  d. Flight level used for en-route flight.  Question 27: Who is the most directly responsible for avoidance of collision? a. The aerodrome traffic controller.  b. The approach con troller.  c. The pilot.  d. All of above.  Question 28: When two a/c are approaching heading-on or approximately so and threre is  danger of collision, each shall alter its heading…………….  a. To the left. 

b. To the right. c. Upwards.  d. Downwards.  Question 29: When two a/c re conversing track s at approximately the same altitude, which  has the right-of way?  a. The a/c which has other on its left.  b. The a/c which has other on its right.  c. The bigger a/c  d. Each must give way.  Question 30: A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be  submitted at least ----------- before departure.  a. 60 minutes b. 30 minutes  c. 15 minutes c. 10 minutes  Question 31 : Air traffic clearance are issued by:  a. Area control centre b. Approach control unit  c. Aerodrome ontrol tower c. All the above  Question 32: Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFRflights shall not  take off or land at an aerodrome zone, or enter the earodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern. a. When the ceiling is less than 450m(1500ft)  b. When the ground visibility is less than 5 km   c. a or b  d. a and b.  Question 33: Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flight shall not be  operated. 

a. Above minimum flight level b. Below minimum flight level  c. Above FL 200 c. Below FL 200  Question 34: Except when necessary for take-off or landing or except when specified  authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall not be flown at:  a. A level below minimum flight level b. A level above minimum flight level c. A level above FL 200 c. A level below FL 200  Question 35: The air traffic services comprise:  a. Area control service, approach controllservice, aerodrome control service. b. Air traffic control service, search and rescue servive. c. Air traffic control service, aeronautical telecommunication service, aeronautical  meteorological service.  d. Air traffic control service, flight information service, alerting service.  Question 36: When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QNH altimeter setting, it shall  indicate:  a. Flight level b. Altitude  c. Height c. Pressure on runway surface.  Question 37: An arriving a/c is descending for approach . The pilot of the a/c is to change  altimeter setting from standard air pressure(760mm Pb) to QNH(or QFE)------- a. At or above transition level  b. Below transition level but above transition altitude.  c. At trasition altitude.  d. Below transition altitude.  Question 38: In normal cirumstances, for flights on routes not defined by designated  significant point, position report shall be made:  a. As soon as possible after the first half hour of flight. 

b. At hourly intervals there after.  c. a or b  d. a and b  Question 39:The procedures to be applied for the provision of air traffic services to a/c  equipped with ACAS ( airbone collision avoidance systems shall be:  a. Difference from those applicable to non- ACAS equipped a/c.  b. Identical to those applicable to non- ACAS equipped a/c.  c. Better for ATC, because they release ATC from responsibility to provide  separation between a/c equipped with ACAS  d. a and c.  Question 40: When an a/c has been cleared into a center’s control area at a crusing level  which is below established minimum crusing level for a subsequent portion of the route, the  ACC shall immediately:  a. Request the a/c to maintain the level .  b. Issue a revised clearance to the a/c for a crusing higher than minimum. c. Inform the adjacent ACC.  d. Inform approach control unit.  Question 41: In so far as practicable for two a/c flying to the same destination, higher crusing  level shall be assigned:  a. To the a/c, which arrives first.  b. To the a/c , which arrives latter.  c. In a manner that will be correct for an approach sequence at destination. d. To the a/c, which first enters the area of responsibility. 

Question 42: Aerodrome control tower shall provide arriving a/c with information related to  the operation of a/c:  a. Prior to issuing of landing clearance.  b. Prior to a/c’s passing abeam outer marker.  c. Prior to a/c’s entering the traffic circuit.  d. Prior to having the a/c in sight.  Question 43: Aerodrome control tower is resposible to control the traffic of ---- on the  maneuvering area.  a. Aircraft.  b. Vehicles.  c. Pedestrians.  d. All the above.  Question 44: Means which ATC can use for flow control are:  a. Flow control restriction message.  b. Flow delay advice message.  c. Flow control cancellation message.  d. All the above.  Question 45: Recording tapes of air ground communication shall be normally kept for at least: a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 20 days d. 30 days  Question 46 : The request to change from IFR flight to VFR flight is:  a. Made by the pilot-in-command  b. Suggested by ATC when VMC exist  c. A and b 

d. A or b.  Question 47: Upon receipt of information that an a/c is making an emergency descent through  other traffic, ATC shall immediately :  a. Instruct all a/c within the specified areas to maintain own navigation.  b. Take all possition actions to safeguard all a/c concerned.  c. Issue climb clearance to all a/c, whose flight level or altitude may be crossed. d. Inform the ATC unit which shall receive control transfer of the emergency a/c.  Question 48: Which a/c along the following has first priority:  a. Departing a/c.  b. Taxiing a/c.  c. Arriving a/c on final approach.  d. Arriving a/c in the traffic pattern.  Question 49: When two or more a/c are at the same cruising level, the ------a/c shall nornally have  priority:  a. Preceeding b. Succeeding  c. Fastest c. Biggest  Question 50: …………shall be given priority over other listed below  a. VIP a/c b. Military a/c  c. Hospital a/c c. Emergency a/c  Question 51: Aerodrome control tower shall instruct an a/c which is known or believed to be the  subject to unlawful interference to…………..  a. A holding point b. Terminal apron  c. A stand for VIP a/c c. An isolated parking position 

Question 52: Aeroplane A with an air traffic clearance is flying in VFR conditions within a  controlled area. Aeroplane B with no air traffic clearance is approaching at approximately the  same altitude and on converging course. Which has the right-of-way?  a. airplane A regardless of the direction from which airplane B is approaching. b. airplane B regardless of the direction from which airplane A is approaching. c. airplane A if it has airplane B on its right.  d. airplane B if it has airplane A on its left.  Question 53: After departure, an IFR a/c loses two-way communications. What should the pilot’s  course of action be?  a. Continue to fly to the destination airport, whatever the weather condition are. b. Return to the departure airport immediately, whatever the weather condition are. c. Return to the departure airport immediately, if the weather is VMC or continue the  flight to the destination airport if the weather is IMC.  d. Land at the most suitable nearest aerodrome while an enroute. Question 54: If a pilot who has experienced two-way radio failure during an IFR flight proceeds  according to his latest clearance, which was to the navigational aid serving his destination airport,  where should he commence his descent for landing?  a. When he is 80 miles from the airport.  b. When he enters the TMA.  c. When he is over the airport.  d. From the navigational aid serving his destination.  Question 55: What are the international aviation urgency signals?  a. SOS  b. MAYDAY  c. PANPAN 

d. All the above.  Question 56: An a/c is considered to be in the phrase of INCERFA when:  a. no communication has been established within 30 minutes from the time there should  have communication.  b. Information received reveals that the operation efficiency of a/c has been impaired but  not to extent that a forced landing is necessary.  c. It is believed that the fuel on board is not enough to fly to the destination safety. d. It is believed that a forced landing has been made.  PART III : CO-ORDINATION.  Question 57: Co-ordination between two ACCs is based on:  a. Letter of agreement between the centers  b. ICAO rules of the air.  c. En-route flight procedures.  d. Regional supplementary procedures.  Question 58: A trasferring center shall forward an accepting center.  a. Neccessary flight plan.  b. Control information.  c. a and b  d. a or b  Question 59: In the case of an a/c is approaching FIR boundary(or boundary of the two areas of  responsibility) but co-ordination has not been successfully made, the transferring center belongs to:  a. The accepting center b. The transfering center  c. Both centers c. None of them.

