Sach Luyen Thi So 1 + Key [PDF]

Zitiervorschau

PRACTICE TEST 1 A.MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 points) 1. PHONOLOGY (5 points) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. 1. A. dragon B. mammal C. annual D. various 2. A. bought B. sought C. drought D. fought 3. A. auger B. gymnastics C. germ D. ginger 4. A. complain B. bargain C. ascertain D. campaign 5. A. champagne B. choleric C. chef D. chauffeur Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. 6. A. intimacy B. scenario C. arithmetic D. geneticist 7. A. influenza B. controversial C. demonstrative D. preferential 8. A. humane B. comment C. cement D. unique 9. A. condolence B. encounter C. determine D. consonant 10. A. majesty B. gazelle C. maltreat D. maintain 2. VOCABULARY (5 points) Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences (5 points) 1. Even though they don‟t agree with what‟s happening, they‟re too _____ to protest. A. outgoing B subdued C. quiet D apathetic 2. Don‟t make a _____ decision. Think about it first A. snap B. jump C. careless D. spontaneous 3. It is not very _____ to talk with your mouth full. A. tactful B. gentle C. polite D. educated 4. John‟s got very _____ feelings about taking on more responsibility at the moment. A. puzzled B. jumbled C. mixed D. muddled 5. All those late nights must be _____ their toll because Becky looks quite exhausted. A. taking B. having C. holding D. keeping 6. The kids had too much sugar today. They are all running around like _____ with their heads cut off. A. cows B. nails C. pennies D. chickens 7. Kara is acting like a snob lately. Yesterday, she _____ me off completely. A. blew B. darned C. kicked D. shocked 8. Does your tone _____ that he can‟t be responsible? A. imply B. infer C. say D. tell 9. The editor of the newspaper was _____ as lacking integrity. A. loathed B. condemned C. despised D. put off 10. Everyone was surprised by his _____ because nobody had ever seen him get angry before. A. explosion B. outburst C. outpouring D. frustration 3. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 points) Choose the best answer that grammatically fits each of the blanks in the following sentences 1. _____, he washed the cup and put it away. A. Having drank the coffee B. Drinking the coffee C. Having drunk the coffee D. After drank the coffee 2. It is better to lose one‟s life than _____. A. if you lose your spirit B. losing his spirit C. to lose one‟s spirit D. your spirit getting 3. Consult _____ for questions about earthquakes. A. the six index B. sixth index C. index six D. index numbering six 4. The idea for the new machine came to Mr. Lane _____ to work last week. A. as he drives B. while was driving C. while driving D. when he has driven 5. Thank you, but I _____ now. A. do not like any coffee B. would not rather have any coffee C. do not care for any coffee D. would not like no coffee 6. I remember _____ for the job, but I forget the exact amount. A. to be paid B. that I receive pay C. get paid D. being paid 7. I recommended that the student _____ his composition as soon as possible. A. finishes writing B. should finish the writing C. finish writing D. finished writing 8. Measles is a highly contagious viral disease _____ by a characteristic skin rash.

A. accompany B. is accompanied C. accompanied D. it is accompanied 9. How were the workers paid here? - As a rule, they were paid _____ A. by an hour B. by the hour C. by hour D. by hours 10. With its long days, lack of atmosphere, and wide-open spaces, _____ moon would also make an ideal place to put massive solar power plants. A. no article / a B. an / the C. the / a D. an / no article 4. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS. ( 5 points) 1. I‟ll lend you some money to _____ you over to the end of this month. A. hand B. tide C. get D. make 2. He didn‟t _____ out to be a singer; he just wanted to sing for fun. A. set B. go C. begin D. watch 3. Sorry, I can‟t make it tonight as I‟m so _____ under with my homework. A. iced B. stormed C. snowed D. fogged 4. Over 1,000 workers of the company have been announced to be _____ off. A. left B. laid C. set D. given 5. Anna‟s going to leave early this morning but she says she‟ll _____ up the hours tomorrow. A. find B. make C. catch D. bring 6. Before going to Japan, Mai had to spend a fortnight steeping herself _____ Japanese culture. A. into B. in C. onto D. for 7. The little girl screamed _____ the top of her voice in order to get attraction. A. to B. on C. at D. above 8. The new supermarket seems to have been _____ construction for quite some time. A. in B. under C. on D. below 9. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is _____ the law. A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto 10. Much _____ our astonishment, he got good marks though he was so slow in class. A. as B. to C. with D. in 5. READING COMPREHENSHION (10 point) Reading passage 1 (5 points) A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled-a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.. Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature‟s output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In this localized region, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant: in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The economic impact of air pollution B. What constitutes an air pollutant C. How much harm air pollutants can cause D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere 2. The word “adversely” in lines 2-3 is closest in meaning to _____ A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably 3. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _____ A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas

B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities 4. The word „altered” in line 11 is closest in meaning to. A. eliminated B. caused C. slowed D. changed 5. Natural pollutants can play an important role in controlling air pollution for which of the following reasons? A. They function as part of a purification process. B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. C. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants. D. They have existed since the Earth developed. 6. According to the passage, which of the following is true about human generated air pollution in localized regions? A. It can be dwarfed by nature‟s output of pollutants in the localized region. B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants. C. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions. D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants. 7. The word “noxious” in line 17 is closest in meaning to _____ A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak 8. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only useful if __ A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area C. the naturally occurring level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly 9. The word “detectable” in line 24 is closest in meaning to A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable 10. Which of the following is best supported by the passage? A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws. B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws. C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants. D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution. Reading passage 2 (5 points) “EXOTIC AND ENDANGERED SPECIES” When you hear someone bubbling enthusiastically about an exotic species, you can safely bet the speaker isn‟t an ecologist. This is a name for a resident of an established community that was deliberately or accidentally moved from its home range and became established elsewhere. Unlike most imports, which can‟t take hold outside their home range, an exotic species permanently insinuates into a new community. Sometimes the additions are harmless and even have beneficial effects. More often, they make native species endangered species, which by definition are extremely vulnerable to extinction. Of all species on the rare or endangered lists or that recently became extinct, close to 70 percent owe their precarious existence or demise to displacement by exotic species. Two examples are included here to illustrate the problem. During the 1800s British settlers in Australia just couldn‟t bond with the koalas and kangaroos, so they started to import familiar animals from their homeland. In 1859, in what would be the start of a wholesale disaster, a northern Australian landowner imported and then released two dozen wild European rabbits (Oryctolagus cuniculus). Good food and good sport hunting-that was the idea. An ideal rabbit habitat with no natural predators was the reality. Six years later, the landowner had killed 20,000 rabbits and was besieged by 20,00 more. The rabbits displaced livestock, even kangaroos. Now Australia has 200 to 300 million hippityhopping through the southern half of the country. They overgraze perennial grasses in good times and strip bark from shrubs and trees during droughts. You know where they‟ve been; they transform grasslands and shrublands into eroded deserts They have been shot and poisoned. Their warrens have been plowed under, fumigated, and dynamited. Even when all-out assaults reduced their population size by 70 percent, the rapidly reproducing imports made a comeback in less than a year. Did the construction of a 2,000-mile-long fence protect western Australia? No. Rabbits made it to the other side before workers finished the fence. In 1951, government workers introduced a myxoma virus by way of mildly infected South American rabbits, its normal hosts. This virus causes myxomatosis. The disease has mild effects on South American rabbits that coevolved with the virus but nearly always had lethal effects on 0. cuniculus. Biting insects, mainly mosquitoes and fleas, quickly transmit the virus from host to host. Having no coevolved defenses

against the novel virus, the European rabbits died in droves. But, as you might expect, natural selection has since favored rapid growth of populations of 0. cuniculus resistant to the virus. In 1991, on an uninhabited island in Spencer Gulf, Australian researchers released a population of rabbits that they had injected with a calcivirus. The rabbits died quickly and relatively painlessly from blood clots in their lungs, hearts, and kidneys. In 1995, the test virus escaped from the island, possibly on insect vectors. It has been killing 80 to 95 percent of the adult rabbits in Australian regions. At this writing, researchers are now questioning whether the calcivirus should be used on a widespread scale, whether it can jump boundaries and infect animals other than rabbits (such as humans), and what the long term consequence will be. A vine called kudzu (Pueraria lobata) was deliberately imported from Japan to the .United States, where it faces no serious threats from herbivores, pathogens, or competitor plants. In temperate parts of Asia, it is a well-behaved legume with a well- developed root system. It seemed like a good idea to use it to control erosion on hills and highway embankments in the southeastern United States. [A] With nothing to stop it, though, kudzu‟s shoots grew a third of a meter per day. Vines now blanket streambanks, trees, telephone poles, houses, and almost everything else in their path. Attempts to dig up or burn kudzu are futile. Grazing goats and herbicides help, but goats eat other plants, too, and herbicides contaminate water supplies. [B] Kudzu could reach the Great Lakes by the year 2040. On the bright side, a Japanese firm is constructing a kudzu farm and processing plant in Alabama. The idea is to export the starch to Asia, where the demand currently exceeds the supply. [C] Also, kudzu may eventually help reduce logging operations. D] At the Georgia Institute of Technology, researchers report that kudzu might become an alternative source for paper. 1. Based on the information in paragraph 1, which of the following best explains the term “exotic species”? A. Animals or plants on the rare species list B. A permanent resident in an established community C. A species that has been moved to a different community D. An import that fails to thrive outside of its home range 2. The word “itself‟ in the passage refers to A. most imports B. new community C. home range D. exotic species 3. The word bond in the passage is closest in meaning to A. move B. connect C. live D. fight 4. According to the author, why did the plan to introduce rabbits in Australia fail? A. The rabbits were infected with a contagious virus. B. Most Australians did not like the rabbits. C. No natural predators controlled the rabbit population. D. Hunters killed the rabbits for sport and for food. 5. All of the following methods were used to control the rabbit population in Australia EXCEPT A. They were poisoned. B. Their habitats were buried. C. They were moved to deserts. D. They were surrounded by fences. 6. Why does the author mention mosquitoes and fleas in paragraph 5? A. Because they are the origin of the myxoma virus B. Because they carry the myxoma virus to other animals C. Because they die when they are infected by myxoma D. Because they have an immunity to the myxoma virus 7. According to paragraph 6, the Spencer Gulf experiment was dangerous because A. insect populations were exposed to a virus B. rabbits on the island died from a virus C. the virus may be a threat to humans D. some animals are immune to the virus 8. Why does the author give details about the kudzu farm and processing plant in paragraph 8? A. To explain why kudzu was imported from abroad B. To argue that the decision to plant kudzu was a good one C. To give a reason for kudzu to be planted in Asia D. To offer partial solutions to the kudzu problem 9. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author‟s opinion about exotic species? A. Exotic species should be protected by ecologists. B. Importing an exotic species can solve many problems. C. Ecologists should make the decision to import an exotic species. D. Exotic species are often disruptive to the ecology. 10. Look at the four squares [ ] that show where the following sentence could be inserted in the passage. Asians use a starch extract from kudzu in drinks, herbal medicines, and candy. Where could the sentence

best be added? 6. GUIDED CLOZE TEXT (10 points) GUIDED CLOZE TEST 1 (5 points) Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space. I‟m sure that many people in this lecture hall have, at some time, attempted to open up an image file in order to (0) A their photos onto a social (1) _____ site, only to find the file has been corrupted You find there‟s no way to (2) _____ your digital memories as you‟ve already erased the photos from your memory card. Worse is the realization that your entire hard drive has (3) _____ and that you never made back-up copies of your dissertation, years of research, and so on. Right now, I‟m afraid, there‟s no guarantee that any of our data will survive in the format currently available. You see, manufacturers want to (4) _____ the speed and capacity of drives, but aren‟t worried about long-term stability. Flash memory drives are not a reliable alternative as they have an estimated (5) _____ lifespan of ten years. Top-end CDs with the gold and the phthalocyanine dye layers will (6) _____ longer. The other issue of course, is that technology is constantly becoming (7) _____ Many of your parents will have video cassettes at home but unless you have a video player still in (8) _____ ,you are unlikely to ever view the content. The same goes for any documents saved on floppy disks; no modern PC comes with a (9) _____ drive. It‟s ironic, of course, that paper, the old (10) _____ of transferring information, is actually more durable than its modern equivalents. 0. A upload B. paste C. share D. display 1. A meeting B. discussion C. networking D. chatroom 2. A. retrieve B. return C. retrace D. reform 3. A. collapsed B. crashed C. fallen D. broken 4. A. excel B. build C. boost D. uplift 5. A. top B. maximum C. peak D. upper 6. A. spend B. act C. produce D. last 7. A. terminal B. obsolete C. expired D. invalid 8. A. operation B. order C. function D. occupation 9. A. fitting B. required C. compatible D. matched 10. A. opportunity B. medium C. source D. technology GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2 (5 points) Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space. Education is now generally regarded as a basic human (0) B. In most countries, children from 5-11 receive (1) _____ primary school education, and in others, they also receive secondary education during their adolescence. However, there are some children who are (2) _____ to go to school but whose parents prefer to home school them. In some countries this is a growing trend. In this essay I will explore the reasons for this (3) _____ and the advantages of both approaches. First of all, in mainstream education, pupils not only gain knowledge in a range of academic subjects, but they also learn valuable social (4) _____ such as cooperation and team work, which can be used in their adult life. Secondly, staff have acquired qualifications which means they can use effective teaching (5) _____ They can also set benchmarks; in other words, they know exactly what children at different ages should be able to (6) _____ Home schooling, on the other hand, can allow a child to receive (7) _____ attention, develop at their own pace and also concentrate more as they will not have to deal with (8) _____ fellow students. Another point in favor of home schooling is that more lessons may involve e-learning and the use of (9) _____ media. Continuous innovation in education is providing students with many learning options. If an option helps students to be (10) _____, it should not be ruled out. 0. A. aspect B. right C. desire D. need 1. A. compulsory B. required C. legal D. urgent 2. A. entitled B. approved C. granted D. enabled 3. A. event B. occurrence C. fact D. development 4. A. skills B. manners C. qualities D. abilities 5. A. methods B. systems C. schemes D. routines 6. A. achieve B. make C. perform D. succeed 7. A. separate B. individual C. unique D. private 8. A. disruptive B. preventing C. destroying D. prohibitive 9. A. mutual B. interactive C. communicative D. relating 10. A. motivated B. capable C. profitable D. improved

B. WRITTEN TEST (70 points) 1. OPEN CLOZE TEST (20 points) Open cloze test 1 (10 points) Fill in each gap in the following passages with an appropriate word. THE HAMSTER‟S BODY CLOCK Hamsters have no need for alarm clocks. In the strange world of circadian rhythms - the twenty-four-hour cycle that governs almost every biological process in every living thing, (1) _____ body temperature to digestion to sleeping and waking – the hamster is (2) _____ equivalent of the Swiss watch. (3) _____ to Professor Michael Antle from the University of Calgary‟s Department of Psychology, you can predict to within a minute when a hamster is going to wake up. Humans, however, are more (4) _____ a cheap supermarket wall-clock, since their sleeping patterns are less reliable. Professor Antle is studying the group of 20,000 cells in the brain that (5) _____ up the circadian clock. He‟s hoping to explain something astonishing that‟s happening to his hamsters. (6) _____ turning on their light for fifteen minutes in the middle of the night, he can make them wake up an hour earlier the next day. But if instead he gives them a new drug that he‟s experimenting (7) _____, they‟re up and about eight hours early. They will still need their usual fourteen hours‟ sleep, but their biological clocks appear to have been set back. When he saw the effect initially in his laboratory. Antle was Shocked at (8) _____ big it was. An eighthour adjustment is something useful - it means that a hamster could be transported from its home in Canada (9) _____ the way to London without suffering from jetlag. If it could do this for people, Antle really would be (10) _____ to something. Open cloze text 2 (10 points) Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. SUSHI CHEF Kazutoshi Endo has been making the Japanese fish and rice delicacy known as sushi for thirteen years. Yet he wants to (1) _____ it clear that he is still (2) _____ much a beginner. In fact, he is quite adamant about it, despite being head sushi chef at one of London‟s leading Japanese restaurants. Endo comes from a hard- working family in the port city of Yokohama and is a third generation sushi chef. Although as a child he was (3) _____ encouraged to follow (4) _____ his father‟s footsteps, and actually trained to be a PE teacher instead, it was always Endo‟s ambition to do so. Yet he was never taught (5) _____ to do. The way you learn in Japan is to watch. Some chefs spend three years washing sushi rice, whilst at the same time watching their masters at work. It (6) _____ some concentration to keep an eye on Endo‟s hands as he makes sushi, however. All it takes is just a (7) _____ quick cuts with his knife and a neat pile of perfectly sliced octopus sits on the counter. A sushi roll may look like a piece of rice, but apparently it takes years to get the touch, to be (8) _____ to roll rice (9) _____ exactly the right amount of pressure. As Endo says: “Sushi (10) _____ to be mastered. I can‟t explain the process in words.” 2. WORD FORMS (20 điểm) a. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space (10 points) A JAPANESE TRADITION Of the myriad of Japanese ceremonies introduced to the West, the Japanese tea ceremony would have to be the least (0 ACCESS) accessible. Like many aspects of Japanese culture, the practice of drinking tea was brought from China well over a thousand years ago. In Japan, green tea developed its own character, and the Japanese tea ceremony has evolved into a (1 PECULIAR) _____ Japanese phenomenon. The modern tea ceremony can be traced back to the 17th century where it developed alongside another singular Japanese (2 ADAPT) _____ of Chinese culture: the philosophy of Zen. The tea ceremony eventually became established as a recognized form of high art, where it was practised in diverse (3 LOCATE) _____, from a Zen temple to an ordinary home. Even today, the simplest and most secular tea ceremony still embraces the Zen aesthetic of simplicity, (4 AUSTERE) _____ and devotion. During the ceremony strictly prescribed words of invitation and (5 GRATEFUL) _____ are murmured quietly; tea maker and guests play their roles with (6 HUMBLE) _____ and respect. A brief moment of profound tranquillity has been (7 COMMUNE) _____ created and shared. It is simultaneously an aesthetic, social and (8 SPIRIT) _____ moment. Significantly, it is a Japanese moment, fleeting and poignant with its own(9 PEACE) _____ where the noise and confusion of the everyday world is temporarily suspended as a vague, (10 DEFINE) _____ sense of the eternal pervades. b. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given in parentheses. (10 points) 1. If our _____ (hypothesis) individual bought the house at age 32 and worked until age 67, Social Security taxes would have been paid for 35 years. 2. This would be better than their promoting home _____ (own) by pushing low down payments and risky loans.

3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Postnatal depression is usually due to hormonal _____ (balance). _____ (expect) of life for both men and women has improve greatly in the past 20 year. _____ (history), Mars was thought to be the most likely planet to harbor life. In 1984, 70,000 American women filled out a questionnaire concerning their _____ (diet) habits. There is an _____ (current) of menace and barely suppressed violent that gives the pictures of symbolic edge. 8. In spite of their _____ (predicate), these sea creatures look very much still alive. 9. John‟s conviction of his score‟s _____ (precocity) brilliance was infectious and not totally unjustified. 10. I‟m afraid that your report is full of _____ (accurate) 3. ERROR IDENTIFICATION The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided. MARRIAGE A great major of adults in the industrial world -in fact, about 0. major → majority 90 per cent - will be married at some time in their lives. Of 1 _____ those who do not, some may choose to remain single, but 2 _____ others still have no choice. An alarm number who marry will 3 _____ divorce, but this is not because marriage itself has lost its 4 _____ attractive , instead people give up on particular relationships 5 _____ and try again. For example, of the four out of ten American 6 _____ marriages that end in divorce, 80 per cent are preludes to 7 _____ further unities. Every society has its own definitions of what a 8 _____ perfect marriage should be. In the Western world, it seems 9 _____ that, a husband and wife have a perfect marriage if they love 10 _____ each other, have no other sexy partner, display trust, loyalty and intimate, confide in each other, show mutual respect, are willing to listen to their partner‟s concerns, and agree with their children‟s upbringing. However, from time to time the balance of social expects shifts. For example, a study carried out in 1986 showed that 74 per cent of American-couples rate „equal in the relationship‟ as an important component of marriage. We can be fairly sure that their great- grandparents (and particularly their great-grandfathers) did not place the same valuable on this. 4. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points) a. Complete the second sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (10 points) 1. It seems that no one predicted the final outcome of the negotiations. No one _________________________________________________________________ 2. They often went to the zoo with their parents as children. Their parents would _______________________________________________________ 3. The company will decide very soon whether to close the Beijing office. The company is on ________________________________________________________ 4. We would have preferred them not to have stayed so long, that‟s true. We would sooner _____________________________________________ so long, that‟s true. 5. Her remarks simply made his rage more uncontrollable. Her remarks simply added __________________________________________________ b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. (10 poinst) 6. We found it easy to do the test. NO 7. The new plans for the road have been approved by the local authority. MET 8. We all discussed the issue at length, but came to no decision. HAD 9. I haven‟t seen John for a long time. EYES 10. Whenever we go out for meals, we share the cost. HALF

PRACTICE TEST 2 I. MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST Câu hỏi 1: (10 điểm) Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. conserve B. preserve C. decrease D. release 2. A. adult B. endure C. duty D. arduous 3. A. advance B. enhance C. freelance D. romance 4. A. hazard B. bombard C. custard D. mustard 5. A. expectation B. expectancy C. expenditure D. experiment Choose the word that is stressed differently from the others in the list. 6. A. interpret B. intrepid C. circumvent D. intriguing 7. A. gazelle B. tortoise C. reptile D. cobra 8. A. innovative B. applicable C. legislature D. commentary 9. A. delicacy B. respirator C. itinerary D. predicament 10. A. collaborator B. rudimentary C. preparatory D. contributory Câu hỏi 2: (10 điểm) 1. He refused to answer on the _____ that she was unfairly dismissed. A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations 2. The minister has _____ a statement explaining the reasons for his resignation. A. released B. leaked C. confided D. exposed 3. He could be kept alive artificially, but I think it would be kinder to let nature take its _____. A. end B. term C. way D. course 4. She was of all the charges against her. A. unconvinced B. acquitted C. discharged D. liberated 5. _____ ambition is what most great leaders have in common. A. managing B. driving C. rising D. leading 6. He walked home through the quiet and, at this hour, _____ deserted village. A. apparently B. obviously C. probably D. hopefully 7. Although he was experienced, he was not _____. A. mistaken B. flawed C. erroneous D. infallible 8. In _____, it was a bad idea to pay him in cash. A. hindsight B. consideration C. retrospect D. commemoration 9. “Do you think you could get this parcel mailed for me, please?” “ _____ it done.” A. Take B. Add C. Consider D. Show 10. You‟ll have _____ opportunity to ask questions after the talk. A. superfluous B. ample C. lavish D. infinite Câu hỏi 3: (10 điểm) 1. Digital recording has made _____ a significantly wider dynamic range, in recorded music. A. for the possibility B. the possibility is C. it is possible D. possible 2. Their comments merely showed of the entire situation. A. how they were woefully ignorant B. how woefully ignorant they were C. how ignorant woefully they were D. how they were ignorant woefully 3. It was the most delightful day of our entire holiday. A. quite B. very C. such D. much 4. Hardly _____ without some advance in technology that would have seemed incredible 50 years ago. A. a week goes by B. goes by a week C. does a week go by D. by goes a week 5. There is of your being granted a gaming license in this town. A. no possibility whatever B. no whatever possibility C. not possibility whatever D. not whatever possibility 6. I wouldn‟t call on him just yet if I were you, as I don‟t think he home from work. A. had got B. will get C. got D. will have got 7. I‟m my brother is. A. nowhere like so ambitious B. nothing near as ambitious as C. nothing as ambitious than D. nowhere near as ambitious as 8. So successful that the projected dam was abandoned so that the blue darter snail‟s only remaining habitat might be preserved.

