3.1. Review 1 [PDF]

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TÂY NINH KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2019 - 2020 -----------------------Ngày thi: 02 tháng 6 năm 2019 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (chuyên) Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) -------------------------------------------------------------------------ĐIỂM Bằng số

Bằng chữ

HỌ TÊN VÀ CHỮ KÍ CỦA GIÁM KHẢO GIÁM KHẢO 1 GIÁM KHẢO 2

MÃ SỐ PHÁCH

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi có 9 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi) I. LISTENING: (2/10 MS) Part 1 (0.5 M) You will listen to a talk by the Water Project Manager of a charity called ‘Charity –Water’. For each of the following questions, choose the option which fits best to what you hear. Write your answers (A, B, or C) in the numbered boxes. 1. The speaker’s job requires A. a great deal of walking. B. extensive travel. C. stories. 2. Why is this story being told? A. to encourage Helen B. for entertainment purposes C. to promote Charity-Water 3. When villagers heard of the charity workers’ arrival, they A. had a party. B. were suspicious. C. took no notice. 4. Helen is feeling A. delighted with her new life. B. curious about the charity workers. C. nostalgic about her old life. 5. What did the speaker notice about Helen? A. that she had bathed recently B. the care that she took with her appearance C. that she was wearing a green uniform Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 2 (1 M) You will hear a man called Jay Carter talking about his time in the Amazon rainforest. Complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. Experiences in the rainforest The purpose of Jay's trip to the Amazon was to write an article about the (6) ___________________ which live in the rainforest. Jay was unprepared for the lack of (7) ___________________ in the rainforest. Jay makes a comparison between the huge noisy insects in the rainforest and (8) ___________________ with wings. Jay uses the word (9) ___________________ to describe his feelings when he first saw a jaguar. Jay says that the average male jaguar has a territory of (10) ___________________ in size. When he met the local forest people, Jay remembers being offered a very large (11) ___________________ to eat. Jay says that the forest people have a feeling of (12) ___________________ for the jaguars. Jay explains that in some areas, (13) ___________________ regard jaguars as a threat to their property. Jay has heard that being in contact with animals such as (14) ___________________ is a potential health risk to jaguars. The (15) ___________________ that Jay is now involved in are intended to raise awareness of the threats to the survival of jaguars. Your answers: 6. 11.

7.

8.

9.

10.

12.

13.

14.

15.

Part 3 (0.5 M) You will hear an interview with Pamela Green, a young fashion designer. Are these statements true (T) or false (F)? 16. Doing research into the fashion industry helped Pamela to decide to become a fashion designer. 17. When starting your own fashion label, it's not important to have a business plan. 18. Pamela usually finds inspiration for her fashion designs in the clothes she wears. 19. According to Pamela, successful designers need to be able to recognize all past styles. 20. People who want a career in fashion should be aware of the options available. Your answers: 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (2.5/10 MS) Part 1 (1 M) Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the numbered boxes. 21. Wow! That new outfit really ______ you, Veronica. You look fantastic! A. matches B. goes with C. suits D. concerns 22. It was ______ of Thomas not to milk the cows and to leave them in discomfort all night. A. confident B. triumphant C. negligent D. convenient

23. It is good that Anthony's birthday ______ with our anniversary. Otherwise, we'd have to go to the trouble of launching two parties. A. corresponds B. coincides C. harmonizes D. identifies 24. It's believed that the volcano is ______, but the seismologists suspect it might erupt one day. A. extinguishing B. exhausted C. extinct D. expelled 25. Governments have enacted laws to protect wildlife ______ commercial trade and overhunting. A. from B. without C. for D. at 26. By the time you get back, I ______ all my correspondence and then I ______ you with yours. A. will have finished/ can help B. will finish/ can have helped C. will be finished/ have helped D. have finished/ have helped 27. "I haven't heard from Hugo recently. Is he around?" "Yes, but he's thinking of going ______ in the French Alps soon." A. to trek B. to be trekking C. trekking D. of trek 28. I think she is a good teacher, ______? A. don’t I B. do I C. is she D. isn’t she 29. This small seaside town is almost deserted in the winter, ______ there are a few people who live here permanently. A. even B. otherwise C. although D. despite 30. I hope this headache will ______ soon. A. go out B. wear off C. put away D. pass away Your answers: 21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Part 2 (0.5 M) The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. NATURAL DESTRUCTION For all the talk of what humankind has done causing destruction to the planet, we should not forget that nature themselves is a powerful force, capable of doing damage on a huge scale. The greenhouse effect and the hole in the ozone layer are indeed making worse by the industrialized society we live in. However, we must remember that there are certain species of plant and animal what, quite naturally, give off gases that are very harmful at the atmosphere. And only fifty years ago in London, hundreds of people died from the smog which hung over the River Thames. What is interesting here is that, yes, smoke and gases from industry, vehicles and fossil fuels were ingredients in this dead mixture. The other vital ingredient, though, was the completely natural fog, and who would have thought that could be harmful? Your answers: 0. causing → to cause 33. →