Question 60: Information on arriving a/c shall be forwarded by ACC to APP not less than minutes  before EAT.  a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes  c. 15 mimutes c. 20 minutes.  Question 61: Time of take-off shall be specified by the ACC when it is neccesary to: a. Coordinate the departure with traffic not released to the unit providing APP control  services.  b. Provide en-route separation between departing a/c following the same route. c. a and b.  d. a or b.  Question 62: Without prior arrangements made by the appropriate ATS authority, APP unit shall  clear ------to aerodrome control tower;  a. All arrivals which reach transfer of control point.  b. Not more than one arrival.  c. As many arrivals as possible  d. Up to two arrival.  Question 63: ATC units may use the following means of communication for co-ordination  purposes.  a. AFTN b. Direct speech circuits  c. Data- exchange circuits c. All the above  Question 64: Co-dination between ACCs is resposibility of------  a. “D” controller b. “R” controller  c. a or b c. a and b  PART IV: AIR TRAFFIC SEPARATION MINIMA  Question 65: If an arriving a/c is making a straight-in-approach, a departing a/c may take-off in  any direction untill ----- before the arriving is estimated to be over the instrument runway. 

a. 10 minutes b. 2 minutes  c. 5 minutes c. 3 minutes  Question 66: Time separation minima between holding a/c in a holding pattern and enroute a/c  which are on the same flight level is:  a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes  c. 3 minutes c. As long as outbound time is  Question 67: : If an arriving a/c is making a complete instrument approach, a departing a/c may  take-off in any direction untill :  a. The arriving a/c has started its procedure turn or base turn leading to final approach. b. The arriving a/c has commenced initial approach.  c. The arriving a/c has entered ILS glide path.  d. The pilot of the arriving has observed the departing a/c.  Question 68: If two departing a/c of the same time type propose to follow the same track and the  preceding a/c is 74 km/h ( 40kt) or more faster than the following a/c, the separation between their  take-off is:  a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes  c. 3 minutes c. 4 minutes  Question 69: If two departing a/c of the same time type propose to follow the same track and the  following a/c will be flown through the level of the preceding a/c. Action must be taken to ensure  that the----- separation will be maintained or increased when cruising levels are crossed.  a. 5 minutes b. 3 minutes  c. 2 minutes c. 10 minutes 

Question 70: Track separation between a/c using the same VOR is at least----- and at a distance of- ------or more from the facility  a. 10 degrees; 18,5km(10NM) b. 15 degrees; 18,5km(10NM)  c. 10 degrees; 28km(15NM) c. 15 degrees; 28 km(15NM)  Question 71: Track separation between a/c using the same NDB is at least----- and at a distance of- ------or more from the facility  a. 15 degrees; 18,5km(10NM) b. 30 degrees; 18,5km(10NM)  c. 15 degrees; 28km(15NM) c. 30 degrees; 28 km(15NM)  Question 72: Longitudinal separation minima for a/c at the same cruising level and on the  same track is:  a. 15 minutes b. 10 minutes.  c. 10 minutes if a/c are of the same type.  d. 10 minutes if a/c have the same Mach Number.  Question 73: If two a/c have departed from the same aerodrome and the preceding a/c is 37  km/h (20Kt) or more faster than the succeeding a/c speed , the longitudinal separartion  minima between the a/c is:  a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes  c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes  Question 74: A medium a/c is approaching for landing behind a heavy a/c , the time  separation minima between them must be:  a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes  c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes 

Question 75: A light a/c is approaching for landing behind a heavy a/c , the time separation  minima between them must be:  a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes  c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes  Question 76: Longitudinal separation minima between a/c flying on crossing track with no  navigation aids is:  a. 10 minutes.  b. 10 minutes if navigational aids permit.  c. 10 minutes if a/c have the same TAS.  d. 15 minutes.  Question 77: When an a/c with pass through the level of another a/c on the same track, the  longitudinal separation minima must be----- when the level crossed:  a. 10 minutes.  b. 10 minutes if a/c are of the same type.  c. 10 minutesa/c have the same Mach number.  d. 10 minutes if navigational aids permit frequent determination of position and  speed .  Question 78: When an a/c with pass through the level of another a/c on the same track, the  longitudinal separation minima must be----- when the level crossed  a. 10 minutes if preceding a/c is 74 km/h ( 40kt) or more faster than the following. b. 10 minutes if the track are 30 degrees or more divergent.  c. 15 minutes.  d. b and c. 

Question 79: For traffic on reciprocal tracks where lateral separation is not provided ,  vertical separation shall be kept for at least ----- prior to and after the time the a/c are  estimated to pass or are estimated to have passed.  a. 10 minutes.  b. 5 minutes.  c. 15 minutes.  d. As long as the a/c are estimated to have passed each other.  Question 87: The vertical separation minimum shall be norminal 300 metres (1000ft)-------. a. Below an altitude of 8850 metres (29.000ft).  b. Below flight level 290.  c. At or below flight level 290.  d. a and b.  Question 88: N60515Z has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the  estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established. The a/c should be  considered in:  a. Uncertainty phase.  b. Alert phase.*  c. Ditress phase.  d. Emergency phase.  Question 89: In the event a position report is not received at the expected time, when shall  action taken to obtain the report if it is likely to have any bearing in the control of the other  a/c?  a. Immediately.  b. 03 minutes after the expected time over the reporting point. 

c. 05 minutes after the expected time over the reporting point.  d. A reasonable time later.  Question 90: Where lateral separation is not provided, how long should vertical separation be  provided for opposite direction traffic?  a. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed. b. 10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed. c. 05 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed. d. Untill they are estimated to have passed.  . Question 91:When an a/c is being held in flight , when should vertical separation be provided  between holding a/c and en-route a/c?  a. When the en-route a/c is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding point. b. When the en-route a/c is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding areas. c. When the en-route a/c is within 5 miles of the holding areas.  d. When the en-route a/c is within 15 minutes of the holding areas.  Question 92: Under what circumstances would the center need to notify an ATC unit  providing approach control service of a restriction relative to the time of take- off of an a/c? a. The Center wants to provide separation between departing a/c following the  same route.  b. The Center wants to provide separation between departing a/c and a/c not  released to approach control.  c. All of the above.  Question 93: What is the purpose behind the requirement that a pilot execute the entire  approved approach procedure even though visual reference with the ground is established  prior to completing of the procedure.  a. for separation.  b. For expediting arriving traffic. 