A. was the environmentalists‟ lobbying B. lobbied the environmentalists C. the environmentalists‟ lobbying was D. the environmentalists lobbied 9. Modern design features have enabled the area of the “sweet spot” on tennis racquets almost 300 per cent. A. increasing B. increased C. to increase D. to be increased 10. Prior to the eighteenth century, storms formed and died out at the same location. A. a common belief that B. that a common belief C. it was commonly believed that D. because it was commonly believed Câu hỏi 4: (10 điểm) 1. Please remember to keep a copy for yourself as we cannot return copies, irrespective _____ whether or not they are published. A. in B. of C. on D. from 2. An earthquake in the city could result in deaths _____ number. A. out of B. from C. beyond D. over 3. Both journalists were killed by terrorists whilst _____ assignment in Colombia. A. on B. in C. at D. with 4. Some people had a go _____ us for it, which made us very angry. A. on B. in C. with D. at 5. As a student, he took an evening job to keep the wolf _____ the door. A. in B. from C. at D. by 6. A neighbour asked for the music to be turned down and the party _____ A. broke down B. broke off C. broke up D. broke out 7. His boss was angry since he had been _____ the document for at least two months. A. putting on B. sitting on C. holding on D. taking on 8. The new record will appeal to older listeners, but I don‟t think it will _____ among younger pop fans. A. catch on B. catch for C. catch in D. catch up 9. Dick loves making plans, but unfortunately they never seem to _____ A. cut off B. go off C. make off D. come off 10. Half of Martha‟s class has _____ flu. A. got down to B. come up with C. gone down with D. taken up with Câu hỏi 5: (20 điểm) Passage 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. When jazz began to lose its reputation as “low-down” music and to gain well- deserved acclaim among intellectuals, musicians began to feature many instruments previously considered inappropriate for jazz. Whereas before the 1950s, jazz musicians played only eight basic instruments in strict tempo, in this decade they started to improvise on the flute, electric organ, piccolo, accordion, cello, and even bagpipes, with the rhythm section composed for strings or piano. Big bands no longer dominated jazz, and most changes emerged from small combos, such as the Dave Brubeck Quartet and the Gerry Mulligan Quartet. The Gerry Mulligan Quartet proved that a small, modern band could sound complete without a piano; the rhythm section consisted only of a set of drums and a string bass. Jazz continued to move in new directions during the 1960s. Saxophonist and composer Ornette Coleman led a quartet playing “free” jazz that was atonal. Pianist Cecil Taylor also conducted similar experiments with music, and John Coltrane included melodies from India in his compositions. In the 1970s musicians blended jazz and rock music into fusion jazz which combined the melodies and the improvisations of jazz with the rhythmic qualities of rock „n‟ roll, with three or five beats to the bar and in other meters. The form of jazz music was greatly affected by electric instruments and electronic implements to intensify, distort, or amplify their sounds. However, the younger musicians of the time felt compelled to include a steady, swinging rhythm which they saw as a permanent and essential element in great jazz. 1. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? A. Popular Beats in Classical and Modern Jazz B. Quintessential Moments in Jazz Music C. The Achievements of Famous Jazz Musicians D. The rising Prestige and Diversity of Jazz 2. In paragraph 1, the word „ feature” is closest in meaning to A. profess B. prohibit C. protest D. promote 3. The paragraph preceding this passage would most likely describe A. instruments used in jazz. B. instrumental pieces in jazz. C. jazz in the 1940s. D. the origins of jazz. 4. The author of the passage implies that in the 1950s, jazz musicians _____, A. strictly adhered to its traditions and compositions. B. probably continued with its tempo and instrumentation.

C. experimented with rhythm and instruments. D. increased the tempo to keep up with the changes. 5. It can be inferred from the passage that small jazz bands A. were dominated by large orchestras. B. consisted of drums and a string bass. C. were innovative in their music. D. included modern sound systems. 6. The author believes that the developments of jazz described in the passage A. should be seen as precocious. B. should be considered influential. C. appear largely suggestive. D. may be perceived as discrete. 7. The passage implies that representative jazz musicians A. concentrated on melodious combinations of sounds B. blended improvisations and sheet music together. C. created and modernized sophisticated devices. D. sought novel techniques in form and content. 8. According to the passage, the changes in jazz music in the 1970s came from A. another harmonious scale. B. another musical trend. C. ambitious aspirations. D. sound amplifications 9. In paragraph 2, the word “compelled‟ is closest in meaning to A. forced B. challenged C. obligated D. censored 10. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? A. Chronological innovations in jazz music B. Definitions of diverse jazz styles C. A classification of prominent jazz musicians D. Descriptions and examples to illustrate jazz rhythms Passage 2 Television, like language, can be a cultural challenge for better or worse, and this is what it is in many of its activities, whether voluntarily or, on occasion, involuntarily. Although it may sometimes be soothing, television is often provocative in the sense that it gives information and arouses interest. That being said, the new means of broadcasting and communicating throughout the world increases the complexity of television even further. An important question is what television is there to do and to say. In actual fact, however, the issue does not seem to have been put in this way by all governments and their officials, nor by private television companies. Since the primary aim is to get an audience (and who would want to make television programs nobody looked at?), programs are becoming more and more standardized. The cultural challenge represented by television must not turn into a challenge to culture. At all events, television carries messages which influence, and will increasingly influence, trends in societies one way or another. Either television will contribute to enriching our culture or to enabling some of these cultures to dominate others. Undoubtedly there are outstanding events, such as broadcasts of major occasions, but the out-of-theordinary nature of a cultural message soon becomes part of life, part of the every air breathed by those to whom the messages are sent. Living in a world of painting, literature and music is a very different thing from the stardom of a composer, writer or performer. While the heads of television channels sometimes display boldness, they do not seem to find it necessary to do so when it comes to music (with the occasional exception), because they themselves are not convinced of the emotional impact of music on television. And yet, in spite of all obstacles, music is a challenge through its daily presence. This represents a victory for whom? Pure music - that is to say, music soberly presented through the playing of the performers - goes down very well on the small screen. Its presence on television makes it part of everyday life. Let us be optimistic and hope that those in charge of television of whatever kind are aware of the importance of their function over and above audience surveys and ratings and that they will call primarily on the talents of cultural people and give them priority over the salesman. 11. What is the effect of television according to the author? A. It causes intellectual laziness. B. It makes the viewers think. C. It is harmful to society. D. It confuses the viewers. 12. Television‟s function is to make people A. confused of what is happening. B. more interested in what is happening. C. more culturally oriented. D. more educated in society. 13. In the author‟s opinion, what is wrong with the attitude of some governments to television? A. They do not think it is important. B. They do not pay enough attention to its function. C. They do not use it effectively D. They have too much control over it.

14. The influence that television may have is possibly A. ignored by almost everybody B. greatly considered by governments. C. a substantial benefit for private companies. D. an enrichment and also a challenge to cultures. 15. The author thinks that television programs are in danger of A. trying to please too many people B. preventing the development of society. C. losing their effect on our culture. D. declining in popularity. 16. What are the heads of television not convinced of its impact? A. Music B. Literature C. Fine arts D. Painting 17. According to the author, the heads of the television channels A. have an adventurous approach, to presenting music. B. broadcast only important musical events. C. do not think music is effective on television. D. do not want music to be part of everyday life. 18. Music has become A. very important to television program producers B. very important to policy makers. C. part of the cultural message D. part of daily life. 19. What does the author hope will be the future of television? A. More popular programs will be broadcast. B. Television controllers will change their attitudes C. Audience will go on increasing D. The right kind of program-makers will be appointed 20. The best title for this passage is A. Television and its programs B. The influence of television on governments and companies. C. The impact of television on culture. D. The standardization of television programs. Câu hỏi 6: (20 điểm) Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Passage 1 I‟m sure that many people in this lecture hall have, at some time, attempted to open up an image file in order to upload their photos onto a social (1) _____ site, only to find the file has been corrupted. You find there‟s no way to (2) _____ your digital memories as you‟ve already (3) _____ the photos from your memory card. Worse is the realization that your entire hard drive has (4) _____ and that you never made back-up copies of your dissertation, years of research, and so on. Right now, I‟m afraid, there‟s no guarantee that any of our data will survive in the (5) _____ currently available. You see, manufacturers want to (6) _____ the speed and capacity of drives, but aren‟t worried about long-term stability. Flash memory drives are not a reliable alternative as they have an estimated maximum lifespan of ten years. Top - end CDs with the gold and the phthalocyanine dye layers will (7) _____ longer. The other issue of course, is that technology is constantly becoming (8) _____. Many of your parents will have video cassettes at home but unless you have a video player still in (9) _____ you are unlikely to ever view the content. The same goes for any documents saved on floppy disks; no modern PC comes with a (10) _____ drive. It‟s ironic, of course, that paper, the old medium of transferring information, is actually more durable than its modern equivalents. 1. A. meeting B. discussion C. networking D. chatroom 2. A. retrieve B. return C. retrace D. reform 3. A. rubbed B. cancelled C. withdrawn D. erased 4. A. collapsed B. crashed C. fallen D. broken 5. A. formats B. shapes C. means D. types 6. A. excel B. build C. boost D. uplift 7. A. spend B. act C. produce D. last 8. A. terminal B. obsolete C. expired D. invalid 9. A. operation B. order C. function D. occupation 10. A. fitting B. required C. compatible D. matched Passage 2 In recent years there has been a remarkable increase in research into happiness. The researchers have (11) _____ a number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness. First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy; in other words, happiness (12) _____ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of personality: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are so. Second, people often (13) _____ good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends are a great (14) _____ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because

of the way friends use positive non-verbal signals such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar (15) _____ relationship can also form the basis of lasting happiness. Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (16) _____ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why some people are happy in boring jobs; it works in both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but also by social interaction with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of unhappiness. Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (17) _____ than most other causes of happiness. Activities (18) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (19) _____ themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members - it is very strong (20) _____ the case of religious groups. 11. A. fallen back on B. gone in for C. got down to D. come up with 12. A. arrives B. runs C. goes D. descends 13. A. explain B. prefer C. talk D. report 14. A. meaning B. origin C. base D. source 15. A. near B. close C. tight D. heavy 16. A. consists of B. applies to C. contributes D. counts on 17. A. check B, power C. control D. choice 18. A. like B. such C. so D. thus 19. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities 20. A. by B. for C. in D. with II. WRITTEN TEST Câu hỏi 1: (20 điểm) Fill in each blank with ONE appropriate word. Passage 1 Biodiversity is the range of living things in an area. During the last 100 years, scientists have (1) _____ a great decline in biodiversity. This means a great (2) _____ for humans as the stewards of the planet Earth. Some studies show that one in eight plant species is (3) _____ with extinction. It is estimated that 140,000 species of plants are lost each year. Many of these lost plants could have been very useful in creating new drugs to combat disease. This is (4) _____ to the use of unsustainable ecological practices. Most of the extinctions in the last thousand years are due to humans. The main (5) _____ is the chopping down of tropical rain forests. These habitats are being (6) _____ into pastures, cropland, and orchards. Most of this destruction is done to create pasture for beef cattle. It is also done to make wheat for bread as well as fruit for human consumption. The introduction of exotic species is (7) _____ threat. When exotic species are introduced to a habitat, they try to establish a self-sustaining population. Then they threaten the (8) _____ species. These foreign species may be predators or parasites. Or they may simply be aggressive. They deprive the local species (9) _____ nutrients. Because the local species haven‟t had a chance to evolve, they often lack defenses. They cannot compete (10) _____ the exotic species. Fill in each blank with ONE appropriate word. Passage 2 After living (11) _____ the threat of extinction for more than 30 years, the national bird of the United States has been granted an official reprieve, as the bald eagle and twenty-eight other animal and plant species have been earmarked (12) _____ removal from America‟s list of endangered species. The bald eagle, also known as the white-headed sea eagle, took pride of place at the top of a list of species likely to (13) _____ taken off the endangered register in the coming years. The proposed „delistings‟ are being promoted by the US interior secretary to counter a growing feeling among Republicans that endangered-species laws do not work. Charges of ineffectiveness have been (14) _____ against these laws before, but more recently it has ever been suggested that the situation may actually have been (15) _____ worse by them. The recovery of the bald eagle follows thirty-one years on the critical list. Its number had been (16) _____ to fewer than five hundred through the use of pesticides that reacted adversely (17) _____ its reproductive system. The number of nesting pairs is now estimated at five thousand. The interior secretary claims that the new list was a vindication of the legislation under which the eagle, a national symbol (18) _____ originally from the Indians, and more than a thousand other species were protected. (A spokesperson denied that it was simply a publicity stunt timed to coincide with the swearing (19) _____ of the president for his second term.) Until now, few species have (20) _____ been removed from the list. When they were, it was usually because they had become extinct. Câu hỏi 2: (20 điểm)

A. Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the given words. 1. A manufacturer _____ made and marketed a car with defective brakes. (NEGLECT) 2. During that time, I always felt I was in competition with myself and that led to a lot of _____, a lot of problems. (ILLUSION) 3. You must _____ the truth of her argument. (KNOW) 4. The Chief Inspector disliked being overburdened with _____ detail. (SIGNIFY) 5. Dick can be so _____ sometimes and never seems to listen to the other person‟s point of view. (ARGUE) 6. Its _____ makes food distribution difficult. (ACCESS) 7. I think it‟s a good idea to have a friend take a close look at your alignment _____, at least once a month. (PERIOD) 8. Shells last almost _____ without being attacked by insects. (DEFINE) 9. If we want to achieve optimum health and _____ we have to think about nutrients per calorie. (LONG) 10. The government embarked on a programme of radical economic _____. (FORM) Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given in the box. problem identify gang occupation expose house advantage population poor thieves Many young people from (11) _____ social classes join gangs. Gangs are groups of individuals who share a common (12) _____. Some anthropologists believe the gang structure is one of the most ancient forms of human organization. Gangs are often associated with criminal activities. Street gangs tend to be (13) _____ with young people from low income or (14) _____ homes. In contrast, organized crime gangs such as the Italian - American Mafia usually (15) _____ the middle or upper class stratum of society. Gangs usually take over a territory in a city or suburb. They call this territory their “turf”. One common criminal activity on their turf is “providing protection.” This is a common style of extortion in which a gang provides protection from its own members for money. Since the 1970s, many gangs have been associated with selling drugs. The most (16) _____ substance associated with gangs is crack cocaine. They are also known to commit burglaries, car (17) _____, and armed robberies. Individual members of gangs are usually referred to as (18) _____. These members frequently join in their teens. This is often the result of early (19) _____ to drugs and violence. Low-income (20) _____ projects and poor neighborhoods are ideal locations for gangs to exist and thrive. Câu hỏi 3: (10 điểm) Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them, I cannot stress too much the importance on watching your opponent, of knowing exactly where he is on the tennis court and what he is doing. It is usually possible to work on the pattern of his game very early in a match. Test him at the front of the court. Try hitting one or two balls up high to see how his shots are like. The more quickly you discover his weaknesses, the easier the match should become. Again and again it may be a good idea to give your opponent an opportunity of making a mistake. When, early in the match, it seems that he is a very accurate player, but not a forceful one, then you should tempt him to play a winning shot. Give him the opening, for there are some players who simply cannot hit winners. They will try to play an attacking game but they can quite finish it off. The way to break down their steady game may be by putting them into the front of the court. It is obviously wiser to try to be at the beginning of the match whether your opponent is weaker on his left-hand or on his right-hand side, and then play a little more than fifty per cent of your shots down that side. Play a normal attacking game, or the game you think you will win, but concentrate the weaker side. A number of players experience more trouble than another in the back corners of the court - always be ready to recognize this weakness. Perhaps an opponent has a favourite backhand shot, but lacks certainty with his forehand shot. Tempt him to play the forehand shot. Câu hỏi 4: (20 điểm) Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. It was inevitable that they should feel personally degraded. Their ___________________________________________________________________ 2. Summerhill seldom has a case of homesickness. At Summerhill seldom _____________________________________________________ 3. They‟ll arrive soon. It ______________________________________________________________________

4. This problem cannot be solved immediately. There __________________________________________________________________ 5. It is not useful feeling sorry about something which has already happened. It‟s no use crying _________________________________________________________ 6. She ran down the steps with a group of journalists following her very closely. (HOT) _______________________________________________________________________ 7. He‟s asking for trouble by lying to the police. (ICE) _______________________________________________________________________ 8. At the start of the meeting, Ashley summarized what had been discussed last time. (KICK) Ashley _____ a summary of what had been discussed last time. 9. Kevin was about to leave the house when the phone rang. (POINT) _______________________________________________________________________ 10. It‟s highly likely I‟ll be late if the situation doesn‟t change. (EVERY) There‟s _________________________________________________________________ PRACTICE TEST 3 I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS Question 1: PHONOLOGY A. Choose the word (A, B, C, D) which is stressed differently from the others 1. A. Vietnameses B. equipment C. understand D. volunteer 2. A. employment B. diversity C. dishonest D. difference 3. A. acceptable B. aquaintance C. friendliness D. suspicious 4. A. education B. disciplines C. influences D. customers 5. A. offer B. deny C. delay D. apply B. Choose the word (A, B, C, D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 6. A. recruitment B. fruit C. buiding D. suitable 7. A. allegedly B. disadvantage C. language D. challenge 8. A. popular B. novel C. goverment D. cooperative 9. A. personal B. Interview C. interrrupt D. differrence 10. A. farmer B. fat C. of D. fitness Question 2: WORD CHOICE 1. The goods were stored in a _____ cinema A. misused B. reused C. unused D. disused 2. It‟s very _____ of you to offer me you seat, but really I‟m quite happy to stand. A. sympathetic B. considerate C. grateful D. appreciative 3. The _____ thought of exams makes her feel ill A. sole B. mere C. only D. just 4. I am _____ to Mr. Morrison because of the kindness and concern that he showed me when I was at the airport A. indebted B. gratified C. beholden D. liable 5. This emerald bracelet is _____; it is the only one of its kind in the world. A. only B. peerless C. orginal D. genuine 6. All courses at the college are offered on a full- time basis unless _____ indicated. A. further B. otherwise C. below D. differently 7. Mary attempted to _____ herself with her new boss by volunteering to take on extra work. A. gratify B. please C. ingratiate D. commend 8. Sales of margarine rose last year _____ those of butter. A. at the bottom B. at the height C. on the top D. in the end 9. All the applicants for the post are thoroughly _____ for their suitability. A. searched B. investigated C. vetted D. scrutinised 10. This new advertising campaign is not _____ with our company policy. A. consistent B. allied C. suited D. matched Question 3: STRUCTURES AND GRAMMAR 1. _____ his advice, I would never have got the job. A. Except B. Apart from C. But for D. As for 2. The manager _____ one of the hotel servants of stealing the money.

A. complained B. blamed C. accused D. scolded 3. The jury _____ the defendant “ not guilty” A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found 4. Peter is very _____ for all the help you have given him A. thankful B. pleasant C. acceptable D. generous 5. At _____ time there is always plenty of work to do on a farm. A. production B. profit C. grain D. harvest 6. What _____ to the Browns‟ party? A. did you wear B. had you worn C. were you wearing D. do you wear 7. Cart you imagine _____? A. how did he feel B. how felt he C. how he felt D. how he did feel 8. I don‟t know why he‟s making such _____ about it. A. a mess B. a fuss C. a decision D. a noise 9. If you do something in a dishonest way, you do it in a _____ way. A. shy B. secret C. sneaky D. atrange 10. My brother was extremely _____ at having to ask for money. A. embarrassing B. embarrassed C. embarrass D. to embarrass Question 4: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS 1. He lost his job _____ no fault of his own. A. through B. by C. with D. over 2. Although the coach had not thought her a good tennis player at first, she _____ to be a champion. A. came round B. came out C. turned up D. turned out 3. A washing machine of this type will certainly _____ up to normal domestic use. A. hold B. stand C. come D. take 4. In many ways she _____ me of someone I knew at school. A. remembers B. reminds C. recalls D. resembles 5. Well, we did have a terrible row but we‟ve _____ it up now. A. turned B. cleaned C. sorted D. made 6. If we do not take steps to protect the world wild life, many species of birds and animals are likely to _____ completely. A. die out B. die down C. die away D. die from. 7. I‟m not surprised Margaret‟s ill. With all the voluntary work she‟s _____, she‟s really been doing too much. A. taken off B. taken in C. taken on D. take to 8. If the rain doesn‟t _____ soon, we shall have to look for a taxi. A. set about B. let up C. slow down D. go off 9. The floor was so rotten that it almost _____ under his weight. A. gave up B. gave away C. gave way D. gave back 10. I don‟t believe a word he said; I think he just made _____ that story. A. up B. off C. down D. out Question 5: READING COMPREHENSION A. reading the following passage and choose the best option. Fog is a cloud in contact with or just above the surface of land or sea. It can he a major environmental hazard. Fog on highways can cause chain-reaction accidents involving dozens of cars. Delays and shutdowns at airports can cause economic losses to airlines and inconveniences to thousands of travelers carrying vast quantities of oil, increases the possibility of catastrophic oil spills. The most common type of fog, radiation fog, forms at night, when moist air near the ground loses warmth through radiation on a clear night. This type of fog often occurs in valleys, such as California‟s San Joaquin Valley. Another common type, advection fog, results from the movement of warm, wet air over cold ground. The air loses temperature to the ground and condensation sets in. This type of fog often occurs along the California coast and the shores of the Great Lake. Advection fog also forms when air associated with a warm ocean current blows across the surface of a cold current. The thick fogs of the Grand Banks of Newfoundland, Canada, are largely of this origin, because here the Labrador Current comes in contact with the warm Gulf Stream. Two other types of fog are somewhat more unusual. Frontal fog occurs when two fronts of different temperatures meet, and rain from the warm front falls into the colder one, saturating the air. Steam fog appears when cold air picks up moisture by moving other warmer water. 1. The first paragraph focuses on which aspect of fog?