31. → 34. →

32. → 35. →

Part 3 (1 M) Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals in brackets to form a word that fits in the gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. Kick the online bully in you A recent study showed that once children reach the age where they’re able to use the Internet and have a social media account, around 50 per cent will go on to do some kind of online bullying. We might think that statistic cannot be true, but it’s roughly (36, EQUALITY) ______ to the (37, PERCENT) ______ of children who claim to have been bullied. Online bullies need not (38, NECESSARY) ______ be juvenile (39, DELINQUENCY) ______; most are just (40, BLITHE) ______ unaware of how (41, HURT) ______ their remarks can be. If they were brought up correctly by their parents, they certainly ought to know better than to do it, but often it takes a (42, REALIZE) ______ about the feelings of others to change their conduct. For that to happen, the bully must experience the reaction of the (43, BULLY) ______ first-hand. With the (44, ANONYMOUS) ______ provided by the Internet, bullies can often easily get away with their taunts. But what should happen to children who get caught bullying – have their accounts (45, FREEZE) ______ or get banned from using the Internet? The latter would have to be up to parents, but unfortunately they’re sometimes the source of the problem in the first place. Your answers: 36. 41.

37. 42.

38. 43.

39. 44.

40. 45.

III. READING (3/10 MS) Part 1 (0.8 M) Read the following passage and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the article. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the numbered boxes. Wind power is energy, such as electricity, that is generated directly from the wind. It is considered a renewable energy source because there is always wind on the Earth and we aren't "using up" the wind when we make energy from it. Wind power also does not cause pollution. In order to make electricity from wind, energy companies use large windmills called wind turbines. They are called this because they use turbine generators to generate the electricity. In order to create a lot of energy capable of powering thousands of homes, energy companies build large wind farms with lots of wind turbines. They usually build these in consistently windy places. Some companies build wind farms out in the ocean. These are called offshore wind farms.  Wind turbines are really big structures. The tower itself is typically between 200 and 300 feet tall. When you add in the height of the blades, some turbines tower 400 feet high! The blades are quite big, too. There are typically three wind blades on a wind turbine. Each blade is usually between 115 and 148 feet long.  A wind turbine works the opposite of a fan. Instead of using electricity to turn the blades to make wind, it uses the wind to turn the blades to make electricity. If there isn't any wind, then no energy will be generated by the wind turbine. However, engineers do a lot of measurements and calculations to figure out the best areas to place the wind turbines. The wind won't be blowing all the time, but the important thing is how much the wind blows on average. 

One major issue some people have with wind power is how the wind turbines mess up the view or landscape. Other drawbacks include the large blades killing birds and noise pollution from the turbines. However, most people agree that the positives of a fully renewable and clean energy resource far outweigh the negatives.  46. Which is the best title for the passage? A. Wind turbines B. The history of wind C. Wind power D. Energy 47. According to the passage, which of the following best describes renewable energy? A. Energy from fossil fuels B. Energy that is generated by burning up something C. An energy source that is not used up D. Energy that is used to make electricity 48. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Wind power is considered a renewable energy source. B. Wind power produces a lot of air pollution. C. Wind turbines will continue to generate energy even when there isn't any wind. D. There are more disadvantages of a renewable energy resource than advantages. 49. What are large windmills used for generating electricity called? A. Electric fans B. Wind turbines C. Solar panels D. Energy mills 50. Which of the following works the opposite of a wind turbine? A. Solar panel B. Electric fan C. Nuclear power plant D. Hydropower 51. Around how long is the typical blade on a wind turbine? A. 50 feet B. 10 feet C. 20 feet D. Over 100 feet 52. The word "outweigh" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______. A. surpass B. fail C. surrender D. succeed 53. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______. A. fan B. earth C. electricity D. wind Your answers: 46. 47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

53.