c. To make sure that the pilot can land even he is encounters bad weather. d. All the above.  Question 94: When two of more a/c on the same track and at the same cruising level, which  a/c will normally have priority at the level?  a. the faster a/c  b. the slower a/c  c. the preceding a/c .  d. the succeeding a/c  Question 95: What is the longitudinal minimum separation based on time for a/c on the same  track at the same cruising level?  a. 15 minutes.  b. 10 minutes.  c. 3 minutes.  d. 5 minutes.  Question 96: What is the minimum time separation between a/c flying at the same level on  the same or converging track where navigation aids permit frequent determination of  position and speed .  a. 5 minutes.  b. 10 minutes.  c. 15 minutes.  d. 20 minutes. Question 97: What type of sepapration must be maintained at all times between a/c holding in  the holding pattern ?  a. vertical.  b. lateral. 

c. Longitudinal.  d. A combination of lateral and vertical.  Question 98: A/c flying on the same track and at the same level may not arrive over the  same position with less than the following separation:  a. 3 minutes if the preceding a/c is 40 km/h faster than the succeeding a/c b. 3 minutes if the preceding a/c is 25 km/h faster than the succeeding a/c c. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and  speed.  d. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and  speed.  Question 99: The minimum longitudinal sepapration between departing a/c when such a/c  will follow the same track is ---------if the preceding a/c is 74 km/h or more faster than the  succeeding a/c.  a. 1 minute.  b. 2 minutes.  c. 3 minutes.  d. 5 minutes.  Question 100: The range of primary radar depends on:  a. transmitted power; altitude and level of a/c.  b. size, level and material of a/c.  c. transmitted power; size, attitude and material of a/c .  d. transmitted power; altitude and material of a/c.  Question 101: The range of the SSR?PSR radar station located at Tan Son Nhat airport are as  follows:  a. SSR: 200NM, PSR: 30NM.  b. SSR: 200NM, PSR: 200NM. 

c. SSR: 250NM, PSR: 40NM.  d. SSR: 250NM, PSR: 80NM.  Question 102: The standard minimum radar separation located separation in Viet nam is: a. 5 NM within 40 NM from Tan Son Nhat, Da Nang, Noi Bai airports and 10 NM  elsewhere.  b. 5 NM within 40 NM from Tan Son Nhat, Da Nang, Noi Bai airports then 10  NM between 40 NM to 80 NM from those airport and 15 NM elsewhere. c. 5 NM within 80 NM from Tan Son Nhat, Da Nang, Noi Bai airports and 15 NM  elsewhere.  d. 5 NM within 40 NM from Tan Son Nhat, Da Nang, and 10 NM elsewhere. Question 103: The secondary surveillance radar (SSR) located at Noi Bai airports is out of  service. Can Ha Noi ACC legally use the primary surveillance radar (PSR) alone for the  provision of air traffic services?  a. Yes.  b. No .  c. Yes if approved by the Director of Civil Aviation Administration of Vietnam. d. Yes if the weather of VMC.  Question 104: The pilot of an a/c experience two-way radio communication failure shall set  his transonder to code:  a. A/3 7400.  b. A/3 7500.  c. A/3 7600.  d. A/3 7700.  Question 105: Which group of code should Ho Chi Minh use for AFR 175 from Tan Son Nhat  to Bangkok:  a. 5500 -5577 b. 1700 -1777  c. 5700 - 5777 d. 4100 – 41… 

Question 106: Which group of code should Hanoi ACC use for VN741 from Noi Bai to Tan  Son Nhat:  a. 5500 -5577 b. 5700 - 5777  c. 4700 - 5777 d. 4100 - 4177  Question 107: If an identified a/c is approach head - on the controlled a/c, what action  should be taken by the radar controller?  a. Immediately turn the controlled a/c to the right.  b. Decend the controlled a/c to fly below the un identified a/c.  c. When the a/c is 5 miles apart turn the controlled a/c to the right.  d. Immediatly climb the controlled a/c.  Question 108: The radar controller should inform the pilot of his position except in the  following case:  a. The a/c report over a navaid.  b. The a/c requests position information .  c. The a/c resumes its own navigation.  d. The controller observes that the a/c has deviated from its indented route. Question 109: What should a radar controller do if he observes an a/c under his control ------- significantly from its intended route?  a. Inform the pilot of the a/c’s position .  b. Inform the pilot of the deviation from the intended route.  c. Request the pilot to squawk ident.  d. Request the pilot’s intention. Question 110: A/c A reports at FL100 but the radar display ahows FL115. What action should  the radar controller take ? 

a. Draw the pilot’s attention on the difference in levels.  b. Inform the pilot of the difference and request him to check his altimeter setting  and confirm his level.  c. Request the pilot to stop mode C transmission.  d. Inform the pilot of the difference and request him to keep his mode C on. Question 111: What should a radar controller do if the code displayed on the radar sceen id  difference from the code he has just asked the pilot to squawk?  a. Request the pilot to stop squawk.  b. Request the pilot to confim that he has correctly set the assighned code. c. Request the pilot to recycle the assigned mode and code.  d. Request the pilot to switch the transponder from ON to STANDBY. Question 112: If you instructed an a/c , which you thought to be the response on your display,  to turn and it did not do so, what action should you take?  a. Continue to vector the a/c in the hope that it will be eventally take the turn. b. Turn the a/c back to the original heading.  c. Repeat the message to the pilot and ask him to read back the new heading. d. Turn the a/c to the reciprocal heading.  Question 113: In the case that the radar fails, but communication is still good, the radar  controller should:  a. Instruct a/c to maintain level and VMC.  b. Inform a/c that radar fails and maintain own separation.  c. Instructed a/c to change to APP frequency.  d. Mark position of identified a/c and take mesure to provide non - rada separartion. Question 114: The phraseology used when an a/c with transmitter failure has been given a  turn and the echo is seen to follow instruction is: 

a. Turn observed, will continue to pass instructions.  b. Reply not received, will continue instructions.  c. Turn observed, continue visually.  d. I have one-way contact with you, will continue to control you.  Question 115: In the event of a complete radar failure, the radar controller should: a. Band all traffic back to the procedural controller immediately.  b. Do his best to provide procedural separation for the a/c under his control and  then hand them back to the procedural controller.  c. Tell all a/c under hid control to standby to ask the radio technician to take  immediate action to repair the radar.  d. Continue to control his traffic by asking the resume own navigation. Question 116: Radar is an acronym of:  a. Radio Detecting And Range.  b. Radio Detection And Range. c. Radio Detecting And Ranging.  d. Radio Detection And Ranging.  Question 117: In an SSR system, the interrogator transmission are made on a frequency of: a. 1090 MHz.  b. 1030 MHz.  c. 1003 MHz.  d. 1009 MHz.  Question 118: In an SSR system the transponder responds an interrogator signal with a  transmission on a frequency of:  a. 1090 MHz. 