A. Its dangers. B. Its composition. C. Its beauty. D. Its causes. 2. The word catastrophic is closest in meaning to _____ A. accidental B. inevitable C. unexpected D. disastrous 3. According to the article, fog that occurs along the California coast is generally _____ A. radiation fog B. advection fog C. frontal fog D. steam fog 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Labrador Current is _____ A. cold B. weak C. polluted D. warm 5. The author organizes the discussion of the different types of fog according to _____ A. their geographic locations B. their relative density C. the types of problems they cause D. their relative frequency 6. The author of the passage is probably an expert in the field of _____ A. physics B. economics C. transportation D. meteorology 7. According to the article, fog that forms through radiation process of moist air is generally _____ A. radiation fog B. advection fog C. frontal fog D. steam fog 8. Which is not true of the frontal fog? A. It is quite common B. It forms when two fronts of different temperatures meet. C. The air is soaked D. The warm front has rain falling into the colder front. 9. Which of the following is not caused by fog? A. Tankers‟ crash. B. Pile-up accidents C. Shutdowns at airports D. Temperature losses. 10. Grand Banks of Newfoundland, Canada, is mainly affected by _____ A. radiation fog B. advection fog C. frontal fog D. steam fog B. Reading the following passage and choose the hast option. He was travelling from London to the North of England by train. It was a misty November evening and the train was half empty. In fact for the first part of the journey Mr. Turner had the carriage to himself and sat dozing a newspaper. However at the first stop a passenger jumped in, slamming the door behind him, he seemed out of breath as if he had been running. He was striking looking young man with dark, bushy hair and bright intelligent eyes. He was dressed rather oddly in a long waisted coat with silver buttons, tight trousers and an embroidered waistcoat. Mr. Turner did not pay much attention to this because people wear all softs of extravagant clothes these days and he had long grown accustomed to them. Presently, the two men got into conversation as people do on long journey, Mr. Turner was interested, to discover that the young man was very knowledgeable about Art in particular portraits. His name, he said, was Joseph Hart, and he was on his way to visit an exhibition. It seemed that he worked in a famous London Art Gallary - a picture restored, perhaps, thought Mr. Turner, for he seemed to know a great deal about vanishes and paints, and even more about the subjects of certain portraits. When Mr. Turner asked his opinion of a portrait of a famous judge by an artist he admired, his companion laughed and said, “he‟s only a reproduction - a good one a agree but you can‟t talk to a reproduction,” he spoke as though the person in the portrait were still living. After a while the carriage got hot and steamy and Mr. Turner dropped off. He woke up just as the train was drawing up at a junction with a grinding of brakes. His companion had disappeared. A few days later, having returned to London, Mr. Turner found himself near the Art Gallery. Moved by some impulse, he went in and inquired for Joseph Hart. The attendant directed him to a room devoted to early nineteenth century portraits of well - known men. There are no one in the room and Mr. Turner looked about him. Without knowing quite how he had got there, he found himself standing in front of a full-length portrait of a dark young man in tight trousers and an embroidered waistcoat. The eyes smiled at him with a hint of amusement, the name- plate at the foot of the picture read: Joseph Hart, Gentleman, 1800-1835. 1. What kind of person was Mr. Turner? A. imaginative B. fantastic C. sensible D. insensitive 2. Although he was a lawyer, Mr. Turner A. pretended to know a lot about Art B. knew something about Art C. pretended to take an interest in Art D. intended to learn more about Art 3. When the passenger entered Mr. Turner compartment A. he was panting B. he was running C. the train was just leaving D. the carriage was half- empty 4. The passenger‟s clothes didn‟t seemed stranger to Mr. Turner because A. he was used to wearing stranger clothes B. he liked people who wore stranger clothes C. everyone he knew wore stranger clothes D. he had seen a lot of people in stranger clothes 5. Mr. Turner thought the young man might A. be an Art Dealer B. be an Art Expert

C. renew old picture D. paint reproduction of old pictures 6. Why wouldn‟t the passenger give an opinion on the portrait of the judge? A. The judge wasn‟t alive B. The judge was still alive C. The picture was a copy D. He hadn‟t seen it 7. When did Mr. Turner first realise that the passenger had gone? A. When the train started B. After the train had stopped C. Just before the train stopped D. When the train was leaving the station 8. Why did Mr. Turner go into the Art Gallery? A. He was walking past there B. He had never been there before C. He had planned to do so D. He suddenly decided to 9. In the part of the gallery that Mr. Turner was directed to A. there were a lot of pictures by unknown people B. there were a lot of nineteenth century people C. no one else was looking at the pictures D. he only saw one portrait 10. When Mr. Turner looked at the portrait of Joseph Hart A. he smiled at it B. he thought it smiled at him. C. he didn‟t recognize it D. he was amused Question 6: CLOZE TEST A. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each gap. Circle the letter next to the correct word - A, B, C or D. People in many countries grow fresh water fish from eggs. They move the small fish into lakes and rivers. The fish live and (1) _____ there. People go (2) _____ in these lakes and rivers. They enjoy catching fish because fish is also good food. Now the Japanese grow salt water fish. Most of them are yellow tail fish. Workers grow the fish from eggs. Every time they feed the fish, they play (3) _____ of piano music. The fish (4) _____ that piano music means food. When the fish are small, the Japanese put them into the ocean near the land. The fish find some of their (5) _____ food. Workers also feed them. They play the same piano music. The fish (6) _____ know the music. They swim toward it and (7) _____ the food. In (8) _____ months the fish are large. The Japanese play the same music. The fish swim, toward it and the workers (9) _____ them. The Japanese get about 15 percent of their seafood (10) _____ farms in the ocean. 1. A. bread B. born C. grow D. develop 2. A. enjoying B. fishing C. shopping D. catching 3. A. songs 13. films C. tapes D. lot 4. A. think B. recognize C. realize D. learn 5. A. own B. own‟s C. self D. self s 6. A. recently B. mostly C. nearly D. already 7. A. see B. find C. bite D. hold 8. A. few B. a few C. couple D. many 9. A. grasp B. catch C. seize D. hold 10. A. on B. of C. from D. in B. Read the text below and choose the correct word for each gap. Circle the letter next to the correct word - A, B, C or D. SALLY After two weeks of worry, a farmer in the north of England was very happy yesterday. James Tuke, a farmer who (1) _____ sheep, lost his dog, Sally, when they were out (2) _____ together a fortnight ago. “ Sally was running (3) _____ of me, “ he said, “and disappeared over the top of the hill. I whistled and called (4) _____ she didn‟t come. She is young, so I thought perhaps she had gone back to the farmhouse (5) _____ her own. But she wasn‟t there. Over the next few days I (6) _____ as much time as I could looking for her. I was afraid that I would never see her (7) _____ Then a neighbour said she had heard an animal crying while she was out walking near the (8) _____ of a cliff. I rushed out and found Sally on a shelf of rock halfway down. She was thin and (9) _____ but she had no (10) _____ injuries. She was really lucky ! “ 1. A. goes B. grows C. keeps D. holds 2. A. working B. worked C. work D. works 3. A. behind B. beside C. ahead D. around 4. A. but B. so C. and D. even 5. A. by B. on C. with D. of 6. A. used B. spent C. gave D. passed 7. A. more B. again C. further D. after 8. A. edge B. side C. border D. height

9. A. poor B. dull C. weak D. broken 10. A. strong B. hard C. rough D. serious II. WRITTEN TESTS Part 1: OPEN CLOZE TEST Read the following passages and fill each gap with ONE suitable word: A. A new restaurant with a difference has opened in the High street next door _____ (1) _____ The Royal Theatre in Bristol. It is called starters and is run _____ (2) _____ Carol and Phillip who open a similar restaurant in London last year. Instead of a traditional three —course _____ (3) _____ customers can choose whatever _____ (4) _____ want from a list of _____ (5) _____ a hundred starters or first courses. The list also includes recipes from all over the world and customers are recommended to _____ (6) _____ at least three starters to _____ (7) _____ a satisfying meal. Prices vary depending on what you have, _____ (8) _____ it is impossible to eat quite cheaply if you _____ (9) _____ want to spend a lot of money. The new restarant is becoming very popular and it is better to _____ (10) _____ a table to avoid waiting. B. Money is something we (1) _____ for granted in our life. Some of us may wish we had more it, maybe in the (2) _____ coins, notes or cheques. It is hard to imagine (3) _____ people would manage (4) _____ money. In the earliest periods of human history, people used to exchange goods (5) _____ They would exchange things they had lots of for (6) _____ they were in (7) _____ of . For example, they might offer food (8) _____ tools. This method of exchange, which is known as barter has many (9) _____ Certain goods may be difficult, or may be impossible to divide into smaller units. It can also be very difficult to know the worth of something (10) _____ with other goods. Part 2: WORD FORMS A. Use the correct form of the words given in brackets to fill in the blanks in each sentence: 1. He is engrossed in doing (science) _____ research 2. They entered the areas without (pemit) _____ 3. He wants (width) _____ his knowledge of the subject 4. The giant panda is a(n) (danger) _____ species 5. What makes the computer a(miracle) _____ device ? 6. The mountain gorilla is on the verge of _____ (extinct) 7. He is a much loved and highly (respect) _____ teacher 8. We went to the national park to enjoy the mountain _____ (scene) 9. My colleagues are very pleasant, but the manager is a little _____ (friend) 10. These shoes look quite smart but they are terribly _____ (comfort) B. Read the text, Use the suggestions to put in the correct positions and Give the correct word-forms (O - is done for you as an example). Write the answers after the numbers. Estimate Germany influence develop proficient originate entertain office former communicate particular As (0) _____ 300 - 400 million people speak English as their first language. One recent estimate is that 1.9 billion people, nearly a third of the world‟s population, have a basic (1) _____ in English. English is the dominant international language in (2) _____, science, business, aviation, (3) _____, diplomacy and the Internet. It has been one of the (4) _____ languages of the United Nations since its founding in 1945. English (5) _____ in England, and is West Germanic language which developed from Old English, the language of the Anglo - Saxons. As a result of the Norman Conquest and other events in English history, it has been heavily (6) _____ more than any others (7) _____ language, by French and Latin. From England it spread to the rest of the British Isles, then to the colonies and territories of the British Empire (both outside and inside the current Commonwealth of Nations) such as United States, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and others, (8) _____ those in the Anglophone Caribbeans. As a result of these historical (9) _____ English is the official language (sometimes one of several) in many countries (10) _____ under British or American rule, such as Pakistan, Ghana, Nigeria, South Africa, Kenya, and the Philippines. 0. Estimated 1 _____ 2 _____ 3 _____ 4 _____ 5 _____ 6 _____ 7 _____ 8 _____ 9 _____ 10 _____ Part 3: ERROR IDENTIFICATION

There are 11 errors in the following passage. Identify, then underline and correct them: O is an example: Drug abuse is like a communicable disease it spreads - by example, by word of mouth, and by imitation. Drug abuse is certainly increasing, but so are the number of young people who has tried drugs and want out. As we provide treatment services for them. These young people become able to tell other youth that the drug scene is not as great as they thought they was, before they got hooked. And, of greater importance, they are beleived by their contemporaries before experimentation become habit. Parents can help use drug usage by setting example, by knowledge, and by understanding. If they are to talk to their children about drugs, they must be informed, usually they know far less about drugs than do their children. Ideally, before their child is tempted to experiment, they will have be able to explain to him the undesirability of the drugged life. What is even more convincing to young people, they will have been able to communicate of him the actual damage that a drug abuser does to their body. 0. it → which Part 4: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it: 1. It‟s important that you don‟t tell anyone else what I‟ve told you” she said to him. REPEAT She ____________________________________________________________________ 2. I was surprised to discover that the hotel was a long way from the city center. TURNED To _____________________________________________________________________ 3. He never suspected that the money had been stolen. At no___________________________________________________________________ 4. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band‟s decision to stop playing. The moment _____________________________________________________________ 5. The police left and then all the journalists arrived. ALREADY The police _____ all the journalists arrived. 6. Although Sarah wasn‟t wearing a helmet, she wasn‟t injured in the accident. OF Sarah wasn‟t injured in the accident, _____ a helmet. 7. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background. SENSE Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt _____ about her life. Rearrange the following sentences 8. I / go / back / University / next / week / and / this / year / I / have / to / study / hard / final / exams. 9. I / really / enjoy / the / course / so / far /, but / I / not / sure / what / do / once / I / get /degree. 10. university / arrange / career / interviews /, but / I / not / really / have / clear / idea / what / I / want / do.

PRACTICE TEST 4 PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM Câu hỏi 1: (5 điểm) PHONETICS A. Pronunciation 1. A. siblings B. lubricant C. tambourine D. subtle 2. A. hyperbole B. cyclone C. machete D. adobe 3. A. chicanery B. diabetes C. parenthesis D. psychiatrist 4. A. exhilarate B. pharaoh C. diarrhoea D. carbohydrate 5. A. treachery B. retread C. meadow D. dreary B. Word stress 6. A. commentator B. intimacy C. exaggerate D. predecessor 7. A. Aborigines B. honorarium C. rehabilitate D. hieroglyphics 8. A. eligible B. legislature C. influenza D. comparable 9. A. bikini B. dividend C. flamingo D. thesaurus 10. A. authoritative B. administrative C. argumentative D. initiative Câu hỏi 2: (5 điểm) WORD CHOICE 1. A democratic leader delegates authority and responsibility to others. A. disputes B. concentrates C. directs D. disseminates 2. The gymnast‟s exercises made her fell exhilarated. A. tired B. exhausted C. stimulated D. exigent 3. Prehistoric caves art portrayed animals in motion. A. enhanced B. hindered C. criticized D. depicted 4. He was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country. A. recognition B. gratitude C. knowledge D. response 5. Anybody found stealing from this shop will be _____. A. provoked B. persuaded C. persecuted D. prosecuted 6. I‟ve _____ it in the mains but it still doesn‟t seem to work. A. worked B. turned C. narrowed D. plugged 7. Sensing that war was _____, the leaders prepared for defences. A. immediate B. immune C. imminent D. immense 8. These documents are strictly _____. Only reliable people are allowed to read them. A. confident B. confidential C. self - confident D. confiding 9. The woman was _____ from hospital only a week after her operation. A. discharged B. expelled C. evicted D. ejected 10. He‟s thin, but he eats like a _____. A. horse B. pig C. tiger D. lion Câu hỏi 3: (5 điểm) GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES 1. Hospital committees _____ spent weeks agonizing over which artificial kidney candidate would receive the treatments now find that the decision is out of their hands. A. that once B. once C. have D. once had 2. _____ of economic cycles been helpful in predicting turning points in cycles, they would have been used more consistently. A. Psychological theories B. Psychological theories C. Had psychological theories D. Psychological have theories 3. Among bees _____ a highly elaborate form of communication. A. occur B. occurs C. it occurs D. they occur 4. _____ with about fifteen times its weight in air does gasoline allow the carburetor to run smoothly. A. It is mixed B. Only when mixed C. When mixed D. To mix it 5. The daughters of Joseph La Flesche were born into the generation of Omaha forced to abandon tribal traditions, _____ on the reservation, and to adapt to the white man‟s way. A. they matured B. to mature C. maturing D. to maturity 6. A need for space law to include commercial concerns has been recognized inasmuch _____ been expanding drastically in recent years. A. the commercial launch industry B. the commercial launch industry has C. as the commercial launch industry has D. as has the commercial launch industry

7. In Hailey, the best-known lecturer was women‟s rights activist Abigail Scott Duniway of Portland, Oregon, who could usually be persuaded to speak _____ town visiting her son. A. she was in B. while in C. while she was D. was in 8. When _____ on July 4, 1789, the federal tariff, intended by the Founding Fathers to be the government‟s primary source of revenue, was remarkably evenhanded. A. first enacted B. was first enacted C. was enacted first D. it first 9. While the discovery that many migratory songbirds can thrive in deforested wintering spots _____, the facts remains that these birds are dying at unusual rates. A. it is heartening B. hearten C. heartening D. is heartening 10. _____ contained in the chromosomes, and they are thought of as the units of heredity. A. Genes are B. Genes which are C. When genes D. Because of genes Câu hỏi 4: (5 điểm) PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS 1. If you hadn‟t informed _____ advance that you wouldn‟t be giving any seminar, we wouldn‟t have gone to the trouble of making all the necessary arrangements. A. in B. at C. of D. with 2. My friend has _____ the flu and he‟s really quite ill at the moment. A. come up with B. come down with C. come on for D. come across with 3. Mum was in a bad mood, but I _____ the fact that she was very tired. A. put it down to B. put it away for C. put it out with D. put it up to 4. The garage has decided to _____ petrol pump assistants. Drivers will have to fill up their own tanks. A. put up to B. do away with C. make out for D. cut down on 5. I‟m worried about your father; I think he‟s _____ too much at; work and he looks very tired. A. taken out B. taken away C. taken in D. taken on 6. Her success went _____ her expectation. A. on B. for C. beyond D. off 7. I can‟t eat seafood because it _____ an allergic reactions. A. carries on B. brings on C. looks on D. puts on 8. The teacher waited for the noise to _____ before she continued to speak. A. turn down B. make down C. die down D. break down 9. During the meeting, Mr. Jones _____ a number of very interesting suggestions. A. came forward B. moved forward C. advanced forward D. put forward 10. I _____ so much weight on holiday. I‟d better go on a diet. A. put on B. gained on C. made on D. brought on Câu hỏi 5: (10 điểm) READING COMPREHENSION Reading 1: Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question. The organization that today is known as the Bank of America did start out in America, but under quite a different name. Italian American A.P Giannini established this bank on October 17, 1904, in a renovated saloon in San Francisco‟s Italian community of North Beach under the name Bank 5 of Italy, with immigrants and first-time bank customers comprising the majority of his first customers. During its development, Giannini‟s bank survived major crises in the form of a natural disaster and a major economic upheaval that not all other banks were able to overcome. One major test for Giannini‟s bank occurred on April 18, 1906, when a 10 massive earthquake struck San Francisco, followed by a raging fire that destroyed much of the city. Giannini obtained two wagons and teams of horses, filled the wagons with the bank‟s reserves, mostly in the form of gold, covered the reserves with crates of oranges, and escaped from the chaos of the city with his clients‟ funds protected. In the aftermath of the 15 disaster, Giannini‟s bank was the first to resume operations. Unable to install the bank in a proper office setting, Giannini opened up shop on the Washington Street Wharf on a makeshift desk created from boards and barrels. In the period following the 1906 fire, the Bank of Italy continued to 20 prosper and expand. By 1918 there were twenty-four branches of the Bank

25

of Italy, and by 1928 Giannini had acquired numerous other banks, including a Bank of America located in New York City. In 1930 he consolidated all the branches of the Bank of Italy, the Bank of America in New York City, and another Bank of America that he had formed in California into the Bank of America National Trust and Savings Association. A second major crisis for the bank occurred during the Great Depression of the 1930s. Although Giannini had already retired prior to the darkest days of the Depression, he became incensed when his successor began selling off banks during the bad economic times. Giannini resumed leadership of the bank at the age of sixty-two. Under Gianni‟s leadership, the bank weathered the storm of Depression and subsequently moved into a phase of overseas development.

1. According to the passage, Giannini _____. A. opened the Bank of America in 1904 B. worked in a bank in Italy C. set up the Bank of America prior to setting up the Bank of Italy D. later changed the name of the Bank of Italy 2. Where did Giannini open his first bank? A. In New York City B. In what used to be a bar C. On Washington Street Wharf D. On a makeshift desk 3. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the San Francisco earthquake? A. It happened in 1906 B. It occurred in the aftermath of a fire C. It caused problems for Giannini‟s bank D. It was a tremendous earthquake 4. The word “raging” in line 9 could best be replaced by _____. A. angered B. localized C. intense D. feeble 5. It can be inferred from the passage that Giannini used crates of oranges after the earthquake . A. to hide the gold B. to fill up the wagons C. to provide nourishment for his customers D. to protect the gold from the fire 6. The word “chaos” in line 12 is closest in meaning to _____. A. legal system B. extreme heat C. overdevelopment D. total confusion 7. The passage states that after his retirement, Giannini _____ . A. began selling off banks B. caused economic misfortune to occur C. supported the bank‟s new management D. returned to work 8. The expression “weathered the storm off in line 26 could best be replaced by‟ . A. found a cure for B. rained on the parade of C. survived the ordeal of D. blew its stack at 9. Where in the passage does the author describe Giannini‟s first banking clients? A. Lines 2-5 B. Lines 8-9 C. Lines 13-15 D. Lines 16-18 10. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses _____. A. bank failures during the Great Depression B. a third major crisis of the Bank of America C. the international development of the Bank of America D. how Giannini spent his retirement Reading 2: Read the passage below and choose the best answer to each question. The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family, 5 Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor; the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago 10 whether by the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of personal interpretation. Winterthur remains,

then, a house in which a collection of furniture and architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic structure, the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to 15 the visitor, has changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, as a progression toward the achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays: The rooms at Winterthur have followed this current, yet still retained the character of a private house. 20 The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned B. Elements that make Winterthur an usual museum C. How Winterthur compares to English country houses D. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur 2. The phrase “devoted to” in line-2 is closest in meaning to? A. surrounded by B. specializing in C. successful with D. sentimental about 3. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931? A. The owners moved out. B. The house was repaired. C. The old furniture was replaced. D. The estate became a museum. 4. What does the author mean by stating “The impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the visitor”? A. Winterthur is very old. B. Few people visit Winterthur. C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum. D. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable. 5. The word “assembled” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. summoned B. appreciated C. brought together D. fundamentally changed 6. The word “it” in line 12 refers to A. Winterthur B. Collection C. English country house D. Visitor 7. The word “developing” in line 14 is closest in meaning to A. traditional B. exhibiting C. informative D. evolving 8. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by ail of the following EXCEPT A. date B. style C. pace of manufacture D. past ownership 9. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage? A. The second paragraph explains a term that was mentioned in the first paragraph. B. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum. C. The second paragraph explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with the philosophy explained in the first paragraph. D. Each paragraph describes a different historical period. 10- Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have changed? A. Lines 1-3 B. Lines 7-9 C. Lines 10-11 D. Lines 13-16 Câu hỏi 6: (10 điểm) CLOZE TEST 1: Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. The elementary means of communicating with other people is (1) _____ messages by voice. This fact is widely acknowledged and we recognize the voice as a (2) _____ characterizing the identity of a person. The array of voices is immeasurable as no two are exactly similar. They can be nasal, resonant or shrill produced in (3) _____ with the individual physical properties of the throat. One possible (4) _____ of the art of voice recognition is voice profiling used by police analysts as a method of substantiating court evidence in trials. Every year thousands of audiotapes with recorded interviews or casual utterances are (5) _____ to the purpose to help identify the probable culprit. Specialists dealing with the voice investigation claim that people can (6) _____ themselves away by their accents, inflections or other voice attributes like pitch, intensity and loudness. A recorded sample is usually (7) _____

into electric impulses and later transformed into a pictorial recording which is processed by a computer program. Very frequently voice analysts have a stab (8) _____ deciphering the relevant information which may be (9) _____ with background noise or other interfering sounds until they (10) _____ the desired results. (1). A. commuting B. discharging C. informing D. conveying (2). A. feature B. matter C. token D. label (3). A. consent B. accordance C. dependence D. support (4). A. operation B. handling C. implementation D. treatment (5). A. used B. put C. employed D. set (6). A. give B. turn C. prove D. tell (7). A. reformed B. exchanged C. adjusted D. converted (8). A. at B. on C. from D. for (9). A. infused B. mingled C. abused D. intruded (10). A. attain B. manoeuvre C. elaborate D. succeed CLOZE TEST 2: Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. A worrying question which (1) _____ global attention is severe overpopulation and its drastic effects in the countries of the Third World. In regions where the birth (2) _____ is extremely high, poverty and starvation are (3) _____. In India, there is an average of thirty five infants being born every minute, yet the most shocking figures are those which (4) _____ the enormous number of the victims of famine in certain African territories. Communities afflicted with acute destitution are additionally (5) _____ with illiteracy, life in appalling conditions and infectious diseases (6) _____ the indigenous populations. There is an urgent need for these problems to be solved or (7) _____ they might continue bringing about innumerable worries upon the affluent societies around the world. Unless measures are taken to (8) _____ the suffering of the impoverished underdeveloped nations, desperate crowds of immigrants will persist in flooding the richer states in (9) _____ of a brighter future. It‟s the most challenging task for the international giants nowadays to help the poor populations get out of the poverty (10) _____. (1). A. insists B. wishes C. requires D. asks (2). A. amount B. quota C. number D. rate (3). A. profuse B. rife C. generous D. predominant (4). A. appear B. refer C. indicate D. comprise (5). A. conflicted B. encountered C. confronted D. inconvenienced (6). A. decimating B. enumerating C. discounting D. outnumbering (7), A. that B. else C. so D. if (8). A. discard B. vanish C. evaporate D. ease (9). A. search B. chase C. lookout D. survey (10). A. lure B. pitfall C. snare D. trap PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Câu hỏi 1: (20 điểm) OPEN CLOZE TEST 1: London‟s West End is renowned for (1) _____ the entertainment centre of the city. No matter what time of year it is, the West End is always filled (2) _____ tourists and Londoners alike, all wanting to soak up the energetic atmosphere! At the very heart of the West End lies the area now (3) _____ as “Theatreland”. Its name reflects the fact that (4) _____ is a high concentration of theatres in this area, playing host to (5) _____ of the most famous stage productions in the world. It can often be impossible to get tickets for the (6) _____ popular shows! The West End is also home to some of the best shopping London (7) _____ to offer. In particular, the world-famous Oxford Street has hundreds of clothing shops and some of the city‟s biggest department stores. And then when you‟ve had enough (8) _____ shopping there are plenty of cafe, restaurants and nightclubs to choose (9) _____ Finally, there are many cultural attractions to visit in this part of London. In fact, no (10) _____ what your tastes are, London‟s West End has something for everyone. OPEN CLOZE TEST 2: I‟m going (1) _____ a difficult time at the moment - my mother says it happens to ail teenagers. Anyway, there‟s this girl who moved into my block of fiats last year - she‟s a couple of years older than me but the truth is I‟ve wanted to kiss Samantha ever (2) _____ I met her and last week I finally (3) _____ up my mind that I was going to do it. On Friday I was coming up the stairs (4) _____ I saw her walking down carrying two huge boxes. “(5) _____ I help you with those?” I asked.