Part 2 (0.7 M) You are going to read a newspaper article which discusses alternative power systems for vehicles. For questions 54-60, choose from the sections of the article (A-E). Write your answers in the numbered boxes. In which section of the article are the following mentioned? 54. …………… the advantages of conventional cars 55. …………… a smaller version of existing technology 56. …………… a willingness to invest in new technologies 57. …………… a power source associated with a space program 58. …………… a negative aesthetic impression 59. …………… devices that function best when conditions are constant 60. …………… the existence of a market for a certain type of vehicle Vehicles of the future A. The motor industry is finally showing some serious interest in developing costeffective and environmentally friendly technologies to power vehicles, as can be seen by the amount of money they are spending on research and development. There are some sound reasons for this: nowadays a significant number of people would prefer to buy a vehicle that did not emit greenhouse gases into the atmosphere or pollute the

B.

C.

D.

E.

environment in other ways. But there are other forces at work in the industry as well. Governments throughout the world are demanding restrictions on gas emissions, and the goals they have set can only be met in the long run if conventional cars with internal combustion engines are phased out and replaced by vehicles that run on alternative power sources. For the last few decades innovators have been coming up with ideas for alternative power sources for automobiles, though so far none has had a significant appeal for consumers. The alternative technologies we have at present are lagging far behind the petrol-guzzling internal combustion engine in terms of speed and the distance that can be travelled before refueling. But what does the future hold? At present a hybrid car propelled by a combination of an electric motor and petrol engine may be the best compromise for those who want to help save the planet and still have the convenience of a car. When you start the hybrid car and when you are driving normally, power is provided by the electric motor, which works with a battery. However, when the battery starts to go flat, the petrol engine starts automatically and drives a generator to recharge the battery. And what of cars powered solely by electricity? Here the main stumbling block has always been storing the electricity: batteries may have come a long way, but they are still bulky and have to be charged for long periods. The latest completely electric car, for example, has a top speed of 60 kph and a range of 60 kilometers. It takes 6 hours to charge the battery fully. But the makers claim this is perfectly acceptable for city driving, when people are unable to go much faster or further in any case. Many cities provide benefits such as free parking for drivers of electric cars. But these vehicles are virtually confined to urban settings, which is off-putting, and most people find electric cars have a toy-like appearance which is definitely not appealing. First developed for use in missions to the moon, fuel cells appear to be the most serious challenger to the internal combustion engine as an alternative source of energy for both mobile and stationary applications. A fuel cell uses relatively straightforward technology that converts chemical energy into electrical energy with benign byproducts. In fact, the only by-products are water, which is harmless, and heat. The other advantage is that fuel cells have no complex moving parts that need to be cooled or lubricated. But rather than replacing the internal combustion engine as the source of power for the vehicle itself, the fuel cell – in the view of some manufacturers – will only replace the battery and alternator, supplying electricity to vehicle systems, operating independently of the engine. Another possibility is represented by turbines. Gas turbines have long been considered a possible mobile and smaller stationary power source, but their use has been limited for a variety of reasons, including cost, complexity and size. These large turbines shine when in steady-state applications but are not as efficient when speed and load are continually changing. However, a new generation of turbines – microturbines – has been developed in large measure for use in vehicles. They are small, high-speed engine systems that typically include the turbine, compressor and generator in a single unit with all the other vital components and control electronics.