b. 1030 MHz.  c. 1003 MHz.  d. 1009 MHz.  Question 119: The number assigned to a particular multiple pulse signals transmitted by a  transponder is:  a. Mode.  b. Code.  c. Interrogation.  d. Response.  Question 120: Where SSR is used, transfer of radar identify shall be affected by: a. Instructing the pilot (by the accepting controller) to operate the SPI feature. b. Instructing the pilot (by the transfering controller) to operate the SPI feature. c. Observing (by the accepting controller) to operate the SPI feature.  d. b and c.  Question 121: Radar separation shall only be applied between identified a/c when: a. The a/c are equipped with transponders.  b. There is reasonable assuranse that identification will be maintained. c. There are radar position symbols when depicted on the radar display. d. There is enough distance between identified a/c.  Question 122: Radar separartion based upon primary radar shall be the distance: a. Between the edges of the radar blips.  b. Between the center of the radar blips.*  c. Between the edges of one blip and the center of the other.  d. Between the nearest edges of the blips.. 

Question 123: Whenever the code is assigned to an a/c, the setting of this code shall be  verified by the controller:  a. At the first contact.  b. At the second communication  c. At the appropriate of opportunity.  d. At the earliest of opportunity.  Question 124: The process of correlating particular radar blip or radar position symbol with a  specific a/c is:  a. Radar monitoring.  b. Radar identification.  c. Radar vectoring.  d. Radar separation.  Question 125: The tolerance value which should be used to determine that mode C derived  level information displaed to the controller is accurate shall be:  a. …200 feet b. …300 feet  c. …500 feet d. …1000 feet  Question 126: Before providing radar service to an a/c, the radar controller shall: a. establishied radar identity of that a/c.  b. provide the radar information.  c. Request the pilot to change heading 30 degrees or more.  d. Instruct the pilot to operate SPI feature.  Question 127: An a/c will be considered to be maintaining FL 190 when SSR mode C level  information indicates:  a. 195 

b. 197  c. 193  d. 196.  Question 128: Transfer of identity of a radar blip from the radar controller to another should  be attemted when it is considered that:  a. The a/c is on the frequency of the accepting controller.  b. The a/c is over common boundary.  c. The a/c is within the coverage of the accepting controller in radar display. d. The a/c reports over the last fix displayed on the radar display of transferring  controller.  Question 129: A radar approach controller should not request to adjust speed after the a/c  has passed a point ------- from the threshold on final approach.  a. 10 NM  b. 8 NM  c. 6 NM  d. 4 NM.  Question 130: Radar controllers should give traffic information in the following form: a. Relative bearing- distance- direction- level- a/c type.  b. Relative bearing- distance- heading- altitude.  c. Relative bearing- distance- level- speed- a/c type.  d. Relative bearing- a/c type- heading- level- speed.  PART V: MISCELLANEOUS Question 131: Air traffic control ratings should normally be approved by:  a. AAC chief.  b. TWR chief. 

c. Director of Air traffic Services Center.  d. Director of Aviation Authority of his authorized body  Question 132: When an a/c has been cleared into an area of responsibility of the ACC at a  cruising level which is below the established minimum cruising level for a subsequent portion  of the route, this ACC shall immediately:  a. Request the a/c to maintain the level.  b. Issue a revised clearance to the a/c of a cruising level higher than minimum c. Inform the adjacent ACC .  d. Inform approach control unit.  Question 133: Upon receipt of information that an a/c is making an emergency descent  through other traffic, ATC shall immediately:  a. Instruct all a/c within the specified areas to maintain own navigation.  b. Take all possible actions to safeguard all a/c concerned  c. Issue climb clearance to all a/c, whose flight level or altitude may be crossed. d. Inform the ATC unit which shall receive control transfer of the emergency a/c. Question 134: Air traffic means:  a. All traffic in the air.  b. All a/c in the flight or operating on the manuvering arae of an aerodrome. c. All a/c and helicopters flying within a FIR.  d. All a/c in the air, a/c on apron, and a/c operating in the hangar.  Question 135: Minimum flight altitude has been established for ATS routes: a. At least 600 m above MSL.  b. At least 300 m above terrain.  c. At least 300m, above the highest obtacles in plain area, 600m above the highest obstacles  in mountain area. 

d. At least 600m above the highest obstacles in plain area, 900m above the highest obstacles  in mountain area  Question 136: The vertical separation minimum shall be nominal 300 metres (100ft)….. a. Below an altitude of 8.850 metres( 29.000ft).  b. Below flight level 290.  c. a and b.  d. At or above flight level 290.  Question 137: Co-ordination between two ACCs is based on:  a. Letter of agreement between ACCs.*  b. ICAO rules of the air.  c. Air traffic Regulations of Vietnam.  d. Regional supplementary procedure.  Question 138: A transfering center shall forward an accepting center: a. Necessary flight plan.  b. Control information.  c. a or b.  d. a and b.  Question 139: In the case of an a/c is approaching FIR (or boudary of the two areas of  responsibility) but co-ordination has not been sucessfully made , the transfering center shall: a. Hold the a/c within the transfering center area untill co-ordination can be effected with  the ajacenrt center.  b. Release the a/c to the adjacent center then make co-ordination as required. c. Request the a/c itself to communicate.  d. Send the a/c back to the aerodrome of departure. 

Question 140: The primary responsibility for the control of a/c which has already had  communication with the accepting center but is still operating within the control area of transfering  center, belongs to:  a. The accepting center.  b. The transfering center.  c. Both centers.  d. None of them.  Question 141: Information of arriving a/c shall be forwarded by ACC to APP not less than……..  minutes before ETO:  a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes  c. 15 minutes d. 20 minutes  Question 142: Co-ordination between civil and military ATS unit covers operations of:  a. Civil a/c movements.  b. Military transpot a/c movements flying on ATS routes.  c. Military flight which may affect on the operation of civil air traffic.  d. All of the above*  Question 143: An a/c altimeter is set with standard pressure reference (760mHg or 1,013.2 hPa).  Circle the correct report from the a/c :  a. Maintaining FL050, VN 790* b. Maintaining 1500 metres, VN 790   c. Maintaining 5000 feet, VN 790 d. None of the above  Question 144: A radiotelephony distress message transmitted by an a/c should commence with the  word “….” preferable spoken three times.  a. SOS b. MAYDAY*  c. PANPAN d. EMERGENCY 