“Thanks - they‟re really heavy, I think I‟m about to collapse.” I carried them to the entrance, and put the boxes down for a moment (6) _____ she opened the front door. This was my opportunity -- I had wanted to do it for months and now I was really going to kiss her. “I just can‟t put into (7) _____ how I feel about you,” I stammered. “So I thought I‟d show you instead.” I learnt over and was (8) _____ about to kiss her when my neighbor came through the door. As soon as she had gone, Samantha turned to me, grabbed the boxes and said, “Let me give you a (9) _____ of advice stick to girls your own age!” So that‟s it for me - I think I‟ve gone (10) _____ girls completely for the moment. Câu hỏi 2: (20 điểm) WORD FORM A. Put the words in the correct form. 1. Unfortunately, none of us managed to convince the director of the benefits that our experiment might bring. Mis _____ (APPROVE) grew even stronger when Jack mentioned the possible cost of the venture. 2. Nobody as applied for the mission knowing how _____ (HAZARD) it may be. 3. Stanley is an _____ (INDUSTRY) character. He likes working hard both in the factory and in his private workshop. 4. Alfred‟s irrational reactions may result from the inadequate _____ (BRING) that he was given by his foster parents. 5. The captain‟s every _____ (MOVE) was carefully observed by the secret service. 6. The coach says that if our rivals manage to score another goal, we are to withdraw in to “a _____ (DEFEND) position. 7. “Have you got any _____ (GIVE) about the cooperation?” “Oh no. I‟m sure it will be successful.” 8. Jane‟s been granted a one year _____ (SCHOOL) at one of the most renowned universities in Europe. 9. It is strange how her _____ (PERSON) changed after she joined the sect. 10. The man looked out of the door _____ (SUSPECT). Having found out there was nobody in the street, he rushed towards the ear. B. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space. The RNLI (Royal National Lifeboat Institution) is an organization (1) _____ (DEFEND) of government control, dedicated to saving lives at sea. The RNLI has an active fleet of several hundred lifeboats around the length and (2) _____ (BROAD) of Britain‟s coastline. Since it was founded in 1824, the RNLI has had an extremely (3) _____ (SIGNIFY) impact on maritime safety, saving over 130,000 lives. Because the RNLI is not funded by the government, it relies on the (4) _____ (GOOD) of the public to cover its costs, its income coming from membership fees and (5) _____ (CHARITY) donations. Some people have raised (6) _____ (OBJECT) to this, saying that such an (7) _____ (VALUE) service should be government-funded. The lifeboat crews are almost all volunteers. They are generally (8) (KNOW) by the British people as being (9) _____ (EXAMPLE) in their (10) _____ (SELF), frequently putting their lives at risk to save others. Câu hỏi 3: (10 điểm) ERROR ANALYSIS. There are ten errors in the text below. Find and correct them. “Technology” includes any machine, method or system for uses scientific knowledge for practical purposes. Whether in the form of a primitive hand-held tool and the latest computer, technology gives us greater control over the world around us and makes our lives easier and happier. Unless the ability to invent, discover and improve, we would still be living like cavemen, and civilization as we know what would be impossible. Throughout history, technological progress has changed the frame people live. Thousands of years ago, for instance, people lived by hunting animals and gathering wild plants. In order to finding food, they had to move from place to place. The gradual development of agricultural tools and farming methods meant that people no longer had to wander in search of food, but will settle in villages. Due to most technology benefits people, some inventions, such as weapons of war, have had a harmful effect on our lives. Others have been among beneficial and harmful. The car, for example, is a fast, convenient means of transport, but has also contributed greatly for the problem of air pollution. Câu hỏi 4: (20 điểm) SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION Complete the second sentence so that its meaning has the closest meaning to the first sentence. Use the bold word and do not alter the given word. 1. They are going to get rid of all these small shops when they build the new supermarket. WITH → They are going to ____________ all these small shops when they build the new supermarket.

2. Hal found something unexpectedly when he cleared out the attic. DISCOVERY → Hal _________________________ when he cleared out the attic. 3. Kira didn‟t say anything about her illness last night. MADE → Kira _____________________________ her illness last night. 4. Paul and Pete share so many similar interests. COMMON → Paul ____________________________________________ Pete. 5. It would be in your interest to take an earlier train on Sunday. OFF → You would _____ an earlier train on Sunday. 6. Nobody approved of the new law when it was introduced. APPROVAL → The new law didn‟t _____ when it was introduced. 7. I‟m sure you were surprised when you heard the news. → You _______________________________ when you heard the news. 8. I promised my mum that I would work hard this year. → I made _________________________________ that I would work hard this year. 9. The witness thought I was a thief, but realized that she was wrong. → The witness __________________________ for the thief, but realized that she was wrong. 10. Immediately after his appointment to the post, the new editor fell ill. → No sooner _________________________________________________________ he fell ill.

PRACTICE TEST 5 A. MULTIPIE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40pts) I. PHONOLOGY (5pts) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three: 1. A. compete B. complete C. concede D. recede 2. A. exhaust B. luxurious C. luxury D. anxiety 3. A. commerce B. confident C. confess D. conquer 4. A. southern B. plough C. round D. ouch 5. A. expansion B. conversation C. convulsion D. precision Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three: 6. A. alternative B. guitarist C. ecosystem D. semester 7. A. heritage B. mysterious C. historical D. particular 8. A. shortcoming B. category C. eventually D. applicant 9. A. interview B. compulsory C. inhabitant D. contribute 10. A. schedule B. orbit C. promise D. report II. VOCABULARY (5pts) Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences: 1. Nobody has any firm information, so we can only _____ on what caused the accident. A. guess B. contemplate C. speculate D. assume 2. Cars have been banned from the city center, which makes the area much safer for _____ A. passers-by B. onlookers C. pedestrians D. footmen 3. There has been a real boom in _____ electronics over the last three decades. A. consumer B. customer C. buyer D. client 4. When I realized that I‟d left my homework at home, I quickly _____ back to get it. A. crept B. dashed C. crawled D. drifted 5. I know it‟s got his name on the cover, but he used a _____ A. correspondent B. model C. ghostwriter D. fellow 6. The text doesn‟t give you the answer explicitly - you have to _____ it from the evidence. A. convert B. grasp C. reckon D. deduce 7. Are you having a _____ exam before you sit the actual exam in June? A. fake B. mock C. false D. dress 8. I couldn‟t decide what to write about, when I suddenly _____ upon the idea of doing something on writer‟s block. A. thought B. chanced C. hit D. arrived 9. They are unlikely to find any new evidence because so much time has _____ since the crime. A. spanned B. postponed C. lapsed D. elapsed 10. Three Mexican fishermen were rescued today after _____ at sea for nine months.

A. wandering B. roaming C. drifting D. sinking III. STRUCTURES ( 5 pts) Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences: 1. He retired early _____ ill health. A. on account of B. on behalf of C. in front of D. ahead of 2. Are you sure you told me? I don‟t recall _____ about it. A. having told B. having been told C. to have told D. to have been told 3. There are two small rooms in the beach house, _____ served as a kitchen. A. the smaller of which B. the smallest of which C. the smaller of them D. smallest of that 4. The doctor insisted that his patient _____ A. he did not work too hard for three months B. take it easy for three months. C. take it easy inside of three months. D. could take some vacations for three months. 5. The railway line has been closed for ten years and the station buildings are now sadly _____. A. decrepit B. derelict C. decomposed D. discarded 6. We need _____ information before we can decide. A. far B. farther C. further D. furthest 7. “Come on, Peter. I want to show you something.” - “Oh, how nice of you! I you __ to bring me a gift.” A. never think / are going B. never thought / were going C. didn‟t think / were going D. hadn‟t thought / were going 8. While some people take pleasure in playing cards, _____. A. neither does he B. they didn‟t take pleasure C. I do too D. others take pleasure in reading books 9. _____ we know, there are 70 elements found in nature. A. So far as B. As far C. Just as D. So long as 10. _____ further rioting to occur, the government would be forced to use its emergency power. A. Should B. Did C. Were D, 0 IV. PREPOSITIONS and PHRASAL VERBS (5pts) Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences. 1. She‟ s decided to _____ her German by attending an evening course. A. brush up B. patch up C. polish off D. dust off 2. Now consumer protection legislation comes into _____ next April. A. law B. force C. statue D. act 3. It _____ me as strange that my front door was open when I got home. A. seemed B. occurred C. appeared D. struck 4. The floor was so rotten that it almost _____ under his weight. A. gave up B. gave away C. gave back D. gave way 5. The demonstrations _____ in one hundred students being arrested. A. culminated B. erupted C. escalated D. concluded 6. We are _____ no obligation to change goods which were not purchased here. A. with B. to C. under D. at 7. I reckon Martin is _____ of a nervous breakdown. A. in charge B. under suspicion C. on the verge D. indicative 8. The professor interceded _____ the review board on my behalf. A. at B. on C. with D. for 9. He passed the test by the skin of his teeth. A. easily B. with very little margin C. with a very high score D. all are correct 10. It has rained for four days without letting up. A. thundering B. freezing C. increasing in intensity D. slackening V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 pts) READING 1 (5 pts) Read the passage and answer the questions which follow by choosing the best suggestion: Today‟s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical then their predecessors, but the cars of the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity, compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only-zero- emission option presently available.

Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other dependable source of current is available, transportation experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric delivery vans, bikes, and trolleys. As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging facilities will need to be as common as today‟s gas station. Public parking spots on the street or in commercial lots will need to be equipped with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars. Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/ gasoline hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handling five times the number of vehicles that can be carried by a freeway today. 1. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage except A. vans B. trains C. planes D. trolleys 2. The author‟s purpose in the passage is to A. criticize conventional vehicles B. support the invention of electric cars C. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles D. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future 3. The passage would most likely be followed by details about A. automated freeways B. pollution restrictions in the future C. the neighborhood of the future D. electric shuttle buses 4. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. long-range B. inexpensive C. concentrated D. squared 5. In the second paragraph the author implies that A. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future C. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation D. electric vehicles are not practical for the future 6. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be A. more convenient than they are today B. equipped with charging devices C. much larger than they are today D. as common as todays gas station 7. The word “charging” in the passage refers to A. electricity B. credit cards C. aggression D. lightning 8. The word “foresee” in the passage could best be replaced with A. count on B. invent C. imagine D. rely on 9. The word “commuters” in paragraph 4 refers to A. daily travelers B. visitors C. cab drivers D. shoppers 10. The word “hybrid” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. combination B. hazardous C. futuristic D. automated READING 2 (5pts) Read the passages and choose the correct answer among A, B, C or D. The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of extraordinarily talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold records. They inspired a frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally, Lennon and five others formed a group called the Quarrymen in 1956, with McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drum, performed together in several bands for a few years until they finally settled on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon‟s and McCartney‟s music, whose first hits consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, “Love Me Do” and “Please, Please Me”. The Beatles‟ U.S. tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies A Hard Day‟s Night and Help! filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of the United States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles charts, followed by the release of their first film. During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to grow as the Beatles turned

their attention to social problems and political issues in “Nowhere Man” and “Eleanor Rigby”. Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads “Michelle” and “Yesterday” which fully displayed the group‟s professional development and sophistication. Lennon „s sardonic music with lyric written in the first person , and Me Cartney‟s songs that created scenarios with off beat individuals, contributed to the character of the music produced by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles set a social trend that popularized long hair, Indian music, and mod dress. For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place in San Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits, and the much idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold those of any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form new rock groups, alone, none could achieve the recognition and success that they had been able to win together. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The history and music of the Beatles B. The history and milestones of rock music C. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s D. The creation and history of a music group 2. According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in 1956? A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven 3. According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent? A. John Lennon and Paul McCartney B. George Harrison and John Lennon C. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best. D. John Lennon, Paul McCartney, and George Harrison 4. The author of the passage implies that the Beatles _____ A. competed with American musicians. B. wrote their music as group. C. became popular relatively quickly. D. were active in social movements. 5. According to the passage, the Beatles‟ fame grew as a result of _____ A. Chuck Berry‟s involvement. B. their American tour. C. two movies made in the U.S. D. their first two hits. 6. The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the Beatles A. became more complex than at the beginning of their career. B. declined in quality and political significance. C. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle. D. made them the richest musicians in the world. 7. The word “acquired” in line 15 is closest in meaning to _____ A. imparted B. attached C. imprinted D. attained 8. According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success? A. In the late 1950s B. After their break-up in 1970 C. During the early and mi D. 1960s D. Throughout their lifetimes 9. The word “scenarios” in line 21 is closest in meaning to _____ A. sceneries B. situations C. life stories D. love themes 10. According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of the group? A. They struggled to reach stardom in the United States. B. They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads. C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles‟ repertoire. D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular. VI. CLOZE TEST (10 pts) Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the blanks (5pts) PICTURE IMPERFECT A couple who arranged a second wedding ceremony after photographs of the original ceremony were ruined is claiming (1) _____ from the photographer who captured their special day on film. The bride, Tracey Lloyd, burst into tears when she was given the initial (2) _____ of her „big day‟. Most of the photographs were out of focus and in some her face was actually obscured. She and her husband Gary are (3) _____ in dispute with the company that took the wedding photographs. Two days after the ceremony, the Lloyds had to (4) _____ the ceremony again with a different photographer. The final (5) _____ was perfect, but they insist that the distress ruined their honeymoon. They have already (6) _____ the offer of a refund of three hundred pounds. The new Mrs. Lloyd said, “I was absolutely (7) _____ I couldn‟t believe that it had happened to us after we had saved up for so long. It was supposed to be a perfect day, but the photographs were more like holiday snaps that had been taken by a real (8) _____”. Her husband added, “The second set of pictures is excellent but the company gave the (9) _____ impression that everything went well the first time around. Now all those initial moments have passed. They are something you can never (10) _____”.

1. A. damage B. refunds C. repayments D. compensation 2. A. record B. model C. copy D. likeness 3. A. at first B. currently C. at once D. momentarily 4. A. go through B. pass through C. go over D. pass over 5. A. effect B. product C. output D. work 6. A. dismissed B. denied C. dropped D. rejected 7. A. devastated B, demolished C. overpowered D. overwhelmed 8. A. newcomer B. apprentice C. amateur D. trainee 9. A. untrue B. wrong C. false D. imitation 10. A. take back B. bring back C. take in D. bring in Part 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer to each of the blanks (5pts) If you‟re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our wasteful; throw-way society. But there seems little (1) _____ it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (2) _____ even environmental ones. It‟s not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental (3) _____ it‟s the way society chooses to use and (4) _____ them About 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal - non-renewable natural (5) _____ We (6) _____ well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (7) _____ of our annual consumption is in the (8) _____ of packaging, and this (9) _____ about seven percent by weight, of our domestic (10) _____ Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. 1. A. evidence B. concern C. doubt D. likelihood 2. A. pleasures B. benefits C. savings D. profits 3. A. poison B. disaster C. disadvantage D. evil 4. A. dispose B. store C. endanger D. abuse 5. A. resources B. processes C. products D. fuels 6. A. remove B. import C. consign D. consume 7. A. portion B. amount C. proportion D. rate 8. A. way B. kind C. form D. type 9. A. takes B. makes C. carries D. constitutes 10. A. refuse B. goods C. requirements D. rubble II. WORD FORMS (20pts) Part 1: Give the right form of the word in capitals at the end of these sentences to form a word that fits in the blank space (10 pts) 1. How much does _____ of this club cost? (MEMBER) 2. She is extremely _____ about the history of art. (KNOW) 3. Traveling in big cities is becoming more and more _____ every day. (TROUBLE) 4. He is completely _____! Not only is he lazy but he is dishonest too. (EMPLOY) 5. His boss told him off because he had behaved _____ (RESPONSIBLE) 6. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later _____ when a medical check proved that he had been taking drugs. (QUALIFY) 7. Women who are slimming can never enjoy a meal without being afraid of _____ their diet. (ORGANISE) 8. The trouble with Mr, Brown is that he‟s so _____ One minute he goes mad when you come late; the next he says nothing. You never know where you are! (CONSIST) 9. It is forbidden to hunt for that kind of bird. It has been listed as one of the _____ species. (DANGER) 10. I didn‟t know who it was - with a mask on she was completely _____ (RECOGNISE) Part 2: Give the right form of the word in brackets to complete the passage (10 pts) THE RNLI The RNLI (Royal National Lifeboat Institution) is an organization (1) _____ (DEPEND) of the government control, dedicated to saving lives at sea. The RNLI has an active fleet of several hundred of lifeboats around the length and (2) _____ (BROAD) of Britain‟s coastline. Since it was founded in 1824, the RNLI has had an extremely (3) _____ (SIGNIFY) impact on maritime safety, saving over 130, 000 lives. Because the RNLI is not funded by the government, it relies on the (4) _____ (GOOD) of the public to cover its costs, its income coming from membership fees and (5) _____ (CHARITY) donations. Some people have raised (6) _____ (OBJECT) to this, saying that such and (7) _____ (VALUE) service should be

government - funded. The lifeboat crews are almost all volunteers. They are generally (8) _____ (KNOW) by the British people as being (9) _____ (EXAMPLE) in their (10) _____ (SELF) frequently are putting their lives at risk to save others. III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 pts) In most line of the following text, there is either a spelling or a punctuation error. For each numbered line 1-10, write the correctly spelt word or show the correct punctuation on your answer sheet. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (). The exercise begins with four examples (0), (00), (000), and (0000).  0 0 00 point where 00 000 dominate 000 0000 caught up 0000 THE GUITAR IN ROCK AND ROLL (0) in just over forty years, the guitar has risen from practical obscurity (00) to a point, where life would seem very strange with it. The first (000) instruments to domminate rock and roll were the piano and the tenor (0000) saxophone, but it wasn‟t too long before the guitar caught - up. (1) Fashions in musical instruments may come and go, but the guitar (2) is here to stay. It is the perfect accompaniment to the human voice. (3) It is more portable than the piano, relatively inexpensive and readily (4) adaptible to almost any musical style. The learner guitarist of today (5) has one distinct advantage over his predecessor forty years, or so ago, (6) which is that the guitar he or she buys brand new will be perfectly (7) playable. Musicians are indebted to todays guitar makers for this. (8) Things were far thougher four decades ago. Many guitar stars started (9) out as mere mortals strugling to either buy or build their first guitar. (10) Much experimentation was involved, a lot of it crazy and futile. IV. SENTENCE WRITING (20pts) Section I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it: (10 pts) 1. It is thought that the prisoner was recaptured while drinking in a pub. → The prisoner __________________________________________________________ 2. I‟d prefer him not to have said all those embarrassing things about me. → I‟d rather _____________________________________________________________ 3. The fourth time he asked her to marry him, she accepted. → Only on ______________________________________________________________ 4. Could you watch my bag while I‟m away? → Could you keep ________________________________________________________ ? 5. The Mayor hoped to have a good day for the parade. → The Mayor was in ______________________________________________________ Section II: Write the new sentence which has the same meaning as the original one, using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way (10 pts) 1. The success of our local theater has made our city famous . MAP → _____________________________________________________________________ . 2. If we tried to force him to repay the debt, we would be wasting of time. POINT → _____________________________________________________________________ . 3. I resent the way that she clearly feels herself to be superior to me. NOSE → _____________________________________________________________________ . 4. We missed the bus because we had overslept. CONSEQUENCE → _____________________________________________________________________ . 5. We were on the point of leaving the house when the telephone rang. ABOUT → _____________________________________________________________________ .

PRACTICE TEST 6 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 points) I. PHONOLOGY (5 points) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. 1. A. village B. passage C. message D. massage 2. A. swift B. swallow C. sweatshop D. sword 3. A. saffron B. sacrament C. saddlery D. sabbatical 4. A. thread B. feather C. bread D. bead 5. A. prepare B. preface C. preparation D. prejudice Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three 6. A. negligible B. perceptible C. collapsible D. discernible 7. A. discrepancy B. convivial C. gimmickry D. irrevocable 8. A. curriculum B. scenario C. bewilderment D. devastation 9. A. domestic B. parental C. teenager D. disposal 10. A. appliance B. romantic C. dynamic D. homecoming II. WORD CHOICE (5 points) Choose the best option 11. These tablets are really _____. My headache‟s much better now. A. affective B. effective C. efficient D. affected 12. The old lady _____ at them kindly when she saw them enter her shop. A. glared B. grinned C. grimaced D. beamed . 13. She could not go on the overseas trip with her parents because she failed to renew her _____ passport. A. terminated B. renounced C. expired D. invalidated 14. The railway track has been constructed in such a way as to allow space for _____ on a hot day. A. extension B. expropriation C. expansion D. explosion . 15. “But son, you are my own _____.” A. flesh and blood B. body and soul C. heart to heart D. skin and bone 16. Don‟t be angry with Susan. All that she did was in good _____. A. hope B. faith C. belief D. idea 17. The new situation has _____ a lot of anger and dissatisfaction. Our duty is to encounter it in the most sensitive way. A. provoked B. devised C. originated D. established 18. He never expected his prophecy to be _____. A. accomplished B. fulfilled C. achieved D. realized 19. He is not under arrest, nor have the police placed any _____ on his movements. A. restriction B. obstacle C. veto D. regulation 20. Medieval travelers‟ tales of fantastic creatures were often fascinating but not always _____ . A. imaginable B. creditable C. credulous D. credible III. GRAMAR AND STRUCTURE (5 points) Choose the best option. 21. There has been a recommendation that Peter _____ the president of the country. A. will be elected B. was elected C. is elected D. be elected 22. Joe, I am inclined _____ Appiah‟s complicity in the big fraud. A. about believing B. to believe C. for believing D. in believing 23. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _____ employed to investigate the deep sea. A. can be robots B. robots can be C. can robots D. can robots that are 24. A trap _____ disguise is what has come to be called a Trojan Horse. A. offered a gift of B. offers a gift in C. offering a gift to D. offered as a gift in 25. _____ you the job, would you accept? A. Did they offer B. Were they offered C. Were they to offer D. If they had offered 26. I didn‟t see anyone but I felt as though 1 _____. A. have been watched B. was being watched C. being watched D. am watched 27. Precious metals, gems, and ivory have been used to make buttons, but most buttons are made of _____ wood, glass, or plastic. A. such materials that B. materials as such C. such materials as D. such materials. 28. The first building to employ steel skeleton construction, _____. A. Chicago, Illinois, the home of the Home Insurance Company Building completed in 1885.