Your answers: 54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

Part 3 (0.5 M) Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. The future place in space Many people wondered if what they saw in Total Recall, a film in which humans inhabited Mars, (61) ______ happen one day in their lifetime. While space exploration mostly centres around travel to Mars, scientists have set their sights on destinations further out in our solar system once the technology to do so gets (62) ______ to speed. In fact, when mankind has reached the fourth planet from the sun, we will have likely found ways to reach arguably far more exciting celestial bodies, at least in terms of their potential to sustain life. One (63) ______ destination is Europa, one of Jupiter’s four Galilean moons. Current technology has revealed that its ice-covered surface contains vast amounts of liquid water underneath, and space explorers have anticipated finding extra-terrestrial life there. Both NASA and ESA recently announced that they are (64) ______ probes to Europa. Unfortunately, radiation levels around Europa would wreak havoc with the probes’ instruments, preventing an actual landing. Instead, the probes will conduct fly-by missions while orbiting Jupiter, and they are (65) ______ to make some tantalizing discoveries. 61. A. will B. can C. would D. did 62. A. on B. up C. over D. round 63. A. such B. of C. the D. much 64. A. to send B. send C. will send D. sent 65. A. almost B. about C. bound D. indeed Your answers: 61.

62.

63.

64.

65.

Part 4 (1 M) Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. This page cannot be displayed Surfing the web can be a cumbersome process. For (66) ______ who has had trouble loading a web page, it’s often (67) ______ to the insane amount of advertising embedded in the pages. It’s an annoyance that many of us just have to put up with; we click on some semiinteresting link hoping the page will load straight away, only to be met with disappointment when we realize it’s going to be one of (68) ______ pages that never, ever loads. We drum our fingers on our table or desk, telling (69) ______ that the page will appear any second now, only to give up in despair, close the browser and start again, if we can bear to. The problem (70) ______ in the fact that web design is done with the assumption that everyone viewing the web page is using a computer or mobile phone with (71) ______ swiftest of processors and which is connected to the Internet through (72) ______ high-speed broadband connection. Also, websites work very hard to make (73) ______ you’re bombarded with advertisements in hopes that you might buy (74) ______. But web designers and new sites need to face facts; if people’s online experiences continue to deteriorate, the future of online advertising might very well be going (75) ______. Your answers:

66. 71.

67. 72.

68. 73.

69. 74.

70. 75.

IV. WRITING: (2.5/10 MS) Part 1 (0.5 M) Finish each of the second sentences in such a way that they have the same meaning as the original ones, using the words given. Do not change the words given. 76. It’s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year. → Sad ……………………………………………………… is unlikely to go down this year. 77. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission. → Without ……………………………………………………………………………… 78. I’m sure it wasn’t Mr. Phong you saw yesterday because he has been in Hanoi for a week. → It can’t ……………………………………………… you saw yesterday because he has been in Hanoi for a week. 79. You’ve misunderstood the situation. (STICK) → You’ve …………………………………………………………………………………… 80. They arrived at the station with only a minute to spare. (NICK) → They arrived at the station ………………………………………………………..……… Part 2 (2.0 MS) With the development of online communication, people will never be alone and will always be able to make new friends. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Write an essay of about 200 words to express your opinion and support your answer with relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ----Hết----

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TÂY NINH ____________ KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 THCS VÒNG TỈNH NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 Ngày thi: 01 tháng 4 năm 2021 Môn: TIẾNG ANH (THI VIẾT) Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) ----------------------------------------------------------------ĐIỂM BÀI THI CHỮ KÍ GIÁM KHẢO Mã Phách (Do HĐ chấm thi Bằng số Bằng chữ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 ghi)

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Đề thi gồm có 11 trang, thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi này) ..................................................

I. LISTENING (3/18 points) Part 1: You will hear 12 short conversations. From the three answer choices given, choose the answer which means about the same thing as what you hear or that is true based upon what you hear. 1. A. The woman is a manager. B. The woman has had the same job for years. C. The woman really liked her new job at first. 2.

A. She's not doing anything about her problem. B. She plans to move soon. C. She's not usually so tired.

3.

A. The woman liked the ending. B. The man has only read two chapters so far. C. The book belongs to the man.

4.

A. Julia doesn't usually dance. B. Julia didn't go to the party. C. The woman didn't dance.

5.

A. The man is going to New York for work. B. The man is sure he'll have time to visit some museums. C. The woman dislikes New York.

6.

A. The man is going to take Bus 14. B. Bus 14 is arriving at the stop now. C. Bus 11 follows a more direct route than Bus 14.

7.

A. Michelle usually gets very good grades. B. The man is shocked to hear about Michelle's bad grades. C. Michelle is being punished for her low grades.

8.