Question 145: VHF band specified for air ground communication is:   a. From1080 MHz to 117,975 b. From 118 MHz to 137 MHz MHz  c. From 145 MHz to 190 MHz d. All frequencies higher than 190 MHz Question 146: If the cloud amount is 4 oktas, how to report the pilot about it?  a. OVC b. BKN  c. SCT* d. All the above  Question 147: ATC may report to a/c meteorological information by the term “CAVOK” when: a. No cloud below 1500m or below the highest minimum sector altitude which ever is  greater, and no Cumulonimbus.  b. Visibility 10 km or more.  c. No precipitation, thunderstorm , shallow fog or low drifting snow.  d. All the above.*  Question 148: VVVV P2  GND 1500m  The above indicates:  a. Prohibited area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m.* b. Restricted area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m. c. Danger area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m. d. Not sure.  Question 150: Co-ordination between civil and military ATS unit covers operations of: a. Military flight which may effect on the operation of civil air traffic.  b. Civil a/c movements.  c. Military transport a/c movements flying on ATS routes.  d. All of the above* 

Question 151: ATC unit may use the following means of communications for co-ordination purposes:  a. AFTN b. Data-exchange circuits  c. Direct speech circuits d. All of the above.*  Question 152: Minimum sector altitude ensures:  a. At least 300m above MSL.  b. At least 300m above terrain.  c. At least 300m above the highest obstacles in plain area, 600m above the highest obstacles  in mountain area.*  d. At least 300m above the highest obstacles in plain area, 900m above the highest obstacles  in mountain area.  Question 154: The vertical separation minimum shall be nominal 300 metres (1000ft). a. Below an altitude of 8.850 metres ( 29.000 feet).  b. Below flight level 290  c. At or above flight level 290.  d. a and b.  Question 156: Air traffic clearances are issued by: a. Area control center b. Approach control unit  c. Aerodrome control tower d. All the above  Question 161: An APP unit issues VN 790 instruction for straight – in approach runway 25L. a. VN 790, straight-in approach runway 25L approved.  b. VN 790, straight-in approach approved.  c. VN 790, cleared straight-in approach runway 25L*.  d. VN 790, cleared straight-in approach  

Question 162: Circle the correct spelling acording to number by transmitting procedure for  radiotelephony communication:  a. FL 290: Flight level two hundred and ninety.  b. FL 290: Flight level two nine zero*  c. FL 290: Flight level two ninety.  d. FL 290: Flight level two nine thousand feet.  Question 163: “ ZCZC GHA 273 070407  FF VVNB ZPZX  (ARR-HVN322-VVTS-VVDN 0359)  The message informs:  a. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 03.59 UTC.  b. Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 03.59 UTC.  c. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVDN at 03.59 UTC.*  d. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 03.59 UTC.  Question 164: TAFF is the name of the code for the aviation routine report is issued: a. At any time when certain criteria are met.  b. At hourly or half hourly.  c. Every 3 hours.  d. Every 6 hours.*  Question 165: What do you do in the first action if you receive the infotmation “hijack on the a/c”  from the pilot-in-command of the taxiing a/c:  a. Stop taxi b. Taxi the a/c to the apron  c. Taxi to the separate place* d. clear for take-off 

Question 166: Times separation minima between a/c in holding pattern is:  a. 15 minutes b. 10 minutes  c. 5 minutes d. None the above*  Question 167: Ground to air communication is:  a. One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth to a/c.* b. One-way communication from a/c to stations on the surface of the earth to a/c. c. Two-way communication between aeronautical stations and the aeronautical mobile  service Question 168: ILS reference datum is:  a. A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centre  line and the threshold and through which the downward extended straight portion of the  glide path passes.*  b. A line at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centre  line and the threshold and through which the downward extended straight portion of the  glide path passes.  c. A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centre  line and the threshold and through which the upward extended straight portion of the glide  path passes.  Question 169: The airbone VOR equipment is reffered to:  a. As airbone VOR receiver*  b. As airbone VOR transmitter.  c. As airbone VOR transceiver.  Question 170: The phraseology used to decrease the speed of an a/c to 180 IAS is: a. Reduce speed to ONE EIGHT ZERO KNOTS*  b. Decrease the speed to ONE EIGHTY.  c. If feasible reduce to ONE EIGHT ZERO KNOTS. 

d. Decrease your speed to ONE EIGHT ZERO PRACTICABLE.  Question 171: When two a/c are executing a visual approach, the succeeding a/c must: a. have the airport in sight.  b. Be sighted by tower.  c. Have the RWY in sight.  d. Have both RWY and preceeding AFCT in sight *.  Question 172: VASIS is one of the landing aids that we have in our airport. When an a/c flies on the  correct slope what colour does the pilot see when descending?  a. Intermittent RED and WHITE.  b. Intermittent BLUE and WHITE.  c. RED colour only.  d. WHITE colour only.*   Question 173: Who is responsible for check alignment of the Rdar video display to assure the video  map or overlay is properly aligned with a permanent target of known and azimuth on the radar  display?  a. The technician.  b. The watch supervisor.  c. The “D” controller.*  d. The assistant controller.  Question 174: The minimum horizontal radar separation is 5 NM ( 9.3 km) within …… from Danang  airport.  a. 60 NM b. 50 NM c. 40 NM* d. 35 NM 

Question 175: The primary responsibility for the control of the a/c which has already had  communication with the accepting unit but is still operating within the control area of transfering  unit, belongs to:   a. The transfering unit* b. The accepting unit  c. Both units d. None of them.  Question 176: Using mode A for:  a. Automatic pressure altitude information.  b. Civil and Military identification*.  c. Research and future development.  Question 178: Frequency used in SSR transponder receiver:  a. 1040 MHz b. 1050 MHz  c. 1030 MHz* d. 1090 MHz  Question 179: An a/c making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed  approach if the a/c is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last ……. of the  approach.  a. 5 NM.  b. 4 NM  c. 3 NM.  d. 2 NM*  Question 180: What is the minimum angle of turn necessary to identify an a/c?  a. 15 degrees b. 25 degrees  c. 30 degrees* d. 45 degrees  Question 181: Aircraft taking-off can be positively identified only if they are seen: a. Within 5 miles of the upwind end of the runway. 

b. Within 3 miles of the upwind end of the runway.  c. Within 1 mile of the upwind end of the runway.  d. Actually leaving the runway.  Question 182: The final clearance should be given at:  a. 5 miles b. 4 miles  c. 3 miles d. 2 miles*  Question 183: When observing invalid mode C readouts, what phraseology should the controller ask  the pilot check his altimeter setting?  a. Check altimeter setting b. Check your present level  c. Confirm altitude d. Check altimeter setting and confirm level* Question 184: Vector an arriving a/c to intercept the final approach course at an angle not greater  than ………  a. 15 degrees b. 20 degrees  c. 30 degrees d. 45 degrees  Question 185: Speed adjustments may not be requested or applied after the a/c has passed a point of  ……. from the threshold on final approach.  a. 3 NM b. 4 NM*  c. 5 NM d. 8 NM  Question 186: Radar separation may be applied between an a/c taking off and other radar controlled  flights provided there is reasonable assurance that:  a. The taking off a/c will be identified within 1 NM from the end of the runway and at the  time the required radar separation will exist. 