B. The Home Insurance Company Building in Chicago, Illinois, was completed in 1885. C. Because the Home Insurance Company Building in Chicago, Illinois was completed in 1885. D. The Home Insurance Company Building in Chicago, Illinois, in 1885, 29. Not until _____ the article did I realize the truth about the cooperation. A. Had I read B. did I read C. me reading D. I had read 30. _____ invisible to the unaided eyes, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways. A. Although B. Despite C. Even though D. Although is IV. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (5 points) Choose the best option. 31. The tablets brought temporary respite _____ the excruciating pain. A. away B. from C. over D. out of 32. “Why are you shouting at her angrily?‟‟ “No, I‟m not. I‟m shouting _____ her so that she can see us. I used to shout her help but she ignored me.” A. out - for B. for - to C. to - for D. for - out 33. Get on up to the house and _____ those wet clothes or you will get cold. A. change back into B. change upon C. change over from D. change out of 34. She can‟t eat shellfish without _____, A. coming up with B. coming up against C. coming round to D. coming out in 35. Although the coach had not thought her a good tennis player at first, she _____ to be a championship. A. turned up B. turned out C. came out D. came around 36. Well, we did have a terrible row but we have _____ it up now. A. made B. cleaned C. sorted D. turned 37. I hear that the miniskirts are coming back into fashion. I wonder if they will really catch _____ again. A. up B. out C. on D. hold 38. The new production of Othello is very ambitious and extremely interesting, but somehow it doesn‟t quite ____ A. come off B. come out C. come through D. come round 39. The child hurt himself badly when he fell _____ the bedroom window. A. out from B. out of C. down D. over 40. If we do not take steps to protect the world‟s wild life, many species of birds and animals are likely to____. A. die away B. die down C. die from D. die out V. READING COMPREHENSION (10 points) Reading 1: Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the question below. (5 points) Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor”. These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides Scientists often refer to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano, for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour, in the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow water the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often comes with little warning and can therefore prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.

41. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____ . A. tidal waves B. tides C. underwater earthquakes D, storm surges 42. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____ . A. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves B. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides C. this terminology is not used by the scientific community D. they are the same as tsunamis 43. The word “displaced” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ . A. filtered B. moved C. not pleased D. located 44. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _____ . A. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean B. are often identified by ships on the ocean C. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters D. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean 45. As used in the passage, water that is “shallow” isn‟t _____ . A. deep B. tidal C. coastal D. clear 46. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to _ . A. originate in Alaska B. arrive without warning C. be less of a problem D. come from greater distances 47. The possessive “their” in the third paragraph refers to _____ . A. the Hawaiian islands B. the inhabitants of Hawaii C. these tsunamis D. thousands of miles 48. A “calamitous” tsunami in the last paragraph is one that is _____ . A. extremely calm B. at fault C. disastrous D. expected 49. From the expression “on record” in the last paragraph, it can be inferred the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano _____ . A. might not be the greatest tsunami ever B.occurred before efficient records were kept C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. was filmed as it was happening 50. The passage suggests that - the tsunami resulting from the Kr-volcano _____ . A. was far more destructive close to the source than far away B. resulted in little damage C. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel D. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands Reading 2: Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the question below. Situated in the central mountains of Alaska, a peak named Denali rises 20,320 feet above sea level. It is the highest peak in North America and the centre of Denali National park. One of America‟s greatest wilderness areas, the park has had limited access to visitors, but in spite of this, tourism rose from 6000 visitors in 1950 to over 546,000 visitors in 1990. The increasing popularity of this park is prompting serious discussions about the future use of Denali as well as how to preserve wilderness areas in general. One important issue of land use arises when parts of the National Parks are owned by individuals. In Denali, although most of the land in this vast tract of more than a million acres is owned by the National Park Service, several thousand acres are still privately owned as mining tracts. These mining tracts in Denali were once abundant sources of gold, but they also were sources of heavy metals such as arsenic and lead that polluted rivers and streams. Environmentalists were successful in getting the government to require mining companies to submit statements showing the potential impact of a mining project before they now are allowed to begin mining. Because of this requirement, many individuals closed their mines and some sold their land to the National Park Service. Some land owners, however, are wondering if it is better to sell their land to the government or keep it for possible future use. Tourism in this previously remote area is bound to rise, as more roads are built to provide easier access to the park. This increase in the number of visitors creates a demand for hotels and other real estate development. The economic implications of this are of interest to the land owners, but are dismaying to those interested in preserving the wilderness. 51. What is the primary focus of this passage? A. Controversies over land use in Denali. B. Miners selling their property in Denali. C. Alaska building more roads to Denali. D. Limiting tourist access to Denali. 52. The word “wilderness “ in line 3 could be best replaced by the word _____ . A. dangerous B. natural C. rural D. pastoral

53. As used in the first paragraph, which of the following is more similar to the word “preserve “? A. protect B. enclose C. investigate D. foster 54. The word arises “ in line 7 could be best replaced by _____ . A. surrenders B. occurs C. volunteers D. prospers 55. The word “tract in line 8 refers to which of the following? A. trail B. resort C. frontier D. expanse 56. What does the word they “ refer to? A. mining tracts B. gold C. millions of acres D. sources 57. According to the passage, which of the following are pollutants in the Denali area? A. gold B. pesticides C. human waste D. arsenic 58. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase “potential impact”? A. approximate cost B. expected value C. proposed size D. possible effects 59. The author infers that some mine owners might hesitate to sell their land to the Park Service for which the following reasons? A. There may be increasing demand for the ore of the mines. B. They might want to move to the towns. C. They might receive more money selling their land to developers. D. They might want to build a house on their property. 60. What is the author‟s purpose in writing this passage? A. To demonstrate the changes in Denali National Park. B. To use Denali as an example of common park issues. C. To introduce the wonders of the wilderness area of Denali. D. To explain the problems occurring in Denali Park. VI. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 points) 1. Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. As time passes, the power of newspapers seems to be on the (61) _____. This is odd because in the relatively recent past people were predicting that the influence of the written word would diminish in (62) _____ proportion to the rate of increase of the spoken word and moving image through TV and video, f he Internet, cable and satellite television, Teletext and multi-media computers in (63) _____ other home should surely have done for newspapers by now, particularly alongside a perceptible resurgence in the audiences for news-carrying radio stations. How have these organs survived, let alone (64) _____, particularly on a Sunday? Why do people who have seen a football or tennis (65) _____ live or on the small screen rush the next day to read a (66) _____ version of it in four or five columns which surely can not mean more to the reader than that self - same viewer of the previous afternoon or evening? Why would anyone who has seen a film and formed a (67) _____ impression of it the following day read a review of the self-same film in a newspaper? To see if she or he is right? Isn‟t that what friends are for? Don‟t we have colleagues for just that purpose- to see if our ideas on any (68) _____ song, film or program tally with others? What is this product that (69) _____ of not much more than outrageous headlines, wayward comments, subjective editorials and hyperbolic sports pages still doing in our lives? It seems for the time (70) _____ to be leading a charmed life. When it finally goes, though, many may come to mourn its passing. 61. A. build B. rise C. expansion D. increase 62. A. exact B. precise C. direct D. equal 63. A. all B. any C. one D. every 64. A. bloomed B. flowered C. flourished D rooted 65. A. game B. set C. meeting D. match 66. A. potted B. curtailed C. reduced D. cut 67. A. direct B. colored C. bright D. vivid 68. A. taken B. given C. subjected D. written 69. A. contains B. consists C. comprises D. informs 70. A. out B. given C. being D. present 2. The kitchen was quite dark because the blinds were drawn. There was a smell of stable cigarette smoke and some unwashed cups were (71) _____ neatly in the sink, but the room was clean. It was quite a big room. There was a (72) _____ dresser, painted dark brown, loaded with crockery, a flour jar, a bread bin. There was a larder you could walk into. Melanie experimentally walked into it and (73) _____ the door to on herself in a cool smell of cheese and mildew. What did they eat? Tins of things: they seemed particularly fond of tinned peaches; there was a whole pile of tins of peaches. Tinned beans, tinned sardines. Aunt

Margaret must buy tins in (74) _____. There were a number of cake tins and Melanie opened one and found last night‟s currant cake. She took a ready-cut (75) _____ of it and eat it. It made her feel more at (76) _____, already to steal something from the larder. She went back into the kitchen, (77) _____ crumbs. There was a long table of (78) _____ pine with a tablecloth (splashed with russet chrysanthemums, the sort of tablecloth you see through windows of other people‟s house as you walk by at teatime) (79) _____ back to cover crockery (80) _____ out ready for breakfast, perhaps to keep mice from dirtying the cups. 71. A. erected B. stacked C. ordered D. ranked 72. A. built-up B. cornered C. walled D. built-in 73. A. took B. pulled C. made D. put 74. A. lots B. gross C. mass D. bulk 75. A. slice B. rasher C. shaving D. remnant 76. A. comfort B. place C. home D. rest 77. A. sprinkling B. shedding C. sowing D. scattering 78. A. grazed B scraped C. bruised D. scrubbed 79. A folded B. bent C. opened D. tilted 80. A. sorted B. set C. done D. let B. WRITTEN TEST (70 points) I. OPEN CLOZE TEST (20 points) 1. Fill in each blank with one suitable word (10 points) I had no sooner sat down and opened the menu than she came in, smiling, slightly swaying, her arm outstretched. On catching sight of her, I realised that all the time I had been half-hoping for this, (1) _____ since I boarded the plane. And the (2) _____ she sat down, it was as if she had been expecting me, as if we had arranged to meet the night before. We had (3) _____ exchanged opening pleasantries when behind me I heard the waiter, with remarkable intuition; ask whether she should bring champagne. We began talking wildly, questioning and answering, laughing between smiles. (4) _____ I complimented her on her English, she pouted, (5) _____ nowhere near as fluent as it had been. It was not (6) _____ the first bottle of champagne had been emptied that the conversation drifted inexorably to the past and it was only (7) _____ that awkwardness and tentativeness crept in. (8) _____ time passed, an air of unreality seemed to descend upon the proceedings. By the (9) _____ we had finished our starters, our bursts of conversation had become shorter, less animated, and the pauses between them correspondingly longer. We finished the second bottle in resigned silence, at (10) _____ point her eyes were clearly filling up with tears. 2. Fill in each blank with one suitable word (10 points) Every weekend in Britain thousands of walkers head off into the countryside with necessary (11) _____ to enjoy their hiking. One thing they will not leave behind because it is considered an absolute (12) _____ is their Ordnance Survey Map. These maps are (13) _____ to the walkers as they are very (14) _____ with upto-date details about every part of the country. The Ordnance Survey (15) _____ in the eighteenth century and was (16) _____ intended to provide the army of the time with maps. Before this most maps were (17) _____ and unreliable. Better maps were thought to be important because the country felt (18) _____ by invasion from abroad or (19) _____ at home. The organisation is still wholly owned by the Government, but it was recently given (20) _____ fund status, which allows it to reinvest any profits. II. WORD FORMS (20 points) 1. Supply the correct forms of the words given (10 points) 21. Jane has succeeded in making herself _____ to Mr. Parker. She does everything for him. (DISPENSE) 22. Newspapers blamed the chaos after the flood on the _____ of the local officials. (ADMINISTER) 23. I cannot comment; I have been sworn to _____ on the matter. (SECRET) 24. The road is said to be _____ due to flood. (PASS) 25. I don‟t think Tom‟s been getting too much sleep lately. His eyes are terribly _____ (BLOOD) 26. David spoke _____ because he was so excited. (BREATHE) 27. There was a donation of $100,000 made by an anonymous _____. (BENEFIT) 28. You should make a list of all the jobs you have to do and _____ them. (PRIOR) 29. John would never _____ hurt his friends‟ feeling. (KNOW) 30. Young children are very _____ and shouldn‟t be allowed to watch violent movies. (IMPRESSION) 2. Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given in the box (10 points) extend ignore mechanism peculiar penetrate play present secure succeed trust SULTAN ABDUL HAMID II Sultan Abdul Hamid II was the last of the great rulers of the Ottoman house of Osman. As the immediate

(31) _____ to two sultans who had been deposed, he came to the throne a very nervous man. He considered (32) _____ at his palaces to be far too lax, and set about building a new (33) _____ palace from scratch. To this end, he secured the services of a dozen architects and commissioned each to build just one twelfth of the palace, working in complete (34) _____ of the progress of the other eleven. In effect, the Sultan built himself the world‟s most elaborate and (35) _____ prison. Every room was connected to a secret underground passage and many of the rooms were booby- trapped: at the flick of a switch, cupboards would fly open and (36) _____ controlled revolvers would fire. The Sultan employed thousands of spies and secret agents; the ones he considered most (37) _____ being the hundreds of caged parrots which were hung on street corners and trained to squawk if they saw a stranger. Another of his many (38) _____ was that he always carried a pearl- handled revolver. No-one dared put their hands in their pockets in his (39) _____ to do so would have been an invitation for him to take a pot shot. When one of his daughters once (40) _____ gave him a shove from behind, he spun round and shot her before realising who it was. III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 points) Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them RELAXATION True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping on in front of the television with a welcome drink. Also is it about drifting into an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and overtiredness may be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in spite of quality and effect. Regardless of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are in rest while our minds are awake. Moreover, it is so natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. Having relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, more than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in today competitive world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, feeling alone nurturing our body‟s abilities. That needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With this in mind we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes, however deep- seated. IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points) Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the one given. 1. All that stood between John and a gold medal was Jim‟s greater speed. - But for ______________________________________________________________ 2. If ever a student dared to ask a question, the professor would sigh wearily - In the _______________________________________________________________ 3. His efforts to find a solution didn‟t deserve such savage criticism. - He shouldn‟t __________________________________________________________ 4. The soldiers entered the castle while it was dark. - Under _______________________________________________________________ 5. They suddenly decided to go away for the weekend. - They decided on the ____________________________________________________ 6. The young actress was very nervous before the audition, (butterflies) - The young actress _____________________________________________________ 7. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed, (leaf) - You will _____________________________________________________________ 8. He is becoming quite famous as an entertainer, (name) - He is ________________________________________________________________ 9. There was loud applause as he left the stage (accompaniment) - He left_______________________________________________________________ 10. Harry was close to winning the big race, (ace) - Harry was ____________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 7 Câu hỏi 1: (5 điểm) A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. PHONOLOGY Identify the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the other words in the group. 1. A. precession B. across C. associate D. possibly 2. A. competitive B. controversial C. promote D. commercial 3. A. raspberries B. spaciousness C. aspersed D. waspishly 4. A. hallucinate B. industrialist C. utterance D. tuxedoed 5. A. masseur B. attorney C. pearl D. heifer Identify the word w hose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. 6. A. conscientiously B. communication C. connectivity D. multimedia 7. A. facsimile B. influenza C. caress D. petroleum 8. A. mutagenesis B. mathematician C. immobility D. xylophonic 9. A. amicable B. agreeable C. admirable D. arguable 10. A. atheism B. abbey C. convey D. alley Câu hỏi 2: (5 điểm) II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES, Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences: 1. Sermons are generally delivered by _____ A. a mailman B. a minister or priest C. parents D. politicians 2. “Did Stacey ever complete her project?” “She‟s almost finished. She‟s just had a few minor problems to _____ out.” A. solve B. iron C. look D. come 3. Our company was _____ for twenty thousand pounds by a rival on the grounds of an alleged duplicating of their produce. A. sued B. sentenced C. accused D. tried 4. The construction of mammoth shopping malls has contributed to the decline of small stores in neighboring towns. A. modern B. gigantic C. numerous D. separate 5. An experiment can be marred by poor planning. A. qualified B. disclosed C. delayed D. spoiled 6. Before the end of the course you will be given a _____ exam to prepare you for the real thing. A. fake B. mock C. false D. trial 7. My English is progressing by _____ A. leaps and bounds B. bounds and leaps C. odds and ends D. ends and odds 8. Do you know anything about the museums in this city? No, but this _____ has all that information. A. brochure B. checkbook C. friend D. copy-book 9. Rachel: “May I use your phone?” Amy: “By all means,” Amy‟s answer to Rachel‟s question is closest in meaning to. A. In any way possible. B. Certainly not. C. Yes, certainly. D. Calls can be paid for in different ways. 10. During the Second World War, all important resources in the United States were allocated by the federal government. A. nationalized B. commandeered C. taxed D. distributed Câu hỏi 3: (5 điểm) Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences: 1. The salary of a bus driver is much higher _____ A. in comparison with the salary of a teacher B. than a teacher C. than that of a teacher D. to compare as a teacher 2. _____ Canada has never developed a national press is most likely due to regional differences of outlook and interests A. Because of B. Although C. It is D. That 3. A trap _____ disguise is what has come to be called a Trojan Horse. A. offered a gift of B. offers a gift in C. offering a gift to D. offered as a gift in 4. The people at the party were worried about Janet because no one was aware _____ she had gone.

A. where that B. of the place where C. of where D. the place 5. In this country, a growing concern about the possible hazardous effects of chemical wastes _____ A. have resulted in a bunch of new laws B. has resulted in several new laws C. is causing the results of numerous new laws D. result in new law 6. There were two small rooms in the beach house, _____ served as a kitchen. A. the smaller of which B. the smaller of them C. the smallest of which D. smallest of that 7. The teacher suggested that her students _____ experiences with ESP. A. write a composition on their B. to write composition about the C. wrote some compositions of his or her D. had written any compositions for his 8 _____ he began to make friends more easily. A. Having entered school in the new city, it was found that B. After entering the new school. C. When he had been entering the new school D. Upon entering into the new school, 9. He gave _____ A. to the class a tough assignment B. the class a tough assignment C. a tough assignment for the class D. an assignment very tough to the class. 10. The cyclist _____ he crossed the main street. A. looked with caution after B. had looked cautiously before C. was looked cautions when D. looks cautious when Câu hỏi 4: (5 điểm) Choose the correct prepositions and phrasal verbs to complete these sentences. 1. George really goes in _____ tennis. It‟s his favorite sport. A. for B. with C. to D. into 2. That coat is quite wet, hold it _____ the fire for a few minutes. A. to B. into C. in D. towards 3. Don‟t judge a man _____ his clothes. A. of B. by C. with D. at 4. His salary was commensurate _____ his abilities. A at B on C with D about 5. In the hotel lobby the detective caught _____ of the man who had been hired to follow. A. glance B. view C. vision D. sight 6. The taxi had to _____ because the traffic lights had turned red. A. set up B. catch up C. cut up D. pull up 7. Being quick on the _____, the students made rapid progress. A. intake B. take-off C. uptake D. takeover 8. This maid will _____ your needs. A. see to B. stand up to C. put up with D. break off 9. We intend to _____ with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one. A. do up B. do away C. do down D. do in 10. Could you _____ a list of all the things that need to be done? A. go beyond B. put out C. make up D. come through Câu hỏi 5: (10 điểm) READING COMPREHENSION: Reading 1: Read the following passage and complete the statements that follow by circling A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer which you think fits best. Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned vehicles, along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and computer equipment, have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment for scientists doing research on the great oceans of the world. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish, and their mental concentration was severely limited. Because undersea pressure affects their speech organs, communication among divers has always been difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers avoid the use of vulnerable human divers, preferring to reduce the risk to human life and make direct observations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples take from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor can be made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines in the water and even by the technology of sophisticated aerial photography from vantage points above the surface of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in

order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories via satellite. Particularly important for ocean study are data about water temperature, currents, and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the temperature and the color of the ocean‟s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents from laboratories on dry land. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect, organize, and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean‟s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the patterns and possible effects of the ocean on the environment. Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more effectively. Some of humankind‟s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology. 1. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned? A. Communication among drivers B. Technological advances in oceanography C. Direct observation of the ocean floor D. Undersea vehicles 2. The word “sluggish “ is closest in meaning to _____ A. nervous B. confused C. slow moving D. very weak 3. Drives have had problems in communicating underwater because _____ A. the pressure affected their speech organs B. the vehicles they used have not been perfected C. they did not pronounce clearly D. the water destroyed their speech organs 4. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon _____ A. the limitations of diving equipment B. radios that divers use to communicate C. controlling currents and the weather D. vehicles as well as divers 5. Undersea vehicles _____ A. are too small for a man to fit inside B. are very slow to respond C. have the same limitations that divers have D. make direct observations of the ocean floor 6. The word “cruise” could best be replaced by _____ A. travel at a constant speed B. function without problems C. stay in communication D. remain still 7. How is a radio-equipped buoy operated? A. By operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater B. By operators outside the vehicle on a ship C. By operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform D. By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore 8. The word information “ is closest in meaning to _____ A. data B. articles C. samples D. photographs 9. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs? A. The temperature of the ocean‟s surface B. Cloud formations over the ocean C. A model of the ocean‟s movements D. The location of sea ice 10. The words those refers to _____ A. ships B. vehicles C. problems D. computers Reading 2: Read the following passage and complete the statements that follow by circling A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer which you think fits best. BRINGING UP CHILDREN Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible- for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics. The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very important element in up bringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child‟s acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at

any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself. Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples. Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe overtimes of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child‟s own happiness and well - being. With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that “example is better than precept If they are hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents „ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion. 1. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children _____ A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences 2. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught _____ A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children 3. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills _____ A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate 4. Parental controls and discipline _____ A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child‟s happiness C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible 5. The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” _____ A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise 6. In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the _____ in helping the child in trouble, A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery 7. The phrase „conforming to‟ in the 2nd paragraph means _____ A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following 8. The word „zest‟ in the 2nd paragraph can be best replaced by _____ A. appetite B. excitement C. enthusiasm D. enjoyment 9. The word „imposed‟ in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ A. excepted B. introduced C. made D. constrained 10. Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may _____ A. result in their children‟s wrong behaviour B. make their children lose faith in them C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children‟s mind Câu hỏi 6: (10 điểm) GUIDED CLOZE : Passage 1: Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. The traditional definition of literacy is considered to be the ability to read and write, or the ability to use language to read, write, listen, and speak. In modem contexts, the word refers to reading and writing at a level (1) _____ for communication, or at a level that lets one understand and communicate ideas in a literate society, so as to take (2) _____ in that society. The United Nations, Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has drafted the following definition: “Literacy is the ability to identify, understand,

interpret, create, communicate and compute, using printed and written materials (3) _____ with varying contexts. Literacy involves a continuum of learning to enable an individual to achieve his or her goals, to develop his, or her (4) _____ and potential, and to participate fully in the wider society.” Many policy analysts consider literacy rates a crucial measure of a region‟s human capital. This claim is made on the (5) _____ that literate people can be trained less expensively than illiterate people, generally have a higher socio-economic (6) _____ and enjoy better health and employment prospects. Policy makers also argue that literacy increases job opportunities and access to higher education. In Kerala, India, for example, female and child mortality rates declined (7) _____ in the 1960s, when girls who were educated in the education reforms after 1948 began to raise families. Recent researchers, (8) _____ argue that correlations such as, the one listed above may have more to do with the effects of schooling rather than literacy in general. Regardless, the (9) _____ of educational systems worldwide includes a basic (10) _____ around communication through test and print, which is the foundation of most definitions of literacy. 1. A. important B. adequate C. adaptable D. suitable 2. A. control B. comfort C. part D. honor 3. A. associated B. worked C. appropriated D. related 4. A. ability B. knowledge C. behavior D. performance 5. A. basics B. ways C. foundations D. grounds 6. A. status B. request C. condition D. state 7. A. actually B. dramatically C. extremely D. accurately 8. A. therefore B. however C. consequently D. additionally 9. A. main B. majority C. focus D. demand 10. A. concept B. content C. contact D. context Passage 2: Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. BOOKS BEFORE SCHOOL? Many people believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are scarcely more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be (1) _____ if she isn‟t ready. Wise parents will have a (2) _____ attitude and take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of (3) _____ books and other activities. Nowadays, there is plenty good (4) _____ available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also encourage them to read. Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range of videos, which can (5) _____ and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are equally valuable in helping to increase vocabulary and concentration: Television gets a bad (6) _____ as far as children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programs not intended for their age group. Too many television programs attract an incurious, uncritical attitude that is going to make learning more difficult. However, (7) _____ viewing of programs designed for young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book after seeing it (8) _____ oh television, so children will pounce on books which (9) _____ their favorite television characters , and videos can add a new (10) _____ to a story known from a book. 1: A. unuseful B. unproductive C. counter-productive D. useful 2: A. cheerful B. contented C. relaxed D. hopeful 3: A. bright B. thrilling C. energetic D. stimulating 4: A. material B. sense C. produce D. amusement 5: A. uphold B. found C. assist D. reinforce 6: A. review B. press C. criticism D. result 7: A. cautious B. choice C. discriminating D. approved 8: A. serialized B. revised C. transferred D. visualized 9: A. illustrate B. extend C. possess D. feature 10: A. revival B. dimension C. option D. existence B. WRITTEN TEST Câu hỏi 7: (20 điểm) I. OPEN CLOZE TEST Passage 1: Fill each of the blank spaces with one suitable word to finish the passage. One of the main problems facing the environmental movement is that it may become a victim of its own success. It is now generally accepted that issues such as global warning need to be (1) _____ with seriously, and that the Scandinavian forests are being destroyed (2) _____ to the effects of (3) _____ rain. Views (4)