A. The man has never had a car. B. The man used to drive to work. C. The man lives in the city.

9.

A. The man has already asked Lisa for help. B. Lisa is not at work today. C. The woman doesn't know how to use a computer.

10.

A. She will buy some fruit. B. The man doesn't like ice cream. C. They will serve ice cream for dessert.

11.

A. He rarely takes care of his children in the evenings. B. His wife works at a restaurant. C. His wife works every evening.

12.

A. She's made a lot of errors at work. B. Someone has helped her learn her new job. C. She's taken a job with another company.

Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. Part 2: You will hear someone talk about a serious threat that the UK's forests are facing. For questions 13-20, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase (NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS). The presence of foreign pests and diseases in the UK has led to large numbers of trees being (13) . The ash dieback fungus is just one (14) ______ that threatens the health of the UK's trees. The European Union Plant Health Regime aims to prevent plant diseases and pests entering countries as a result of the (15) in live plants. To date, Phytophthora ramorum has not begun attacking (16) in the UK. Just as many tree diseases have taken hold in the UK in the last decade as in the last (17) . Trees that are infested with oak processionary moth are more (18) to diseases. Commercial forests infected with Dothistroma needle blight produce low (19) . Thanks to it being a centre of world trade, Britain is especially (20) to plant pathogens. Your answers: 13. felled failed 14. latest invader 15.international 16. oak trees tradeing 17. 40 or 50 years 18. prone 19. timber yields use 20. susceptible Part 3: Questions 21-30 Which type of accommodation offers Label the map below. each of the following features? Write Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions the correct letter, A, B or C next to 21–24. questions 25–30. 21. bowling green Types of accommodation 22. residential complex A. Independent Living 23. healthcare centre B. Supported Living 24. staff headquarters C. Full-time Care 25. on-site medical facilities 26. catered room service

27. mobility aids 28. emergency alarm buttons 29. themed décor 30. travel companionship

Your answers: 21. A 22. C

23. F

24. E

25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. B B II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5/18 points) Part 1: (2 points) Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the numbered boxes. 31. The small investors agreed to ______ their resources to purchase and develop the property. A. bind B. pool C. fasten D. bond 32. Losing the contract dealt a ______ to Lee’s chances of getting a promotion. A. punch B. hit C. blow D. slap 33. The meeting was so ______ that we were able to solve many of our immediate problems. A. abundant B. fruitful C. futile D. profuse 34. After years of being ______, Sara finally got a well-paid job. A. hard to get B. hard up C. hard-hitting D. hard-nosed 35. “Maria hasn’t arrived yet.” – “She ______ gotten the message, or she would have been here by now.” A. shouldn’t have B. wouldn’t have C. won’t have D. can’t have 36. What I really admire about Martin Luther King, Jr. is that he devoted his life ______ what he believed in. A. for the fight in B. with fighting C. in the fight with D. to fighting for 37. Nicola ______ me to understand that she would be taking charge of the arrangements. A. gave B. made C. had D. did 38. They were talking ______. He was talking about John and she thought he’d said Tom. A. at the outside B. on the level C. on the cards D. at cross purposes 39. Because I run around at work all day long, only in the evening ______ a breath and unwind. A. can I take B. I have taken C. would I take D. I could have taken 40. The crowd of environmentalists ______ their slogans all day long at the protest march. A. shrilled B. murmured C. chanted D. grumbled Your answers: 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. Part 2: (1 point) The passage below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. The (0) destroy of the rainforests is a pressing problem of our times but not one that is regarded equally serious by everyone. The more affluent nations regard the issue as one of preservation; deforestation must stop. When it comes to the poorer countries, the issue is not so cut and dried. For these people, the rainforests represent a source of economic

prosperity, a point that obviously takes precedence on ecological concerns. A solution must be found before the damage caused by the deforestation that is destroying the rainforests becoming irrevocable. Deforestation is carried out by those involving in the timber industry and also by migrant farmers. The later occupy an area of land, strip it, farm it until its natural mineral supply is used up and then move on. The land is left useless and exposed and a process of erosion comes into effect, washing soil into rivers thereby killing fish and blocking the water's natural course. Your answers: 0. destroy  destruction 41. times -> time 42. preservation -> preservations 43. represent -> present