b. The taking –off a/c is at or above the minimum flight altitude of minimum safety altitude. c. Both taking – off a/c and other radar controller flight are being identified. Question 187: Radar vectoring of an arriving a/c shall be terminated when:   a. The a/c requests and is granted permission to cancel IFR and proceed VFR. b. The a/c requests and is cleared for visual approach .  c. The a/c reports established on final approach path of an instrument approach. d. All the above*.  Question 188: A/c being radar vectored for an approach as soon as practicable, be informed of: a. The type of approach to be anticipated and the runway in use.  b. The traffic on the aerodrome circuit.  c. The lastest landing condition.  d. Both a and c*  Question 189: What is the maximum range at which an a/c should use the ILS glide path for descent  guidance?  a. 30NM b. 40 NM  c. 25 NM d. 20 NM  Question 190: Radar vectoring for departing a/c shall not be terminated untill : a. Reaching the sector’s MA and establishing on a track where the pilot can conduct own  navigation.*  b. Passing the flight level of transition.  c. Passing the transition altitude.  d. All above.  Question 192: An a/c will considered to have reached the level to which it has been cleared when: a. Level information derived by mode C indicated that it is within 90 m( 300 ft) of it’s  assigned level.  b. After three consecutive renewals of mode C derived level information. 

c. As long as mode C derived level information indicated that it is within plus or minus  90m(300ft).  d. Three consecutive renewals of mode C derived level information have indicated that it is  within 90m(300ft) of it’s assigned levels*  Question 193: The main uses radar in an approach control service are:  a. Vector a/c to a nominated position from which the final approach may be flown. b. Carry out SRA and PRA approaches.  c. Monitor signigicant deviations from the nominal approach path of pilot interpreted  approach.  d. All the above*  Question 194: An a/c may be vectored into uncontrolled airspace when:  a. On pilot’s request of to circumnavigate bad wether.  b. In case of emergency and on pilot’s request.  c. In case of emergency.  d. a and b.*  Question 195: When initial climb sectors altitude have not been promulgated(coâng boá), a/c shall  not be radar vectored untill:  a. Reaching the lowest flight level.  b. Reaching the transition alitude.  c. Reaching a level at least 1000 ft above the highest obtacle within 5 NM of the a/c.* Question 196: An a/c may be vectored for a visual approach under circumstances: a. When ceiling visibility is OK.  b. By day only.*  c. All the time. 

Question 197: How many reasons why miss - identification occur?  a. 3 b. 7*  c. 9 d. 11  Question 198: How many methods using for identification by SSR?  a. 3 b. 4  c. 5 d. 6*  Question 199: How many methods using for identification by PSR?  a. 3 b. 4*  c. 5 d. 6  Question 201: ATC replies to a/c ‘s request to start up :  a. VN 790, cleared start up b. VN790, clear to start up  c. VN 790, start up approved* d. VN 790, approved start up  Question 202: Put the following AFTN message indicators: FF,GG, SS,KK,DD in correct order of  priority:

a. FF, KK   DD, GG   SS  b. SS   GG, KK  DD, FF  c. DD, KK  SS   GG, FF  d. SS 

 DD, FF  GG, KK*    CÂU HỎI CHO KSVKL ATO

CÂU HỎI CHO KSVKL ATO   Question 1. AIRAC stands for ________.  a.Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control  b. Aeronautical Information Regulation and Check  c. Aeronautical Information Rules and Control  d. Aeronautical Information Rules and Check   Question 2. The schedule of AIRAC effective dates must be based on interval of _____? a. 14 days  b. 28 days  c. 42 days  d. 56 days  Question 3. The minimum difference between the AIRAC publication date and effective dated is  at least ________.  a. 42 days  b. 28 days  c. 7 days  d. 56 days  Question 4. The AIRAC AIP Amendments or supplements shall be distributed at least ______ in  advance of the effective date.  a. 28 days  b. 14 days 

c. 42 days  d. 56 days  Question 5. The AIRAC AIP Amendments or supplements should be reached recipients at least  ______ in advance of the effective date.  a. 28 days  b. 14 days  c. 42 days  d. 56 days  Question 6. A list of AIRAC effective dates, publication dates and latest dates on which material  has to reach the AIS must be published on yearly basis in the form of ________. a. an AIC  b. a NOTAM  c. a List of Valid NOTAM  d. None of the above  Question 7. The significant date(s) associated with the AIRAC system is (are) ______. a. the effective date  b. the latest date for raw material to reach the AIS  c. the publication date  d. All of the above  Question 8. In case, the introduction of new ATS routes, AIRAC AIP supplements shall be  distributed at least ______ in advance of the effective date?  a. 42 days  b. 56 days  c. 14 days 

d. 28 days Question 9. AIS must ensure that AIRAC material provided in electronic form is received by  the user at least 28 days in advance of the______.  a. AIRAC effective date  b. AIRAC publication date  c. publication date and effective date  d. publication date  Question 10. Permanent changes to the information contained in the AIP are issued as  ________.  a. AIP Amendment  b. AIP Supplement  c. NOTAM  d. AIC  Question 11. As mentioned in Viet Nam AIP, the regular interval between Viet Nam AIP  Amendment is ________.  a. every three months  b. every four months  c. on 30th of March, July and November  d. on 30th of March and July  Question 12. The changes to AIP should be published by _________.   a. AIP AMDT  b. AIC  c. AIP SUP, AIP AMDT and NOTAM 

d. All of the above  Question 13. AIP Viet Nam consists of ________.  a. one part  b. two parts  c. three parts  d. six parts  Question 14. When AIP Amendments is not published at the established regular interval, what  shall you do on the publication date?  a. Distribute a message to users  b. Issue a NIL NOTAM  c. Inform to the buyer AIP by fax  d. All of the above  Question 15. Each AIP Amendment shall consist of ___________.  a. cover page  b. checklist of pages  c. replacement pages  d. All of the above  Question 16. The location indicators used in a country are found in Section ________of the  AIP.  a. GEN 0  b. GEN 1  c. GEN 2  d. GEN 3 