_____ these have now become an accepted part of the political scene, and consumers are constantly bombarded with green or (5) _____ friendly products. However, this does not mean that environmental groups can now afford to relax. On the (6) _____, the green movement must consider how the momentum will (7) _____ sustained when the current enthusiasm has (8) _____.The environment must not be (9) _____ to fade from people‟s minds, because the progress of ecological collapse has already been (10) _____ in train, and so far very little has been done to reverse it. Passage 2: Fill each of the blank spaces with one suitable word to finish the passage. When a child learns to read and write, he must access the schema developed in his (1) _____. As he reads, the child creates pictures in his mind and uses (2) _____ and points of reference to put the story together. Television images do not go (3) _____ a complex symbolic transformation. The mind does not have to decode and manipulate during the television experience. Watching television and playing video games do not (4) _____ a child‟s skills in word recognition, decoding, vocabulary, spelling or high - level thinking. The connection between television‟s effects (5) _____ children‟s reading abilities and the decline in their writing skills, is clear: there, is no-question in the minds of educators that a student who cannot read with the true comprehension will never learn to write well. Writing, after (6) _____, is book talk, and you only learn book talk by reading. It has been shown that reading stimulates brain activity. While reading, we (7) _____ settings, characters and we become part of the world of the story. (8) _____, it has been shown that watching television prevents brain activity. Children who watch too much television are (9) _____ socially developed and have problems maintaining concentration . Reading, (10) _____ of watching television, enriches our lives, develops the imagination, and intellect, and is less brain deadening. Reading is good for us, it makes one a better person. Câu hỏi 8: (20 điểm) II. WORD FORMS Supply the correct form of the words in brackets, 1. When a currency is _____, it is worthless internationally. (VALUE) 2. Many young musicians find it hard to cope with the demands of _____ (STAR) 3. We _____ go to the pub before lunch on Sunday. (VARY) 4. I apologize for the delay in sending your order but we are _____ at present. (STAFF) 5. Leisure habits won‟t change much in the _____ future. (SEE) 6. They won the case because of the _____ in course of the defendant. (APPEAR) 7. The pie looked very good, but it wasn‟t very easily _____. (DIGEST) 8. I am _____ to you for all the help you have given me. (DEBT) 9. The local TV company was stopping _____ to ask their opinion about the new shopping center. (PASS) 10. I wasn‟t paying attention and _____ I threw the receipt in the dustbin. (THINK) Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the brackets. OBSESSED WITH YOUR INBOX? It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face interaction and with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has (1. GO) _____ a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. Email, while (2.DOUBT) _____ a swift means of communication providing your server is fully (3. FUNCTION) _____ and that the address you have contains no (4. ACCURATE) _____ has had a (5. SIGNIFY) _____ effect on certain people‟s behaviour, both at home and in business. For these people, the use of email has become (6. RESIST) _____ addictive to the extent that it is (7. THREAT) _____ their mental and physical health. Addicts spend their day (8. COMPULSION) _____ checking for email and have a (9. TEND) _____ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and receiving messages the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative effect on (10. PRODUCE) _____ is something employers are well aware of. Câu hỏi 9: (10 điểm) III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them: Hardly a day goes by without a fresh demonstration of the ignorance of America‟s first video generation. Illiteracy is growing, and a new poll shows what a quarter of university students have no idea when Columbus reached America, leading pessimistic academics to prophesy a new barbarism. Some institutions, at least, have from now been presumed to be above the decay. It was imagined, for example, that they were still reading books in the English faculty at Harvard. But that illusion, too, has been shattered by Professor Sven Birkerts, aging 38, who teaches Creative Writing to undergraduates there. “Mostly none of my students reads independently”, he says in a powerful lament that has just been published by Harvard Magazine. Every year, he says, he conducts the survey among his students, and the responses are heartbroken.

The Harvard undergraduates, who have enrolled to study the arts of expository writing under Professor Birkerts are, to put it not higher, reluctant readers. “The printed page taxes and wearies them. They find few pleasure there. What hope does a teacher have for getting them to write? Initially, I confess, I always despair. I read through their first papers, so neatly word-processed... but my heart sinks”, he writes, adding: The writing is almost always flatting, monotonous prose. Câu hỏi 10: (20 điểm) IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION : Write a new sentence using the word in brackets or beginning as directed so that it has the same meaning as the given one. 1. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice. → We wouldn‟t __________________________________________________________ 2. The inhabitants were far worse-off twenty years ago than they are now. → The inhabitants are nowhere ______________________________________________ 3. When I noticed it was a formal dress, it was too late. → Not__________________________________________________________________ 4. I need someone to take my place at the ceremony. IN → I need________________________________________________________________ 5. Mass tourism has been one of the causes of the problem. BLAME → Mass tourism __________________________________________________________ 6. Jane was coming this evening but she has apparently changed her mind. → Jane seems ____________________________________________________________ 7. You might be dismissed if you failed to observe the company‟s dress code. RESULT → Failure to _____ your dismissal. 8. The fact that he will never race again is something he cannot accept. TERMS → He cannot _____ again. 9. The regiment‟s reputation was greatly damaged by his outrageous conduct. HARM → His __________________________________________________________________ 10. Going to and fro with all the cases is what I can‟t stand about holidays. TOING → It‟s all ________________________________________________ about holidays. ___ THE END___ PRACTICE TEST 8 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE I. PHONOLOGY (5MS) * Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three. 1. A. occasion B. conclusion C. confusion D. dimension 2. A. layer B. prayer C. betrayer D. sprayer 3. A. broccoli B. prophesy C. alumni D. bind 4. A. fascism B. fascination C. horse D. incandescent 5. A. supposedly B. allegedly C. confusedly D. wickedly * Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. 6. A. popularity B. beneficial C. continental D. preparatory 7. A. influence B. newspaper C. prejudice D. locality 8. A. amateurish B. bureaucracy C. amplifier D. humanism 9. A. proficiency B. mortality C. expectancy D. ceremony 10. A. panorama B. patriotic C. voluntarily D. masquerade II. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (15 MS) Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. 1. The police are _____ the town for the missing vehicle. A. seeking B. looking C. investigating D. combing 2. According to Burgess, a novelist should not _____, for sermonizing has no place in good fiction. A. offen B. preach C. distort D. invent 3. He was blinded by the _____ of the approaching car‟s headlights. A. gleam B. glare C. glow D. flare 4. It won‟t _____ matter if you arrive a few minutes late. A. considerably B. largely C. greatly D. grandly 5. Old Mr. Brown‟s condition looks very serious and it is doubtful if he will _____.

A. pull through B. pull up C. pull back D. pull out 6. A judgment made before all the facts are known must be called _____. A. deliberate B. harsh C. premature D. sensible 7. - “Was that the new schoolmaster who walked by?” - “_____” A. It must be that B. It must have been C. He must be D. This must have been 8. Don‟t throw that away - it might _____. A. come into use B. come into handy C. come in use D. come in handy 9. It is _____ who _____ wrong. A. me / am B. me / is C. I / am D. I / is 10. - “It is raining outside.” - “_____” A. So is it. B. So it is. C. So it does. D. Is it so? 11. My father hates television and is always _____ the disappearance of the art of conversation. A. grieving B. moaning C. complaining D. lamenting 12. At the moment the ruling party is on the _____ of a dilemma. A. hooves B. points C. top D. horns 13. The magistrate _____ his disapproval of the young man‟s behaviour. A. voiced B. said C. told D. spoke 14. The audience watched as the story _____ before their eyes. A. uncovered B. unfolded C. unwrapped D. undid 15. In any transport system, the safety of passengers should be _____. A. paramount B. eminent C. chief D. prime 16. The jury _____ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject. A. paid B. gave C. made D. said 17. We couldn‟t stay long, so we only wished Mark many happy __ for his birthday and hurried to the airport. A. days B. returns C. moments D. regards 18. Ever since we quarrelled in the office, Janice and I have been _____ enemies. A. assured B. confirmed C. defined D. guaranteed 19. Karen was terribly nervous before the interview but she managed to pull herself _____ and act confidently. A. through B. over C. together D. off 20. To be a good short story writer one needs, among other things, a very _____ imagination. A. vivid B. living C. bright D, sparkling 21. When he realized the police had spotted him, the man _____ the exit as quickly as possible. A. made off B. made out C. made for D. made up 22. Check the apparatus carefully to make sure it has not been _____. A. broken into B. tempered with C. touched up D. taken out 23. The research is so _____ that it leaves no part of the issue unexamined. A. sporadic B. economical C. problematical D. comprehensive 24. The senator chose to incur dislike rather than _____ her principles to win favor with the public. A. compromise B. gratify C. endorse D. advertise 25. Because he felt intimidated in his new position, he was ______ divulging his frank opinions of company proposals. A. candid in B. scurrilous about C. chary of D. fervid about 26. The union and the management are _____ dispute over working conditions. A. in B. on C. for D. under 27. Have you all agreed _____ the amount of money spent on the anniversary? A. on B. in C. to D. for 28. They said that the blue cheese was very tasty, but the smell put me _____. A. of B. in C. to D. off 29. Once you have started something, you ought to see it _____ to the end. A. through B. in C. to D. for 30. I‟ve had some bad luck lately, but things are beginning to look _____ I‟m glad to say. A. on B. upon C. to D. up HI. READING COMPREHENSION (10MS) READING 1 Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. The Amazonian wilderness harbors the greatest number species on this planet and is an irreplaceable

resource for present and future generations. Amazonia is crucial for maintaining global climate and genetic resources, and its forest and rivers provide vital sources of food, building materials, pharmaceuticals, and water needed by wildlife and humanity. The Los Amigos watershed in the state of Madre de Dios, southeastern Peru, is representative of the pristine lowland moist forest once found throughout most of upper Amazonian South America. Threats to tropical forests occur in the form of Fishing, hunting, gold mining, timber extraction, impending road construction, and slash – and - burn agriculture. The Los Amigos watershed, consisting of 1.6 million hectares (3.95 million acres), still offers the increasingly scarce opportunity to study rainforest as it was before the disruptive encroachment of modern human civilization. Because of its relatively pristine condition and the immediate need to justify it as a conservation zone, this area deserves intensive, long-term projects aimed at botanical training, ecotourism, biological inventory, and information synthesis. On July 24, 2001, the government of Peru and the Amazon Conservation Association signed a contractual agreement creating the first long-term permanently renewable conservation concession. To our knowledge this is the first such agreement to be implemented in the world. The conservation concession protects 340,000 acres of old-growth Amazonian forest in the Los Amigos watershed, which is located in southeastern Peru. This watershed protects the eastern flank of Manu National Park and is part of the lowland forest corridor that links it to Bahuaja-Sonene National Park. The Los Amigos conservation concession will serve as a mechanism for the development of a regional center of excellence in natural forest management and biodiversity science. Several major projects are being implemented at the Los Amigos Conservation Area. Louise Emmons is initiating studies of mammal diversity and ecology in the Los Amigos area. Other projects involve studies of the diversity of arthropods, amphibians, reptiles and birds. Robin Foster has conducted botanical studies at Los Amigos, resulting in the labeling of hundreds of plant species along two kilometers of trail in upland and lowland forest. Michael Goulding is leading a fisheries and aquatic ecology program, which aims to document the diversity of fish, their ecologies, and their habitats in the Los Amigos area and the Madre de Dios watershed in general. With support from the Amazon Conservation Association, and in collaboration with U.S. and Peruvian colleagues, the Botany of the Los Amigos project has been initiated. At Los Amigos, we are attempting to develop a system of preservation, sustainability, and scientific research; a marriage between various disciplines, from human ecology to economic botany, product marketing to forest management. The complexity of the ecosystem will best be understood through a multidisciplinary approach, and improved understanding of the complexity will lead to better management. The future of these forests will depend on sustainable management and development of alternative practices and products that do not require irreversible destruction. The botanical project will provide a foundation of information that is essential to other programs at Los Amigos. By combining botanical studies with fisheries and mammology, we will-better understand plant/animal interactions. By providing names, the botanical program will facilitate accurate communication about plants and the animals that use them Included in this scenario are humans, as we will dedicate time to people-plant interactions in order to learn what plants are used by people in the Los Amigos area, and what plants could potentially be used by people. To be informed, we must develop knowledge. To develop knowledge, we must collect, organize, and disseminate information, in this sense, botanical information has conservation value. Before we can use plant-based products from the forest, we must know what species are useful and we must know their names. We must be able to identify them, to know where they occur in the forest, how many of them exist, how they are pollinated and when they produce fruit (or other useful products). Aside from understanding the species as they occur locally at Los Amigos, we must have information about their overall distribution in tropical America in order to better understand and manage the distribution, variation, and viability of their genetic diversity. This involves a more complete understanding of the species through studies in the field and herbarium. (Written by John Janovec, an ecologist who has worked in the Los Amigos watershed in Peru) 1. The phrase “genetic resources” refers to A. plant seeds. B. different races of people. C. diverse species of plants and animals. D. cells that can be used in genetic cures for diseases. 2. In paragraph 2, the author emphasizes that the current environmental condition of Amazonian South America is A. mostly unscathed. B. restorable through his project. C. irredeemable everywhere but in the Los Amigos watershed.

D. varying from destroyed to virtually pristine. 3. The word “concession” could be replaced, without changing the meaning, with A. grant. B. acknowledgement. C. apology. D. compromise. 4. The author implies in paragraph 3 that the agreement between Peru and the Amazon Conservation Association is history primarily because it A. was the first long-term agreement regarding land in the Amazon Rainforest. B. represented the first time a South American government had agreed to renew a conservation agreement. C. is essentially a permanent conservation agreement. D. represents the first time such an agreement had been made in the form of a renewable contract. 5. The author‟s main purpose in the passage is to A. demonstrate that conservation efforts have been historically successful and so should be continued. B. gamer support for opposition to destructive activities in the Los Amigos watershed. C. position the Los Amigos watershed agreement as a success towards the achievement of the vital goal of conserving the Amazonian rainforests. D. argue that the study of pristine rainforests is essential for documenting and studying the myriad new species that the forests contain. 6. The author‟s tone in the passage can best be described as A. advocacy for his project over other competing projects. B. general praise for conservation projects in Amazonian South America. C. passionate support for his and related projects. D. zealous advocacy for his point of view. 7. The work of Louise Emmons, Robin Foster, and Michael Goulding (in the fourth paragraph) are employed in the passage as A. colleagues of the author‟s in his botanical project. B. examples of the kinds of activities the author and his colleagues are trying to halt. C. scientists who represent new trends of study in Amazonian botany. D. scientists involved in projects related and amenable to the author‟s. 8. The author‟s botanical project involves all of the following EXCEPT A. studying plants in a laboratory. B. studying how plants are used by humans and animals. C. facilitating pharmaceutical use of plants. D. labeling plants in the Los Amigos area. 9. When the author says that the botanical project will “provide names,” (lines 45) he means that the project will A. help recognize new species. B. aid in the standardization of names for new species. C. participate in naming the region‟s different zones. D. clarify the confusion surrounding the names of different organizations working in Amazonia. 10. When the author says that, “botanical information has conservation value, “ (line 51-52) he means that A. a robust understanding of conservationism is aided by botanical information. B. conservationists should strive to preserve botanical information. C. speciation is important for conservation. D. political discussions about conservation should use botanical nomenclature. READING 2 Read the following passage and fill each blank with a suitable phrase or sentence from the list below. POTTERY Pottery is the name given to all kinds of pots and utensils made from clay and other minerals when they have been „fired‟, that is, (1) _____. Articles made of pottery include plates, cups and saucers, cooking dishes, wall and floor tiles, chemical storage jars, bathroom fittings, filters, drain pipes, electrical insulators and ornaments for the home. Pottery is one of the oldest crafts, (2) _____, and long before the melting of metals. It enabled him from very early times to make vessels for storing and cooking food, for carrying water, and for ritual burial purposes. Early vessels were shaped by hand and probably „fired‟ in a big bonfire by covering them over with dried grass and dead branches, (3) _____. A great advance in pottery followed the invention of the potter‟s wheel and the kiln. It is not certainly known where the potter‟s wheel was first used, but it is thought that by about 3500 B.C. potters in Central Asia were using some kind of wheel. From there its use spread west and east to Egypt, Crete, China - (4)

_____. At first the wheel was nothing more than a small disc, turned on a pivot by hand, (5) _____ and providing it with a larger circular platform near the ground as well which could be rotated by the potter with his feet. Such a wheel was probably in use in Egypt by about 200 B.C., though this is only conjecture; but it was certainly still in use in Europe at the beginning of the nineteenth century. In the eighteenth century, (6) _____ or turned by an assistant. Modern potters‟ wheels are power driven. There are three principal ways articles may be made of pottery. They may be simply shaped by hand. They may be thrown on the potter‟s wheel (7) _____. Thirdly, the wet clay may be put in a pre-shaped „form‟ of plaster-of-Paris. After the pots have been made, they are slowly baked in the kiln. This produces chemical changes in the clay (8) _____. The time taken for firing pottery varies with the size of the kiln and the type of clay. It can take anything from 24 hours to as long as 2 weeks. If pottery is to hold water, (9) _____, since clay is porous by nature. Glaze consists of the raw materials of glass, ground together and mixed with water to a creamy consistency. The glaze is sprayed on to the pot which is then heated in the kiln again until it is, in effect, (10) _____. This seals the pores in the clay and gives us the versatile table and oven dishes we know so well today. The list of phrases and sentences A. which were then set alight B. covered with a very thin layer of glass C. which have a hardening effect D. and then to Ancient Greece and Rome E. however, the potter‟s wheel was improved so that it could be worked by a treadle F. and shaped against the spin with the fingers or some scraping tool G. it must be „glazed‟ H. but later it was improved by raising it I. hardened by heat in the potter‟s kiln J. which began to be practised as soon as man learned to control fire II. WORD FORMS 1. Give the correct form of words in brackets. (10 MS) 1. His family had to suffer from his _____ (EXPEND) 2. Have you read the latest _____ about Madonna‟s private life? (REVEAL) 3. He was _____ when he touched the bare wires. (ELECTRIC) 4. Salt is a _____ for fish and meat. (PRESERVE) 5. Frogs, _____ species, can live both on land and in water. (AMPHIBIAN) 6. Good _____ is partly about getting on well with the customers. (SELL) 7. Unemployment may be a(n) _____ cause of the rising crime rate. (LIE) 8. Does she have any _____ experience? (MANAGE) 9. She was appointed to a(n) _____ in Economics at Princeton. (PROFESSOR) 10. This school was once _____ as a military hospital during the war. (REQUIRE) 2. Complete the passage using the appropriate forms of the words in brackets. (10 MS) INSPIRE PAY MONUMENT FORESEE MAXIMUM ABLE AMATEUR ILLUSION LIVE HOTEL THE PROFESSIONAL TOURIST Travel and tourism are addictive and their impact on our lives is truly (1) _____. Despite the fact that mass tourism set out as a simple hut harmless way of (2) _____ people to see the world and broaden their horizons, our desire to (3) _____ every travelling opportunity that presents itself has had a wholly (4) _____ impact on our attitudes towards life in general and on the world we live in. In no way could this impact have been accurately predicted, even 30 years ago. No matter how (5) _____ our miserable destination may be, or how (6) _____ we are by the vagaries of transport systems; no matter what trouble our (7) _____ of debts due to over-ambitious holiday spending may lead us into, there is nothing (8) _____ about our desire to make our fantasies realities. Millions of people like (9) _____ and property owners depend on the tourist industry for their (10) _____. A decrease in the popularity of tourism would be nothing short of disastrous. HI. ERROR CORRECTION The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underlined the mistakes and correct them. (10 MS) The word processor and calculator are without doubt here to stay, and in many respects of our lives are much richer for them. But teachers and other academics are claiming that we are now starting to feel the first significant wave of their effects on a generation for users. It seems nobody under the age of 20 can spell nor add up any more. Even several professors at leading university have commented about the detrimental effect the digital revolution has had at the most intelligent young minds in the country. The problem, evidently, lies

with the automatically spell-check now widely available on word processing software. Professor John Silver of the Sydney University, Australia, said, “Why should we bother to learn how to spell correctly or to learn even if the most basic of mathematical sums, when at the press of a button we have our problem answering for us? The implications are enormous. Will adults of the future look on the computer to make decisions for them, to tell them who to marry or what house to buy? Are we heading for a future individually incapable of independent human thought?” IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION For each of the following sentences, use the word given to write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original one. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words including the word given. (20 MS) 1. Her primus stove ceased to function on the last day. GASP → Her primus stove _____ on the last day. 2. The tourists were unharmed after the train crash. WORSE → The tourists _____ their experience in the train crash. 3. You should always he grateful for what you are given. HORSE → You should _____ the mouth. 4. Besides mapping the mountain ranges, there were many other reasons for the expedition. MORE → There _____ simply mapping the mountain ranges 5. In the end they left me to settle up with the restaurant. FOOT → In the end I _____ the restaurant hill. 6. The effects of the gale were felt mainly along the south coast. BRIJNT → The south coast _____ the gale. 7. As a result of bad weather, there may be delay to some international flights. SUBJECT → Due to the bad weather _____ possible delay. 8. The film was so controversial that it was baned in several parts of the world. CAUSED → Such _____________________ 9. It is highly likely that the house will be pulled down. LIKELIHOOD → There ____________________ 10. In summer, the volume of traffic creates problems for local traders. DIFFICULT → The volume of traffic ________________________ about their work. ___ THE END___ PRACTICE TEST 9 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: I. PHONOLOGY (10 pts) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others, 1. A. who B. who‟ll C. whoop D. whoopee 2. A. journal B. mournful C. infernal D. colonel 3. A. said B. paid C. wait D. main 4. A. meninges B. menial C. menagerie D. mechanic 5. A. rumour B. favour C. flour D. humour Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. 1. A. obligatory B. miscellaneous C. Australia D. extraordinary 2. A. emphatically B. headmaster C. reiterate D. strangulated 3. A. reservoir B. orator C. acropolis D. protestant 4. A. intercollegiate B. international C. influential D. incompact 5. A. integral B. equanimity C. derestrict D. ascertain II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE (20pts) Choose the option that best completes the blank. 1. Close your eyes and try to _____ up a picture of a place where you feel at peace. A. store B. eat C. stick D. conjure 2. Please don‟t talk about that day - I want to _____ it all behind me. A. put B. stir C. block D. summon 3. I was sitting in a train looking out of the window when my mind suddenly _____ back to that amazing trip we made to India. A. put B. flashed C. stirred D. associated 4. Dave has an excellent memory - he can _____ up precise details of things that happened when he was a small child.