44. that -> which

45. later -> latter

Part 3: (2 points) Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals in brackets to form a word that fits in the gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. War-torn country I'd like to thank you all for your (46, HOSPITABLE) ______ at these peace talks. I can't emphasise enough the importance of the two sides meeting and stating (47, TRUE) ______ what their hopes and aspirations are. We certainly do not want to be (48, INTRUDE) ______ on the running of your country, but we cannot allow this conflict to spread and (49, LONG) ______. We (50, SYMPATHY) ______ with all that your people have gone through and respect your traditions. In all (51, HONEST) ______, we have no interest in (52, WEST) ______ your country, but simply wish to be of help. We have to look at the (53, WISE) ______ of allowing foreign troops on your territory, and the (54, USE) ______ of talking to the rebels. At this point we cannot afford (55, FAIL) ______. We must succeed. Your answers: 46. hospitality 47. truthfully 48. intruder 49. lengthen 50. sympathise 51. honesty 52. westernize 53. unwisedom 54. uselessness 55. failure III. READING (5/18 points) Part 1: (1 point) Read the following passage and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the article. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the numbered boxes. Geolocation It is rare these days to see someone unfolding a paper map and searching for a location on it. Electronic devices have taken over this task with digital maps and location technologies. Like all high tech, their fast speed, accuracy and ease of use are behind their quick and widespread adoption. Not to forget, of course, multiple other useful applications of location technologies, in particular the Wi-Fi positioning System (WPS). An already common digital location technology is GPS or Global Positioning System and it is used in many map-based apps. A GPS receiver uses a group of satellites in Earth's orbit to work out its position on the ground. Knowing the satellites' locations and the distance to them allows the receiver to precisely pinpoint its position on the Earth's surface. However, there are limitations to GPS. For example GPS is not always accessible. Urban environments can be a challenge to GPS with skyscrapers blocking GPS satellites from getting a fix on the GPS receiver. An alternative to GPS is WPS which uses only Wi-Fi signals from routers, cell phone towers, and beacons. This detection of signals and where they are being broadcast allows WPS to calculate how far away from the signal the device is and determine a triangular area of the device's position although it is not as precise as a GPS. Wi-Fi signals are abundant, though, especially in cities so the possibility of blind spots is reduced. Many companies are using WPS alongside GPS to improve precision and coverage which makes good business sense. WPS technology is being further implemented in apps that address emergency situations such as finding lost or endangered people. Using the Wi-Fi signals and cell phone location data, rescuers can locate people even when they are unconscious or can't talk. This ability allows rescues a high rate of success regardless of the condition of the person in distress. Critics, still voice concerns, however, about privacy issues with such apps but let's not forget it is up to the

user to download these apps or not. Furthermore, regardless of such fears and anxieties, we can see that WPS technology clearly has the potential to be a very positive force for good. 56. What is the main purpose of this passage? A. to compare two types of digital location technologies B. to introduce a new digital location technology C. to argue against a digital location technology D. to describe digital location technology 57. According to the passage, what is an advantage of GPS? A. its accuracy B. its constant availability C. its accessibility in urban environments D. its signal strength 58. Why are skyscrapers mentioned in the passage? A. to point out why GPS technology is best in the city B. to explain a potential drawback of GPS technology C. to indicate a good location for GPS receivers D. to describe how GPS receivers work 59. In the second sentence of paragraph 3, what does “it” refer to? A. WPS B. a device C. a triangular area D. a signal 60. What implication in the passage does the author likely disagree with? A. WPS might be exploited harmfully. B. WPS can be a useful safety tool. C. WPS concerns are unjustified. D. WPS improves user choice. Your answers: 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. D 60. A Part 2: (2 points) The global decline of reptilians Their increasing vulnerability and the wider impact A. Through seed dispersal and the cross-pollination of plants, reptiles play an indispensable role in supporting biodiversity. This means that any significant reduction in the reptilian population is likely to disrupt the delicately balanced ecosystem significantly. Despite this, a recent worldwide assessment of the extinction risk for reptiles concluded that as many as 19% of the world's reptiles are threatened with extinction. B. The fragmentation of habitats is widely cited as one of the main threats affecting the survival of many reptiles. Urban expansion has meant the residential and commercial development of rural areas along with the expansion of transport networks which, in turn, has destroyed natural habitats. Likewise, in more tropical corners of the world, where large areas of land are being exploited and commercialised for the purpose of