Question 17. The AIP is a document which contains information of _________. a. a permanent nature  b. an administrative nature d. an advisory nature  Question 18. In which part of the AIP can you find the lateral limits of restricted areas? a. GEN  b. AD  c. ENR  d. GEN and ENR  Question 19. In which part of the AIP can you find the length of a runway? a. AD  b. GEN  c. ENR  d. AD and ENR  Question 20. Differences from ICAO standards are included in sub-section _________ of AIP. a. ENR 1.7  b. GEN 1.7  c. GEN 2.7  d. ENR 2.7  Question 21. AIP Supplements contain information _________.  a. of temporary change of long duration and/or information requiring graphics b. of an administrative nature  c. with graphics only  d. with extensive text only  Question 22. AIP Supplement pages should be coloured, preferably in _________. a. white 

b. yellow  c. Green  d. Blue  Question 23. Advantages of AIP Supplements are _________.  a. wider circulation and more scope for expression  b. maps and diagrams included  c. long time record  d. All of the above  Question 24. A checklist of all AIP Supplements currently in force must be issued at interval  of _________.  a. not more than three months  b. not more than one month  c. not more than six months  d. not more than one year  Question 25. When an AIP Supplement is sent in replacement of a NOTAM, it shall include a  reference to_________.  a. series of the NOTAM  b. NOTAM number  c. the series and number of the NOTAM  d. NOTAM  Question 26. What are the series of AIP SUP Viet Nam?  a. Series A and B  b. Series A and C

c. No series  d. Serie A  Question 27. Each AIP Supplement of Viet Nam must show _______. a. publication date and an effective date  b. an effective date  c. an application date  d. publication date  Question 28. Checklist of AIC currently in force shall be issued at least _______. a. once a month  b. once in 6 months  c. once in 3 months  d. once a year  Question 29. An AIC contains information _________.  a. of temporary change of long duration and/or information requiring graphics b. of an administrative nature  c. with graphics only  d. with extensive text only  Question 30. AIC must be given the same distribution as the _________. a. AIP, AIP AMDT and AIP SUP  b. AIP, NOTAM and AIP SUP  c. AIP, AIP SUP and PIB  d. NOTAM, PIB and AIP AMDT  Question 31. Which colour is regulated for AIC Viet Nam?  a. yellow 

b. blue  c. White  d. Pink  Question 32. AIC should be colour code by subject as_________. a. white - Safety  b. white - Administrative  c. white - Maps/Charts  d. white - Air Traffic Control  Question 33. The List of valid NOTAM shall refer to ________.  a. the latest AIP Amendment  b. checklist of AIP Supplements  c. checklist of AIC  d. All of the above  Question 34. The List of valid NOTAM shall be published ________. a. at the end of the month  b. on the first day of the month  c. at the middle of the month  d. at the end of the year  Question 35. How many series NOTAM are there in Viet Nam List of valid NOTAM? a. Three series (A, B and C)  b. Two series (A and J)  c. Three series (A, C and J)  d. Two series (A and B)

Question 36. NOTAM List of Viet Nam includes NOTAM in force and is arranged as follows  _______.   a. HAN FIR, HCM FIR  b. HAN FIR, HCM FIR, International and Domestic Airports  c. HAN FIR, HCM FIR, InternationalAirports  d. HAN FIR, HCM FIR, Domestic Airports  Question 37. 1 degree = 60 NM, 60 Minutes = _____.  a. 58 NM  b. 62 NM  c. 60 NM  d. 1 NM  Question 38. If the Magnetic Track is 124º and variation is 1ºW, the True bearing is ______. a. 123º  b. 124º  c. 125º  d. 142º  Question 39. A scale of 1: 5.000 is bigger than ______.  a. 1 : 500  b. 1 : 250  c. 1 : 50.000  d. 1 : 2500  Question 40. NOTAM notifying unserviceability of aids to air navigation, facilities or  communication services shall give _______ at which restoration of service is expected. a. an estimate of the period of unserviceability or the time 

b. PERM  c. an estimate of the period of the time  d. None of the above  Question 41. NOTAM originated for AIP Supplement in accordance with AIRAC procedures  shall remain valid in the pre-flight information bulletin for _______.  a. 56 days  b. 42 days  c. 14 days  d. 28 days  Question 42_________ advance notice shall be given of the activation of established danger  area.  a. At least 10 days’  b. At least 3 days’  c. At least 1 month  d. At least 3 days’ or 7 days’  Question 43. A NOTAM containing permanent or temporary information of long duration  shall carry appropriate____________ references.  a. AIP AMDT  b. AIP SUP  c. AIC  d. AIP/AIP SUP  Question 44. How many fields are there in Item Q?  a. 6 fields 

b. 8 fields  c. 7 fields  d. 9 fields  Question 45. Units of measurement used in Item F and Item G can be ________. a. meter   b. flight level  c. Feet  d. Both (1) and (3)  Question 46. All NOTAM Code groups contain a total of ______.  a. 3 leters  b. 4 leters  c. 5 leters  d. 6 leters  Question 47. Each NOTAM shall deal with only ________.  a. one subject  b. one condition of the subject  c. Both (1) and (2)  d. Either (1) or (2)  Question 48. The Checklist of valid NOTAM shall refer to _______.  a. The latest AIP Amendment  b. The latest AIP Supplements  c. The latest AIC  d. All of the above  Question 49. When are the Trigger NOTAMs issued? 

a. On Effective date   b. On Publication date  c. 28 days before the effective date  d. Both (2) and (3)  Question 50. __________ NOTAM contains information of concern to domestic fights. a. A series  b. B series  c. C series  d. S series  Question 51. NOTAM should not remain in force for more than _________. a. six months  b. four months  c. three months  d. one month  Question 52. _____ is a presentation of current NOTAM information of operational  significance, prepared prior to flight.  a. Pre-flight information bulletin  b. Post flight information  c. NOTAM checklist  d. List of valid NOTAM  Question 53. Pre-flight Information must be made available at ______.  a. all civil and military airports  b. all aerodromes normally used for international operations  c. all aerodromes serving long-haul flights 

d. all aerodromes service regional flights only Question 54. Pre-flight information bulletin (PIB) shall be established based on the first stage  of the route, from the departure to_______.  a. Alternate aerodrome  b. First landing  c. (1) and (2)  d. (1) or (2)  Question 55. Pre-flight information bulletins contain information on the status of facilities and services taken from ______.  a. current NOTAM and made available to flight crews  b. AIP, AIP AMDT  c. AIP SUP, AIP AMDT  d. (2) and (3)  Question 56. When receiving the PIB, crew members shall be required by______ to sign their  full name on the PIB record.  a. the AD AIS unit   b. the ATS Reporting Office   c. the MET Briefing Office   d. the Ground Unit  Question 57. In case the PIBs have been received by crew members and if there are any  significant changes in connection with the flight, the contents of that NOTAM shall be  informed immediately to the crew members via ________.  a. MET unit  b. SAR unit 

c. TWR, ACC or by airlines representatives involved  d. Ground unit  Question 58. What is the post-flight report?  a. The report that a pilot submits before a flight  b. The report that a pilot submits whenever he has a complaint  c. The report that a pilot submits after a flight  d. In case of fire, what should an on-duty employee do  Question 59. The purpose of ______is to ensure that inadequacies of facilities essential to the  safety of flight operations, and the presence of birds on or around the airport constituting a  potential hazard to aircraft operations, observed by a pilot during the flight, are reported  without delay to the authority responsible for those facilities.  a. pre-flight information bulletins  b. verbal briefing  c. post-flight information  d. self-briefing  Question 60. Post-flight information received at aerodrome/heliport information concerning  the State and the operation of air navigation facilities is normally noted by______.  a. flight operators  b. airlines personnel  c. ATC  d. Pilots  Question 61. In case the Post-flight report of crew members or air operators is confirmed as  correct, who shall immediately inform the associated ATS units to alert or directly alert to  crew members? 