A. come B. flood C. flash D. call 5. Roberto should try not to let his regrets for what he has done _____ away at him. A. come B. eat C. stick D. flood 6. I‟m in a real _____ and I just don‟t know what to do. A. query B. paradox C. dilemma D. hunch 7. I _____ it‟s going to snow tonight, don‟t you? A. reckon B. speculate C. reflect D. ponder 8. _____ getting a pet tarantula? A. Does Claire really think of B. Is Claire really thinking of C. Has Claire really thought that D. Has Claire really been thinking that 9. _____ Eliot better tell his mother what happened? A. Mustn‟t B. Shouldn‟t C. Oughtn‟t D. Hadn‟t 10. Please don‟t _____ when you‟re talking to me. Open your mouth when you talk! A. murmur B. mumble C. stumble D. stutter 11. I am gripped with a fever whenever a new year is coming. A. I have got a temperature B. I feel disappointed C. I am excited D. I get upset 12. My teacher _____ for my good marks in the Math test. A. promised me the moon B. coincided with me C. gave me a pat on the back D. showed no sign of remorse 13. He couldn‟t _____ his father that he was telling the truth. A. convince B. confide C. admit D. trust 14. The department is also deeply _____ in various improvement schemes. A. connected B. entailed C. implied D. involved 15. Job specialization takes place _____ of production is separated into occupations. A. whenever the work is B. is when the work C. whenever working D. when the work 16. The bishop preached a farewell sermon to a(n) _____ that filled the church to overflowing. A. crowd B. congregation C. audience D. procession 17. She‟s objecting to _____ my money on the project. A. me invest B. my investing C. I invest D. me invested 18. They go to the seaside _____ they should be disturbed by the noises of the city. A. in order that B. so that C. for D. lest 19. Advertisers are often aim their campaigns at young people as they have considerable spending _____. A. power B. force C. energy D. ability 20. _____ so incredible is that these insects successfully migrate to places they have never seen. A. That makes the monarch butterflies migration B. The migration of the monarch butterflies is C. What makes the monarch butterflies migration D. The migration of the monarch butterflies, which is III. READING COMPREHENSION READING 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D (9pts) SMART ENERGY The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used. In some major oil producing nations, “peak oil” has already been reached, and there are increasing fears of global warming. Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy. This transition will lead to major changes in the supply and use of electricity. [A] Firstly, there will be an increase in overall demand, as consumers switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes and vehicles. [B] Secondly, there will be an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much is generated, but also how it is generated, as there is growing electricity generation from renewable sources. [C] There is also likely more electricity generation centres, as households and communities take up the opportunity to install photovoltaic cells and small scale wind turbines. To meet these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology. [D] This system aims to provide the electricity industry with a better understanding of power generation and demand, and to use this information to create a more efficient power network. Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity network. The computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and improve engineer‟s ability to manage the system. With better information about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the amount of electricity delivered per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs

and carbon emissions. Moreover, the computer system will assist in reducing operational and maintenance costs. Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too. They will be able to collect real-time information on their energy use for each appliance. Varying tariffs throughout the day will give customers the incentive to use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills. For example, they may use their washing machines at night. Smart meters can also be connected to the internet or telephone system, allowing customers to switch appliances on or off remotely. Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the apparatus to generate their own power, appliances can be set to run directly from the on-site power source, and any excess can be sold to the grid. With these changes comes a range of challenges. The first involves managing the supply and demand. Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power, which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative energy sources, is inflexible. With oil and gas, it is relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match the increasing demand during peak times of the day or year. With alternative sources, this is far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. Potential solutions include investigating new and efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to use electricity at off-peak times. A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in remote areas, such as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical infrastructure. New infrastructures therefore must be built. Thankfully, with improved smart technology, this can be done more efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs. Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it are already underway. Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their homes to manage electricity use. There are also a number of - demonstrations being planned to show how the smart technology could practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure. It is likely that technology will be added in „layers‟, starting with „quick win‟ methods which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed by more advanced systems at a later date, Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to the high population density and high energy use. It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted first, utilising a range of sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging electrically powered vehicles. The infrastructure is already changing fast. By the year 2050, changes in the energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour. 1. According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries? A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more. B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to. C. The supply of oil is unpredictable. D. Global warming is more sever here than in other countries. 2. Where in paragraph 1 can the following sentence be placed? There is also likely more electricity generation centres, as households and communities take up the opportunity to install photovoltaic cells and small scale wind turbines. A. [A] B. |B] C. [C] D. [D] 3. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers? A. It can reduce their electricity bills. B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using. C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home. D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances. 4. According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power? A. They do not provide much energy. B. They often cause system failure and blackouts. C. They do not supply a continuous flow of energy. D. They can‟t be used at off-peak times. 5. In paragraph 5, what can be inferred about cities in the future? A. More people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays. B. People in cities will be using cars and buses powered by electricity. C. All buildings will generate their own electricity. D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities. 6. The word “remote” in paragraph 5 could be best replace by: A. isolated B. crowded C. attractive D. alone 7. The word underway” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to: A. permanent B. complete C. beneficial D. in progress

8. What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6) A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. B To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology, C. To summarise the main ideas in the previous paragraphs. D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced, 9 . In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology? A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first. B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first. C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first. READING 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D (11 pts) Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country‟s impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada‟s population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930‟s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the 1950‟s, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada‟s history, in the decade before 1911 when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950‟s supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world. After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the growth in Canada‟s population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960‟s was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957, 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Population trends in postwar Canada C. Canada during the Second World War D. Standards of living in Canada 2. According to the passage, when did Canada‟s baby boom begin? A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945 C. During the depression of the 1930‟s D. In 1966 3. The word “five” in paragraph 1 refers to A. Canadians B. years C. decades D. marriages 4. The word “surging” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising 5. The author suggests that in Canada during thel950‟s A. the urban population decreased rapidly B. fewer people married C. economic conditions were poor D. the birth rate was very high 6. The word “trend” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. aim B. tendency C. growth D. directive 7. The word “peak” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. pointed B. dismal C. mountain D. maximum 8. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level? A. 1966 B. 1957 C. 1956 D. 1951 9. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses 10. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution A. economic conditions were bad the B. population statistics were unreliable C. families were larger D. population grew steadily 11. The word “If in paragraph 4 refers to _____. A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half

IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (20 pts) A. You are going to read an article written by someone who lives in a house in a valley. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (1-7). There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. A. It was the river, the Ryburn, which normally flowed so gently, that threatened us most. B. And yet, the immense power of all this water above us prevents us from ever believing ourselves to be completely safe in our home. C. They twisted and turned, rising eastwards and upwards, warning of what was to come D. It was deeper than we‟d ever seen it so near our home, lunging furiously at its banks. E. We can thus enjoy, rather than fear, the huge clouds that hang over the valley, and can be thrilled by the tremendous power which we know the river possesses. F. It almost completely blocked our lane and made the streamside path slippery and dangerous G. There in the heights it was like the Niagara Falls, as the water surged over the edge of the dam and poured into the stream below. H. It was the year when the storms came early, before the calendar even hinted at winter, even before November was out. We had been living in our valley for sixteen months when we first realized the dangers that could exist in the surrounding hills and threaten our very survival. (1) _____ Until that time, we had felt safe and sheltered in our valley below the protecting hills. Soon snow began to fall. Within a day it lay some 15 centimeters deep. (2) _____ But on the neighboring heights the snow was much deeper and stayed for longer. Up there the wind blasted fiercely. Deeply in our valley we felt only sudden gusts of wind: trees swayed but the branches held firm. And yet we knew that there was reason for us to worry. The snow and wind were certainly inconvenient but they did not really trouble us greatly. (3) _____ It reminded us of what could have occurred if circumstances had been different, if the flow .of water from the hills had not, many years before, been controlled, held back by a series of dams. In a short time the snow started to melt. Day after day, we watched furious clouds pile up high over the hills to the west. Sinister grey clouds extended over the valleys. (4) _____ We had seen enough of the sky; now we began to watch the river, which every day was becoming fuller and wilder. The snow was gradually washed away as more and more rain streamed from the clouds, but high up in the hills the reservoir was filling and was fast approaching danger level. And then it happened - for the first time in years the reservoir overflowed. (5) _____ The river seemed maddened as the waters poured almost horizontally down to its lower stretches. Just a couple of metres from our cottage, the stream seemed wild beneath the bridge. (6) For three days we prayed that it would stay below its wall. Unfortunately, our prayers were answered as the dam held and the waters began to subside. On many occasions through the centuries before the dam was built, the river had flooded the nearby villages in just such a rage. Now, though, the dam restricts the flow of the river and usually all is well; the great mass of water from the hills, the product of snow and torrential rain, remains behind its barrier with just the occasional overflow. (7) _____ Thanks to this protection we can feel our home in the valley is still secure and safe. B. Read the text below and choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space. THE TRADE IN RHINO HORN Last year thieves broke into a Scottish castle and stole only one thing: a rhino horn, which at 1.5 metres was the longest in the world. In China pharmaceutical factories have been building up (1) _____ of antiques made from rhino horn, for the sole purpose of smashing them to powder to make the (2) _____ ingredient of many of their medicines. And in Africa poachers continue to die in the (3) _____ for the black rhino. Recently, conservationists met to (4) _____ a campaign to persuade countries where rhino horn is (5) _____ part of the traditional medicine to (6) _____ to substitutes. The biggest (7) _____ to the survival of the rhinoceros is the (8) _____ of certain countries to enforce a ban on domestic (9) _____ in rhino horn. The rhino horn is included in many (10) _____ for disorders ranging from fevers to nosebleeds. Horn, like fingernails, is made of keratin and has no proven medicinal powers. Traditional substitutes, such as horn from buffalo or antelope, are (11) _____ as second best. The battle is (12) _____ to be winnable. But it may be harder than the battle against the trade in ivory, for there is a (13) _____ between the two commodities. Ivory is a luxury; rhino horn, people believe, could save the life of their child. 1. A. bundles B. collections C. groups D. amounts 2. A. actual B. real C. essential D. true

3. A. chance B. search C. fight D. race 4. A. plan B. programme C. design D. form 5. A. hardly B. even C. nearly D. still 6. A. vary B. switch C. modify D. adjust 7. A. threat B. danger C. disaster D. menace 8. A. rejection B. denial C. refusal D. protest 9. A. business B. commerce C. selling D. trading 10. A. remedies B. aids C. recipes D. doses 11. A. regarded B. valued C. known D. reputed 12. A. imagined B. dreamed C. thought D. viewed 13. A. variation B. difference C. gap D. comparison A. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES / FORMS (10 pts) Complete this text using the correct form of the verbs given in brackets. FROGS IN MY CAR I (1. wait) _____ for over an hour when Barry finally (2. turn up) _____ on the tractor. He (3. explain) _____ he (4. hold up) _____ by a fallen tree on the road. I (5. not find) _____ this hard to believe as a gale force wind (6. blow) _____ for the past 5 hours accompanied by torrential rain. The reason why I (7. call) _____ Barry was that my car (8. lie) _____ on its side in a ditch. I (9. drive) _____ along very slowly in the terrible weather when suddenly a large dog (10. appear) _____ in front of me. I (11. brake) _____ to avoid hitting it and the car (12. skid) _____ out of control on the water and mud on the road and into the ditch. I (13, manage) _____ to get out through the window. The problem now was that the car (14. fill up) _____ with water and mud! Within seconds Barry, who (15. wear) _____ enormous rubber boots, (16. tie) _____ a rope to the front bumper of the car and (17. pull) _____ it out with the tractor. After a few minutes the car was the right way up and back on the road again. We (18. open) _____ the door and out (19. jump) _____ two big frogs who (20. swim) _____ in through the open window! II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10 pts) Put one VERB OR PREPOSITION to complete the following sentences. 1. We _____ in finding Ann‟s house at the second attempt. 2. This year‟s conference coincide _____ two other major conventions. 3. When I asked Jean, she hinted _____ the chance of a promotion for me. 4. He confessed when he was _____ with the evidence. 5. You need to _____ yourself more to work. 6. I was _____ from doing my work by the music 7. Have you _____ for the wind in your calculations? 8. Could you please refrain _____ smoking in the lecture hall. 9. The problem sterns _____ the government‟s lack of action. 10. However poor I was I would not _____ to stealing. III. WORD FORMS (10 pts) Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space. RHETORIC The (1. CONCEIVE) _____ of “rhetoric”, or effective public speaking, dates back thousands of years. The underlying (2. ASSUME) _____ behind rhetoric is that how you present an argument, can greatly influence whether people are persuaded by you or not There is (3, DOUBT) _____ plenty of evidence to support this idea - it‟s practically (4.THINK) _____, for example, for a successful politician to be a poor communicator - but is it just a question of style winning over substance? Certainly, it is often said of politicians that they talk complete (5. SENSE) _____ but what they say they say with such (6. CONVINCE) _____ that we tend to believe them, at least when they‟re in opposition. On the other hand, (7.WISE) _____ and knowledge are of little value if you cannot communicate them effectively to your peers or to the next generation. It is the combination of clear (8. REASON), _____ sound (9. JUDGE) _____ and effective presentation and communication skills that defines true rhetoric. A true rhetorician should always come across as knowledgeable, and never as (10. OPINION) _____ or ignorant. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 pts) Underline and correct 10 word form errors in the passage below. HOW MUCH FREEDOM SHOULD CHILDREN HAVE? It is often said that we live in a permission age, one in which people are allowed to do almost anything

they like. Is this good for children? They are going through their adolescent which is a very formation stage of their development since their final adult characters are beginning to take shape. Some parents think it is good for children to be allowed to run wildly, without control or supervision. They say that this enables children‟s personalities to develop naturally and they will learn to be irresponsible by the mistakes they make. However, this might lead to juvenile delinquency with the children ending up in the courts, or it might simply make children self-centered, without any consideration for others. Other parents believe in being strict, but taken to extremes this can produce a too authoritarian atmosphere in the home, with the children being dominated and ruled by their parents. Parents can also be very possessed and try to keep their children dependent on them. These last two attitudes can encourage rebels (against parents, school, authority) in a child, or, conversely, suppression a child‟s natural sense of adventure and curiosity. A strict bring up by over-caring parents can make a child so timid and that he or she is unable to express freely his or her emotions and form mature relationships. To bring up children to he normal, well-adjusted human beings requires great wiseness, and perhaps a bit of luck. V. OPEN CLOZE TESTS (20 pts) Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. A. Fill in each gap in the following passage with ONE suitable word. Before man had flown in space it was thought that his physical and mental capabilities might be (1) _____ by long periods of weightlessness and that he might be endangered by high levels of radiation. Yuri Gagarin‟s first (2) _____ in April 1961 showed that man could live in space and, although this journey only (3) _____ for 108 minutes, it gave encouragement (4) _____ those interested in the future of manned spaceflight. In (5) _____ most of the early fears about man‟s health in space have (6) _____ groundless, and although several odd medical effects have been observed, (7) _____ has seriously affected man‟s ability for useful work. All astronauts undergo strenuous training to prepare them for the experience of spaceflight but, despite this, most astronauts (8) _____ from space sickness early in their flights. This effect, (9) _____ to sea sickness, soon wears off, and there appears to be no medical reason why man cannot live in space for long periods of time. A constant check is kept on the health of all (10) _____ during their mission. Small medical detectors which monitor their heartbeats, pulse rates, breathing and temperature are taped to their bodies. B. Fill in each gap in the following passage with ONE suitable word. In the 1960s women tennis players received little or no prize money at all. In the 1990s, (1) _____, the top players can earn twice as much in a fortnight as a successful company director does in a whole year. And (2) _____ most young people of their age were still studying for exams, players (3) _____ Monica Seles and Jenifer Capriatia were earning thousands of pounds a week. When she was only sixteen, Seles was rich enough to buy any car she (4) _____. Nowadays, most of a (5) _____ tennis player‟s income comes from sponsorships contracts with fashion or sportswear companies rather than from major championships. Players are (6) _____ huge sums of money to wear anything from tennis shoes (7) _____ a wristwatch. Official prize money, in fact, only accounts for fractions of total earnings. But (8) _____ I so much money in the bank, and the world of their feet, it will be surprising if these young stars (9) _____ not affected by success. Both Seles and Capriati are coached by their fathers, (10) _____ do their best to protect their daughters from the pressure fame has brought. Only time will tell whether this is enough. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 pts) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Use the words given in brackets 1. I felt relaxed at Gita‟s house because her parents greeted me so warmly (EASE) → _____________________________________________________________________ . 2. Oskar didn‟t feel like going out last night. (MOOD) → _____________________________________________________________________ . 3. His whole life was one of deceit and treachery. (HE) → _____________________________________________________________________ . 4. „It‟s none of your business what I do with my money!‟ Daisy informed her father. (CONCERN) → _____________________________________________________________________ . 5- No matter what happens, we will never do business with that firm again. (EVER) → _____________________________________________________________________ . Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Begin with the words given 6. I shouldn‟t think Paul knows the answer. → I doubt _______________________________________________________________

7. Philip‟s inability to make decision dates from his accident. → Ever _________________________________________________________________ 8. For further information, please send an SAE to the above address. → Further information _____________________________________________________ 9. Only the managing director and the chief chemist know the details. → Knowledge ___________________________________________________________ 10. The new plans for the school have been approved by the accident. → The new plans for the school have _______________________ approval. ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 10 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. PHONOLOGY: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. 1. A. crescendo B. fluorescent C. sciatica D. sceptre 2. A. releases B. produces C. houses D. decreases 3. A. confusedly B. allegedly C. supposedly D. wickedly 4. A. breathe B. marathon C. wither D. paths 5. A. ragged B. hatred C. blessed D. absorbed Choose the word whose main stressed syllable is placed differently from that of the others in the list. 6. A, argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive 7. A. privatize B. negligence C. navigate D. heuristics 8. A. arithmetic B. lunatic C. allergic D. magnetic 9. A. commodity B. condescending C. conscientious D. intertwine 10. A. reconcile B. devastate C. facsimile D. daffodil 2. WORD CHOICE: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts) 1. What I actually earn bears no _____ to all my needs. A. link B. relation C. association D. connection 2. Hundreds of people arriving in America have sought _____ from political discrimination in their countries. A. refuge B. getaway C. departure D. hideaway 3. Staying here without any proper inoculation is inadvisable as you may be _____ the risk of contracting some dangerous disease from insect bites. A provoking B. urging C. inciting D. running 4. We sent him to the best school in England and hired the best teachers, but it was all _____ as he had no will to learn at all. A. vain B. inaccurate C. invalid D. futile 5. The missing hitchhiker had been _____ dead until the sensational message came from the small town in Oregon where he was found alive. A. estimated B. presumed C. assessed D. speculated 6. Frankie has always been held in high _____ among his workmates because of his exceptional skill at handling the most difficult tasks. A. respect B. admiration C. prestige D. esteem 7. As far as Adam is concerned, he is nowhere _____ so good at swimming as his sister is. A. near B. there C. much D. that 8. We don‟t need a bigger suitcase. This one should _____ its purpose right. A. perform B. operate C. serve D. execute 9. Due to the computer malfunction, all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the calculations from _____. A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch 10. The _____ of the project has been suspended because of the inadequate financing. A. implementation B. establishment C. installation D. exploration 3. STRUCTURES & GRAMMAR: Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one. (10 pts) 1. The president was reported to have been a heart attack.