tourism, reptilian communities are being decimated at an alarming rate. Reptilians are often depicted as robust and adaptable animals; however, their specific anatomical features mean they are increasingly predisposed to the negative consequences of habitat loss. Indeed, they are highly adapted to their environment, meaning that any environmental change is likely to have an impact. For instance, unlike mammals, which regulate their temperature via metabolically (internally) driven processes, thermoregulation in reptilians is dependent on external (environmental) factors. When overly hot, reptiles regulate their bodily temperature by seeking shelter under vegetation and, when cold, spend larger periods of time in the sun absorbing the heat. Therefore, any reduction in the volume of vegetation is likely to seriously increase their vulnerability to temperature – as global temperatures are set to rise, this is likely to become an even greater concern. C. The potential threat of habitat loss on population sustainability has been the subject of investigation in recent years. Regarding turtles, for example, there is some suggestion that, due to the removal of vegetation in their nesting sites (coastal areas), nesting conditions are becoming less conducive to producing male turtles. A phenomenon observed in many reptiles is that of temperature-dependent sex (male/female) determination - which means that the sex of the animal is determined by the temperature to which the embryo is exposed during the incubation period, as opposed to a chromosomal influence. During this period, turtles bury their eggs in the sand – embryos exposed to higher temperatures when buried tend to produce females, whereas lower temperatures tend to produce males. Researchers documenting the sand temperature across turtle nesting sites have reported that temperatures are cooler in areas more densely populated with vegetation compared to the open areas with less vegetation. Given an increase in deforestation in some coastal areas, this finding is significant. Fewer 'cooler' nesting sites may affect the male-female ratio, as the likelihood of male hatchlings being produced becomes lower, potentially creating a gender imbalance. Aside from this, if ideal nesting conditions are not achieved, the risk of embryonic abnormalities (or even failure to develop at all) increases. This highlights the urgency for conservationists to target their efforts on the preservation of male-producing nesting sites. Indeed, the turtle serves a very important functional role within marine ecosystems, feeding off seabed vegetation, primarily sea grass, and thereby encouraging its growth, which is essential for the survival of other marine life. D. An equally significant threat facing reptilian communities is the introduction of nonnative flora and fauna. This refers to both plant and animal life which historically did not exist at a particular geographical location – arriving usually as a result of human activity. Non-native species can have an adverse effect on the habitat they invade by destabilizing the local ecosystem, which jeopardises important reptile-environment interactions. That said, in some cases there are important benefits connected with some non-native species; some plants have the potential to enhance the food supply and offer more shelter in areas where this was previously lacking, thereby offering protection to reptiles. In some parts of the world, conservation efforts have focused on the removal of non-native plants, with some research suggesting that this may have a positive impact on

some reptilian species which, following the removal of such vegetation, actually increased in numbers. Moreover, the impact of introduced animals can have dire consequences, introducing issues of predation that otherwise would not exist. Such an example is noted in the Galápagos Islands; the addition of non-native rats, which preyed on young, defenceless tortoises and feasted on the nutrient-rich tortoise eggs, was one of several factors that significantly contributed to the reduction of the tortoise population. The accumulative impact over the years was profound; a comprehensive assessment the tortoise population revealed that, on one island, a mere 14 tortoises remained. E. The increasing prevalence of disease in reptilians is another major threat to their survival, but of an even greater concern is how environmental change exacerbates this problem. Fungal infections are a particular concern - they invade the skin and in some cases can result in death. A recent example is observed in the snake population, where the emergence of a type of 'snake fungus' is having a devastating effect on the global population. While the exact cause of fungal infections in reptilians is not always clear, one factor which may increase their susceptibility is lack of sunlight, as fungus thrives in dark, damp environments. This may be a particular problem for reptilians whose habitat is being encroached upon by non-native plants, and consequently the availability of sunlight is limited. Moreover, one of the leading causes of respiratory conditions in reptilians is poor nutrition. Increased changes to the natural habitat may lead to reduced food supplies, which in turn compromises nutrition and, along with it, the immune system. Questions 61-65 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage? In boxes 61-65 on your answer sheet, write TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this 61. Almost 2/3 of reptiles on Earth may be wiped out in the future. False 62. In some parts of the world, an increase in the number of tourists has been detrimental to reptile habitats. Not given 63. Environmental factors rather than genetics determine gender in some reptiles. True 64. Several gains have been associated with non-indigenous flora. True 65. Population sustainability in some reptiles is seriously undermined by an increase in disease, particularly diseases affecting the blood. False Questions 66-70 The Reading Passage has five paragraphs, A-E. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 66–70 on your answer sheet. NB You can use any letter more than once. 66. a climatic factor which predisposes reptilians to specific ailments C 67. an example of how invasive fauna can impact the continuation of a population D 68. a direct comparison with another animal group E