a. The MET Briefing Office at the airport b. The aerodrome AIS unit at the airport  c. The ATS Reporting Office at the airport  d. The Air traffic services at the airport  Question 62. On receipt of Post-flight information from the pilot, the AIS unit at the airport  shall _______.  a. file it away  b. wait for NOTAM to be issued by the foreign authority  c. issue NOTAM  d. immediately inform relevant organizations, units to verify the accuracy of the information  Question 63. Which ICAO document provides the standards and recommended practices of  AIS?  a. Annex 15  b. Doc 7383  c. Doc 8126  d. Doc 8585  Question 64. What is the title of Annex 19?  a. Aeronautical Information Services  b. Aerodromes  c. Safety Management  d. Security  Question 65. Which Annex contains the Standard and Recommended Practices for all types of  aeronautical charts? 

a. Annex 4  b. Annex 5  c. Annex 14  d. Annex 15  Question 66. What is the title of Annex 10?  a. Operation of Aircraft  b. Aeronautical Telecommunications   c. Security  d. Facilitation  Question 67. In which ICAO document can you find the AIRAC effective dates? a. Doc 8585  b. Doc 8126  c. Doc 7910  d. Doc 4444  Question 68. In which ICAO document can you find the postal address of AIS of states? a. Doc 7910  b. Doc 8126  c. Doc 8585  d. Doc 7383  Question 69. Which ICAO document contains the location indicators?  a. Doc 8585  b. Doc 7383  c. Doc 7910  d. Doc 8400 

Question 70. In which ICAO document can you find the Q Codes? a. Doc 8697  b. Doc 7910  c. Doc 7383  d. Doc 8400  Question 71. Which ICAO document contains the designators for Aeronautical Authorities? a. Doc 8697  b. Doc 7910  c. Doc 8585  d. Doc 8400  Question 72. What is the title of Annex 14?  a. Aeronautical Information Services  b. Search and Rescue  c. Aerodromes  d. Rules of the Air  Question 73. How many annexes are used to publish ICAO’s standards and recommended  practices?  a. 18  b. 19  c. 16  d. 15  Question 74. As ICAO recommends in Doc 8126, the detailed information on Heliports in the  AIP should be found in _____ 

a. AD 0  b. AD 1  c. AD 2  d. AD 3  Question 75. What is the title of Annex 11?  a. Aeronautical Information Services  b. Search and Rescue  c. Air Traffic Services  d. Rules of the Air  Question 76. ICAO’s standards and recommended practices on Search and Rescue can be  found in _____  a. Annex 9  b. Annex 12  c. Annex 13  d. Annex 16  Question 77. In case the introduction of new approach and/or departure procedures at  international aerodromes are needed, a distribution date of ________ (or even longer) in  advance of the effective date should be used.  a. 14 days  b. 28 days  c. 42 days  d. 56 days 

Question 78. When the AIS does not receive AIRAC material from the responsible  authorities/agencies for publication on the next scheduled AIRAC effective date, it must issue  a ________ (or other means).  a. NIL notification by AIP b. TRIGGER notification by NOTAM  c. NIL notification by NOTAM  d. NON AIRAC notification by NOTAM  Question 79. When information has not been submitted by the AIRAC date, a NIL notification  shall be originated and distributed by NOTAM or other suitable means, not later than one cycle  before the ________concerned.  a. AIRAC publication date  b. AIRAC effective date  c. AIRAC distribution date  d. AIRAC delivery date  Question 80. AIP stands for________.  a. Airport Information Publication  b. Airport International Publication  c. Aeronautical Information Publication  d. Aerodrome Identification Provision  Question 81: TORA is _________.  a. Take-off distance available  b. Take-off run available  c. Take-off available  d. Take-off distance 

Question 82: TODA is _________.  a. Take-off distance available  b. Take-off run available  c. Take-off available  d. Take-off distance  Question 83: Runway markings shall be _________.  a. yellow  b. green  c. red  d. white  Question 84: Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings shall be _________. a. yellow  b. green  c. red  d. white  Question 85: An ILS CAT I can guide an arriving aircraft to ______.  a. decision height of 30 m  b. outer marker  c. middle marker  d. decision height of 60 m  Question 86: The width of a precision approach runway should be not less than ______ where  the code number is 1 or 2.  a. 23m  b. 30 m 

c. 45m  4. 60m  Question 87: The width of a precision approach runway should be not less than ______ where  the code number is 4. a. 23m  b. 30 m  c. 45m  d. 60m  Question 88: TORA shall be calculated equal _________.  a. the length of RWY  b. the length of RWY and SWY  c. the length of RWY and CWY  d. distance from displaced threshold  Question 89: Aerodrome reference point is the designated geographical location of _______. a. an apron   b. an aerodrome  c. a TWR  d. a stand  Question 90: Runway visual range can be reported in ______.  a. a SIGMET  b. Both a TAF and a METAR  c. a METAR  d. a TAF 

Question 91: RVR stands for________.  a. Runway visual range  b. Runway visibility range  c. Runway visual rule  d. Prevailing visibility  Question 92: Foot = ?  a. The length equal to 0.304 8 metre   b. The length equal to 0.314 8 metre   c. The length equal to 0.300 8 metre   d.The length equal to 0.305 metre  Question 93: Knot (kt) = ?  a. The speed equal to 1 nautical mile per hour  b. The speed equal to 1 kilometre per hour  c. The speed equal to 1 nautical mile per metre  d. The speed equal to 2 nautical mile per hour  Question 94: What is the Unit of measurement used to express radius in the Q line (NOTAM  format)?  a. NM  b. M  c. KM  d. FT  Question 95: Viet Nam is +7hr ahead of UTC. When the UTC time is 2330, what is the local  Viet Nam time? 

a. 0600LT  b. 0630LT (next day)  c. 1630LT  d. 0830LT (next day)  Question 96: The pilot of an aircraft experience two-way radio communication failure shall set  his transponder to code________. a. A/3 7400   b. A/3 7500   c. A/3 7600  d. A/3 7700  Question 97: The International routes to be used for __________.  a. International flights  b. Domestic flights  c. International and Domestic flights  d. Military flights  Question 98: A Precision instrument approach of CAT II operation with a decision  height_________.  a. not lower than 60m  b. not lower than 50m   c. lower than 60m but not lower than 30m  d. lower than 30m but not lower than 15m  Question 99: Transition level is the lowest _____ available for use above the transition  altitude. 

a. flight level  b. altitudes  c. vertical position   d. elevation  Question 100: A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be  submitted at least ________ before departure.  a. 60 minutes  b. 30 minutes  c. 15 minutes  d. 10 minutes