69. a justification for why the conservation of a particular animal is necessary to protect aquatic ecosystems D 70. an explanation of how reptiles generate body heat B Your answers: 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. Part 3: (1 point) Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. I thought it better that we set off at the (71) ______ of dawn to avoid the blistering midday heat, which would be torture for the men. We had to walk at least 20 kilometres, a hard enough task under any conditions in the Arabian desert. Most of the group were the (72) ______ for wear in any case, having been out here for weeks. I was (73) ______ between calling the whole thing off or making one final push forward, but our Commander seemed (74) ______ on us reaching the enemy-held town whatever the cost. I have to admit I couldn't help feeling (75) ______ about the whole mission. 71. A. chip B. top C. crack D. dent 72. A. crushed B. worse C. rotten D. bad 73. A. torn B. pulled C. tempted D. ripped 74. A. torn B. bent C. dented D. worn 75. A. mouldy B. frayed C. rotten D. crushed Your answers: 71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

Part 4: (1 points) Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. It came as no surprise that the United States, Japan and Russia were finally given the (76) ______ ahead to send their best astronaut to take part in a two-year joint mission in space, even though, at one point, people thought it had been (77) ______ to failure. Before they left, each astronaut was given a choice of taking, admittedly at short notice, whatever he wanted with him, as long as it did not weigh more than 60 kilos. “Well, I (78) ______ great store by having a family,” said the American astronaut, “so I'd like to take my wife, and just to set the record straight, she weighs 57 kilos." He was given permission and (79) ______ the whole seemed satisfied with everything. "I've always set my (80) ______ on learning Greek,” said the Japanese astronaut, "I’d like to take 60 kilos of books to learn the language." His request (81) ______ also approved. "We'll be away so long," said the Russian astronaut, “I'd like 60 kilos of my best Havana cigars to (82) ______ sent into space with me." Finally, the two years in space (83) ______ to an end, and the astronauts returned to Earth. The American stepped out of the spacecraft, with his wife, holding a baby. Everyone applauded. Then the Japanese astronaut stepped out. He had broken fresh (84) ______ by learning perfect Greek in space. Again the crowd cheered wildly.

Obviously, nothing had gone wrong. Then the Russian stepped out. Judging (85) ______ the expression on his face he was very angry. He had a cigar in his mouth. He rushed up to the microphone and shouted “a match?” Your answers: 76. go 77. prone 78. set 79. on 80. aim 81. was 82. 83. came 84. air 85. by IV. WRITING: (5/18 points) Part 1: (1 point) Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. 86. Everyone thinks the Queen’s horse will win the Derby. (hot)  The Queen’s horse is the hot favourite to win the Derby. 87. Something sounds familiar about that name, David. (rings)  That rings a bell about the name David. 88. Turner couldn’t explain why she had left. (loss)  Turner was at a loss for words to explain why she had left. 89. Bernie finds it quite easy to run ten miles a day. (nothing)  Bernie finds it is nothing to run ten miles a day. 90. I got the impression that she was depressed last week. (ebb)  I got the impression that she was at a low ebb last week. Part 2: (1.5 points) The bar chart below provides information on the monthly visitor attendance figures across three museums in the UK between 2013–2014, while the table indicates the total number of visitors in the same period. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

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………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3: (2.5 points) One important role of the education system is to prepare young people for the world of work. Some people believe that schools should do more to teach children skills which will help them to find a job or which will be useful in the workplace. What do you think? Discuss, giving specific examples to support your point of view. Write at least 250 words. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………

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