A. The president was reported to suffer a heart attack. B. People say that the president had suffered a heart attack. C. It was reported that the president had suffered a heart attack. D. People reported the President to suffer a heart attack. 2. They don‟t know much knowledge of the jobs of their choice. A. They have little knowledge of the jobs of their choice; B. They have few knowledge of the jobs of their choice. C. They have a few knowledge about the jobs of their choice. D. They don‟t have much knowledge of the jobs of their choice. 3. Their chances of success are small. A. It‟s not very likely that they will succeed B. It‟s very likely that they will succeed. C. They will definitely be successful. D. They won‟t have any chance of being successful 4. He talked about nothing except the weather. A. He said he had no interest in the weather B. He talked about everything including the weather. C. He had nothing to say about the weather. D. His sole topic of conversation was the weather. 5. At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement. A. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement. B. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement. C. The two sides never look like each other. D. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement. 6. She locked the door so as not to be disturbed. A. She locked the door so that not to be disturbed. B. She locked the door for her not to be disturbed. C. She locked the door in order that she wouldn‟t be disturbed. D. She locked the door to be not disturbed. 7. Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive. A. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive. B. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive. C. We weren‟t as much impressed by the new cinema‟s look as its coast. D. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected, 8. It won‟t be long before her husband comes back. A. There‟s likelihood that her husband won‟t return soon. B. Her husband will come back later than planned. C. Her husband will be returning quite soon. D. Possibly, her husband won‟t come back as soon as he wants. 9. Hardly are appeals allowed against the council‟s decisions. A. It‟s too hard for the council to allow appeals against its decisions. B. The council always allows appeals against its decisions. C. Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good. D. The council rarely allows appeals against its decision. 10. When the unemployment rate is high, the crime rate is usually also high. A. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. B. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. C. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. D. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher 4. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. (10 pts) 1. In the end it all _____ a question of trust. A. gets round to B. adds up to C. feels up to D. comes down to 2. What were you two _____ just now in the garden? A. bringing about B. getting up to C. coming up with D. getting round to 3. You should always have an alternative plan to _____. A. bring about B. ask after C. feel up to D. fall back on 4. The school examination for eleven-year-olds was _____ some years ago. A. done away with B. drawn up C. carried out D. followed up 5. The policeman _____ me off with a warning as it was Christmas. A. sent B. gave C. let D. set

6. We have _____ up a huge bill at the grocer‟s across the road. A. set B. run C. ended D. paid 7. This machinery will have been _____ by the end of the decade. A. broken down B. set out C. phased out D. made off with 8. We hadn‟t _____ for such heavy traffic, and we were delayed. A. expected B. bargained C. calculated D. supposed 9. The smell of the kippers cooking _____ my breakfast. A. put me off B. came up against C. gave off D. held up 10. Whatever Jean _____ to do, she finishes. A. sets out B. sees to C. gets on D. looks for 5. READING COMPREHENSION: Reading 1: Read the following passage then choose the correct answer to each question. (10 pts) The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume. That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of processed food are helpful or harmful. The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue. A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food without our knowledge. 1. How has science done a disservice to people? A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated. B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food. C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food. D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables. 2. The word “prone” in line 5 is nearest in meaning to _____. A. supine B. unlikely C. healthy D. predisposed 3. What are nitrates used for? A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods. B. They preserve the color of meats. C. They are the objects of research. D. They cause the animals to become fatter. 4. The word “these” in line 9 refers to _____. A. meats B. colors C. researchers D. nitrates and nitrites 5. In line 9, the word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to _____ . A. trouble-making B. color-retaining C. money-making D. cancer-causing 6. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _____. A. food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world B. drugs are always given to animals for medical reasons C. some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals D. researchers have known about the potential hazards of food additives for more than forty-five years 7. The word “additives” in line 10 is closest in meaning to _____ . A. dangerous substances B. added substances C. natural substances D. benign substances 8. What is the best title for this passage? A. Harmful and Harmless Substances in Food B. Improving Health Through a Natural Diet C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your Health D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food 9. In line 2, the word “fit “ is closest in meaning to _____. A. athletic B. suitable C. tasty D. adaptable 10. The fact that the topic has been known for some time is discussed in lines .

A. 3 - 4 B. 6 - 7 C. 12 - 14 D. 18 - 20 Reading 2: Read the following newspaper article and then answer questions 1-5. Give only one answer to each question. (5 pts) LIGHTS, CAMERA, ACTION MAN Travel journalist Richard Madden reports on his first trip with a camera crew. It was books that first captured my imagination about faraway places. TV travelogues always seemed the poor relation to the classic written accounts, although of course the pictures were rather better. And then there was the issue of authenticity. All those pretentious theatrical types dying of thirst in the desert, as if we didn‟t realise there was a camera crew on hand to cater for their every need. These days programme- makers know that the audience is more sophisticated and the presence of the camera is acknowledged. But can a journey with filming equipment ever be anything other than a cleverly constructed fiction? I recently got the chance to find out, when I was asked to present two one-hour programmes for an adventure travel series. The project was the brainchild of the production company. Trans-Atlantic Films, which wanted the series presented by writers and adventurers, as well as TV professionals. My sole qualification was as a journalist specialising in „adventure‟ travel. However, I was thought to have „onscreen‟ potential. The first programme was filmed in Costa Rica. Within 24 hours of my arrival, I realised that this was going to be very different from my usual „one man and his laptop‟ expeditions. For a start, there were five „of us - director, cameraman, sound recordist, producer and presenter. And then there was the small matter of £100,000 worth of equipment. I soon realised that the director, Peter Macpherson, was a vastly experienced adventure film-maker. In his case, the term „adventure‟ meant precisely that. Part of the brief for the series was to put the presenter in unusual situations and see how he or she coped. One such sequence was the night we spent in the rainforest canopy near the Rincon de la Vieja National Park in Guanacaste province. I don‟t have a head for heights and would make a poor rock-climber, so my distress is real enough as the camera catches me dangling on a rope some 30m up, well short of the canopy platform. Ironically, it was the presence of the camera, looking down on me from above, that gave me the impetus for the final push to the top. By this time, I‟d learnt how „sequences‟ were cut together and realised that one last effort was required. I had to struggle to stay coherent while the camera swooped within a few millimetres of my face for my reaction. In the end, it was a magical experience, heightened all the more by the sounds of the forest. Learning how to establish a rapport with the camera is vital and it took me a while to think of it as a friend rather than a judge and jury. The most intimidating moments were when Peter strolled up to me, saying that the light would only be right for another 10 minutes, and that he needed a „link‟ from one sequence to another. The brief was simple. It needed to be 30 seconds long, sum up my feelings, be informative, well- structured and, most important of all, riveting to watch. „Ready to go in about 5 minutes?‟ he would say breezily. I soon discovered that the effect of the camera on what was going on around us was far less intrusive than I had imagined. After a first flurry of curiosity, people usually lost interest and let us get on with our job. We were also flexible enough to be spontaneous. Our trip coincided with an 80 per cent solar eclipse, a rare event anywhere in the world. We were in a village called Santa Elena and captured the whole event on camera. The carnival atmosphere was infectious and made a welcome addition to our shooting schedule. 1. One thing the writer used to dislike about travel programmes on TV was _____. A. the repetitive nature of many of them. B. the dull images that they frequently contained. C. their lack of respect for the intelligence of the viewers. D. their tendency to copy the style of famous written accounts. 2. What reason is given for the writer becoming involved in making TV travel programmes? A. other people‟s belief that he might be suited to appearing on them B. his own desire to discover whether it was possible to make good ones C. his own belief that it was natural for him to move from journalism to TV D. a shortage of writers and adventurers .willing to take part in them 3. The writer uses the sequence filmed in the National Park as an example of _____. A. something he had been worried about before any filming started. B. the sort of challenge that, presenters were intended to face in the series. C. something he was expected to be unable to deal with. D. the technical difficulties involved in making films in certain places, 4. In paragraph six the writer says that he found it particularly difficult to _____. A. understand what was required of him for a „link‟.

B. change things he was going to do at very short notice. C. accept certain advice given to him about presenting a film. D. meet certain demands the director made on him. 5. What does the writer use the experience in Santa Elena as an example of? A. something they filmed although they had not planned to B. the friendly way in which they were treated by the. local people C. something they did purely for their own enjoyment D. the kind of thing that viewers like to see in travel films 6. CLOZE TEST: Read the following passages and choose the options that best complete the blanks. Passage 1: (10 pts) NATURE‟S CLOCKS Our biological clocks govern almost every aspect of our lives. Our sensitivity to stimuli (1) _____ over the course of the day, and our ability to perform certain functions is subject to fluctuations. Consequently, there is a(n) (2) _____ time for tasks such as making decisions: around the middle of the day. Anything that (3) _____ physical co-ordination, on the other hand, is best attempted in the early evening. What is more, there is a dramatic drop in performance if these activities are (4) _____ out at other times. The risk of accident in a factory, for example, is 20% higher during the night shift. Primitive humans lived their lives in tune with the daily cycle of light and dark. Today we are (5) _____ convinced that we can impose schedules on our lives at (6) _____ . Sooner or later, however, we pay a price for ignoring our natural rhythms. A good example is jet lag, caused when we confuse our body‟s biological clocks by (7) _____ several time zones. People suffering from jet lag can take several days to adjust to new time zones, and have a reduced ability to make decisions, which is a worrying thought, as serious (8) _____ of judgement can be made. And this may be just the (9) _____ of the iceberg. An increasing number of people suffer from seasonal affective disorder (SAD), a form of depression that can be (10) _____ by living in artificial conditions. SAD can be serious, and sufferers may even need to take antidepressant drugs. 1. A. modifies B. ranges C. varies D. wavers 2. A. peak B. summit C. maximum D. optimum 3. A. requests B. demands C. dictates D. stipulates 4. A. made B. done C. carried D. performed 5. A. powerfully B. firmly C. steadily D. highly 6. A. whim B. determination C. will D. desire 7. A. landing B. penetrating C. crossing D. travelling 8. A. errors B. mistakes C. inaccuracies D. fallacies 9. A. peak B. pinnacle C. top D. tip 10. A. triggered B. developed C. created D. launched Passage 2: (15 pts) There‟s extensive historical evidence that our ancestors may have witnessed a massive invasion of Unidentified Flying Objects (1) _____ on their territories. These extraterrestrials are (2) _____ to have come into (3) _____ with the ancient earthly populations and helped them (4) _____ numerous magnificent structures or even establish glamorous empires. However, the present-‟day fascination with UFO was only (5) _____ by the first widely (6) _____ American sighting in Idaho in 1947. Since that time, countless other close encounters have been reported both by highly credible witnesses such as top- class pilots and less credible ones such as ordinary civilians. Thousands of people around the world maintain having come (7) _____ to the visitors from outer space or to have been (8) _____ for a scientific study inside their flying saucers. Although most of these accounts have been (9) _____ as fantasy or hallucinations, there‟s (10) _____ criticism from the public and media for ignoring the subject for too long. To many people, rejecting even the most inexplicable sightings or UFO encounters as luminous artificial objects, natural phenomena like auroras or even as meteorological balloons and satellites seems to be an irresponsible (11) _____. Most of us would prefer to believe that these extraterrestrial, guests are arriving from some remote galaxies to (12) _____ a peaceful relationship and possibly give us a fair warning against the consequences of our wasteful lifestyles. Yet, there‟s another theory (13) _____ that the visitors‟ attitude towards mankind isn‟t so conciliatory and that their sole aim might be the unscrupulous annihilation of the terrestrial populations. Doubtless, flying saucers still continue to be observed in many places of the world (14) _____ the imagination of UFO-maniacs. But, a large percentage of such sightings will remain (15) _____ explanation until more convincing evidence is supplied by the true experts.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

A. surpassing A. reasoned A. touch A. fabricate A. discharged A. proclaimed A. direct A. abolished A. speculated A. multiplying A. approach A. establish A. consisting A. startling A. beyond

B. approximating B. alleged B. grip B. plant B. instigated B. notified B. adjacent B. abducted B. disposed B. piling B. bias B. engender B. specifying B. triggering B. above

C. transgressing C. denoted C. face C. erect C. constituted C. communicated C. close C. absconded C. repelled. C. storing C. encounter C. enact C. meaning C. sparking C. under

D. encroaching D. inferred D. sight D. install D. devised D. conveyed D. nearby D. abbreviated D. dismissed D. mounting D. manner D. engage D. implying D. arising D. beneath

B. WRITTEN TEST 1. OPEN CLOZE TEST Fill each blank in the following passages with one suitable word. Passage 1: (10 pts) Life on a small island may look very appealing to the tourists who spend a few weeks there in the summer, but the (1) _____ of living on what is virtually a rock (2) _____ by water are quite different from what the casual visitor imagines. While in summer the island villages are full of people, life and activity, (3) _____ the tourist season is over many of the shop owners shut up their business and return to the mainland to spend the winter in comfort. Those who remain on the island, (4) _____ by choice or necessity, face many (5) _____ One of the worst of these is isolation, with (6) _____ many attendant problems. When the weather is bad, which it often is in winter, the island is cut off entirely; this means not only that people can not be (7) _____ goods but also that a medical emergency can be fatal to someone confined to an island. At times (8) _____ telephone communication is cut off, which means that no word from the outside world can get (9) _____ Isolation and loneliness are the basic reasons why so many people have left the islands for a better and more (10) _____ life in the mainland cities. Passage 2: (10 pts) There are people whose (1) _____ begins from the moment of their death. Hemingway is one of them. He was a great man. The whole of his creative work was a long (2) _____ for Fleming way, the man and the writer, had many enemies, Perhaps his greatest enemy was war. He hated it with (3) _____ his heart with his (4) _____ body in which 28 bullets had (5) _____ their traces. Hemingway hated those who (6) _____ a business of war. In an introduction to his famous (7) _____ novel “ A Farewell to Arms” , Hemingway said that wars were started by people who (8) _____ from them, and he suggested that those (9) _____ people should be shot on the (10) _____ first day of war, by sentence of the people. 2. WORD FORMS: Use the correct tense and form of the verb provided to fit each gap. (10 pts) • She says she‟d rather he (1. stay) _____ home tomorrow as it (2. rain) _____ cats and dogs for the last couple of hours. • You (3. speed) _____ then; otherwise, the policeman wouldn‟t have stopped you. • In the early days of the cinema, before sound was introduced, silent films (4. accomplish) _____ by a pianist, or even a small orchestra playing in the cinema itself. One reason for this was (5. cover) _____ up the noise of the projector. However, a more important role was to provide support for what (6. go) _____ on in the film, and guide the audience through the story. Different kinds of music were associated with different situations, such as fights, chases, romantic scenes and so on... • I wish the central heating (7. not/keep) _____ (8. play up) _____ It (9. be) _____ a bore (10. not/ know) _____ from one day to the next if it (11. work) _____ or not. • Tim (12. not/regret) _____ (13. spend) _____ money (14. modernize) _____ the house if he (15. get) _____ his money back when he (16. sell) _____ it. • Dancers at the ballet school (17. train) _____ for the performance since last November. • “I loved Christmas as a child.” - “Do did I. Every Christmas Eve all the family (18. decorate) _____ the tree together.”

• On (19. ask) _____ about the strike, the manager declined to comment. • The days (20. go) _____ when each nation was like an island. Put the words in the correct form. (10 pts) 1. The monarch‟s mindlessness led to a complete downfall of his _____ (KING) and abject poverty among his subjects. 2. Completing the task seemed _____ (ATTAIN) at first, but in the end, it turned out that it was much easier than we had expected. 3. The mining industry, one of the most important _____ (COMPOSE) of our economy, brings enormous profits to the country. 4. The boy‟s manners were highly _____ (CONTEMPT). No wonder that the teacher objected to having him in his class. 5. We cannot rely on her account of the occurrence, it doesn‟t sound very _____ (FACT). 6. „What do you expect from your future wife, Mr. Robson?‟ - „I‟d like one that is faithful and _____ (SUBMIT) so that she can fulfill all my requests.‟ 7. If only we hadn‟t forgotten to take the mosquito _____ (REPEL), we wouldn‟t have suffered from so severe bites. 8. The rough treatment I received in the hotel definitely aroused my _____ (PLEASE). In fact, I have never stayed in it again. 9. It would be hard to find words to tell you about my impressions. The Scottish landscapes are simply _____ (DESCRIBE). 10. I can‟t say he is a man of _____ (BLAME) reputation. He has been to prison twice for robberies and fraud. 3 ERROR IDENTIFICATION: In most lines of the following text there is an incorrect item. Read the numbered lines 1-11 and then write the correct form of the word in the spaces provided for your answers. Some lines arc correct Indicate these lines with a tick (). The first one has been done for you. (10 pts) 1. The latest, most comfortable credit card is the Europersonal Loan Card, → convenient 2. with who you can increase your spending power by up to £20,000. This ____________ 3. can be lent at low interest rates and with a minimum of complicated ____________ 4. red-tape. Major purchases can be done with the freedom this card ____________ 5. provides. In addition, the card can be used to act with unexpected ____________ 6. emergencies. The bank requires some form of proof that the customer ____________ 7. will be able to repay some money borrowed. A previous bank or building ____________ 8. society statement will serve this reason. Provided the loan is repaid ____________ 9. within three months, the interest rate will be only 2%. Moreover, in the ____________ 10. event of this time limit expiring, the rate will increase at 3.5%. The ____________ 11. Europersonal Loan Card is a secure, easy way to stretch your budget. ____________ 4. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. (20 pts) 1. A government official leaked the story to the world press. WIND → _____________________________________________________________________ . 2. His efforts to find a solution didn‟t deserve such savage criticism, → He shouldn‟t __________________________________________________________ 3. Julia soon calmed down and explained her problem. → Julia soon pulled _______________________________________________________ 4. Mary is far superior to me in terms of technical knowledge. MATCH → _____________________________________________________________________ . 5. Mike is never reluctant to make tough decisions as a manager. SHRINKS → _____________________________________________________________________ . 6. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night. EARS → _____________________________________________________________________ . 7. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. → But __________________________________________________________________ 8. The Mountain Rescue Team is pessimistic about the missing climbers. → The Mountain Rescue Team doesn‟t hold ___________________________________ 9. The president‟s bodyguards stood behind him watching. → Watchfully____________________________________________________________

10. The sales director told his staff nothing about the new marketing post. DARK → _____________________________________________________________________ . ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 11 A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM QUESTION 1: PHONOLOGY (10 points) A. Identify the word that has the underlines part pronounced differently from that of the other words in the group. 1. A. peso B. mission C. missy D. odyssey 2. A. prayer B. player C. mayor D. flare 3. A. recipe B. acne C. profiterole D. anemone 4. A. patois B. reservoir C. boudoir D. porpoise. 5. A. chassis B. chamber C. cherubic D. chalice B. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. 6. A. oblivious B. ferocious C. scandalous D. victorious 7. A. antagonism B. communism C. capitalism D. philistinism. 8. A. mimosa B. karate C. graffiti D. anecdote. 9. A. anathema B. adversary C. parabola D. papyrus. 10. A. metropolis B. sanitary C. interview D. architecture QUESTION 2: VOCABULARY & STRUCTURE (20 points) A. VOCABULARY Choose the best option A, B, C or D for each gap to finish the following sentences. 1. This computer game is really out of the _____ A. normal B. usual C. average D. ordinary 2. Your argument _____ that Britain is still a great power, but this is no longer the case. A. outlines B. presupposes C. concerns D. presents 3. Because of cutbacks in council spending, plan for the new stadium had to be _____ A. stockpiled B. overthrown C. shelved D. disrupted 4. I can‟t tell you much about the subject, I‟m afraid. I only have a very _____ Knowledge of it myself. A. fundamental B. rudimentary C. elemental D. primary 5. Tax _____ deprives the state of several million pounds a year. A. evasion B. desertion C. escapism D. retention 6. I wouldn‟t move there - not for all the _____ A. fish in the sea. B. sand in the Sahara C. guns in Texas D. tea in China 7. I like my new job; the only fly in the _____ Is the fact that I have to work every other weekend. A. fat B. porridge C. soup D. ointment 8. Good health enables people to enjoy life and have the _____ to achieve their goals. A. chance B. opportunity C. occasion D. situation 9. He had a soft _____ for his niece and thoroughly spoil her. A. heart B. way C. smile D. spot 10. No matter how angry he was, he would never _____ to violence A. resort B. recourse C. exert D. resolve B. GRAMMAR : Choose the best option A, B, C or D for each gap to finish the following sentences 1. Alone in a deserted house, he was so busy with his research work that he felt _____ lonely. A. nothing but B. everything but C. anything but D. all but 2. When the funds finally _____, they had to abandon the scheme. A. faded away B. clamped down C. petered out D. fobbed off. 3. Few pleasures can be equal to _____ of a cool drink on a hot day. A. it B. that C. such D. this 4. I was in a quandary _____ what to say. A. as to B. for C. owing to D. of 5. The bank manager said that he _____ appreciated that we were having problems, but there was nothing he could do to help. A. greatly B. fully C. utterly D. largely 6. We cannot accede _____ the request for an extension of time.

A. on B. upon C. to D. in 7. _____ was caused by breathing impure air was once a common belief. A. Malaria B. That malaria C. Why malaria D. For malaria 8. Supposing I _____ to agree to your request, how do you think the other students would feel ? A. would B. am C. could D. were 9. The curriculum at the public school is as good _____ of any private school. A. or better than B. as or better than C. as or better than that D. as or better that 10. Up _____ when it saw its master. A. jumped the dog B. did the dog jump C. the dog jumped D. does the dog jump QUESTION 3: PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITIONS: 1. Has the advertising agency _____ the new promotional material yet? I need it by this afternoon. A. dropped off B. dropped in C. dropped out D. dropped by 2. We need to _____ the price of the product, which is relatively high, and focus on its quality as a selling point. A. back down B. break down C. play down D. settle down 3. A decrease _____ the supply _____ a good usually results in an increase _____ the price _____ that good. A. on ... of ... in ... of B. in ... of ... in ... of C. in … of ... on ... of D. on ... of ... in ... for 4. He was so infuriated _____ the play that he walked _____ in the middle _____ the first act. A. by ... out ... in ... of B. by ... away ... in ... of C. with ... out … in ... of D. A or C 5. There‟s been an accident on the motorway, so there is a big _____ A. hold-on B. hold-up C. uphold D. hold-off. 6. We put his rude manner _____ ignorance of our British customs. A. off at B. up with C. up to D. down to 7. What made Peter _____ his family and his job? Where did he go and why? A. walk out at B. walk out on C. walk away on D. walk off on 8. “I finally finished collecting all the materials I need to write my report.”. “Great, but don‟t be too quick to _____ yourself. _____ You still have to write the report and then word-process it.” A. put … on the back B. put ... on the head C. pat ... on the back D. pat ... on the shoulder. 9. Jack was wearing blue jeans and a torn T-shirt, while all other guests had on formal dinner wear. He really _____ A. looked out B. came out C. stayed out D. stood out 10. “Are you going to take that job in Toronto?” “ No, I decided to _____ it _____ because I don‟t want to relocate” A. ignore … up B. take ... up C. pass ... up D. pick ... up QUESTION 4: READING COMPREHENSION READING 1: Diesel 46009 proves a £ 1.6 million nuclear safety point At 13.19 yesterday British Rail‟s retired Peaks class diesel locomotive 46009 came from Old Dalby station at about 100mph to strike the nuclear fuel flask the Central Electricity generating Board had placed across her track. She was a few minutes late because of anti-nuclear demonstrators on the line but the tense, waiting spectators knew there was no driver at the controls and no passengers in the three elderly coaches 46009 was pulling. For a few eerie seconds, I suspect most of us were more concerned with the fate of the train than with the 8ft square yellow-painted steel transport flask whose security this extraordinary event was designed to demonstrate. Even the board‟s ebullient chairman, Sir Walter Marshall, admitted to a moment of shock as the 150-ton train struck its target. But he was delighted with the result. The impact was like a vass bass drum being sounded across the Leicestershire countryside. Then a flash of flame as the locomotive tosssed the 50-ton flask aside and leapt over the deliberately derailed wagon that had carried it. But even though the flask lay on its side so as to give the diesel‟s protruding draw bar the best chance of prising the heavily-bolted lid open, the flask suffered only- superficial damage. Sir Walter beamed as his engineers connected a presure meter to the flask‟s valve and registered a drop through the lid seals of only 0.29 of a pound from the original 1001b per square inch. “Even better than we expected,” he said. “ It shows that our calculations were ultra- cautious - which is what we have always known”. Sir Walter openly acknowledeged that this expensive crash test, spectacular though it was, was not

conducted primarily as a scientific experiment. The 14-inch-thick forged steel walls of the flask were actually subjected to far more stress last March, when it was dropped from a crane onto concrete. Yesterday‟s spectacle - staged at cost of £1.6 million - Sir Walter said, was to reassure people that the transport of irradiated nuclear power station fuel ready was safe from road or rail accidents. . The CEGB‟s complete four year programme of full-sacle Magnox fuel flask testing is expected to cost £4 million. Now the board were considering whether to subject the same battered flask to a prolonged fire- another requirement of the international regulations governing nuclear fuel transport from power stations to reprocessing plants like Sellafield (formerly. Windscale) in Cumbria. Locomotive 46009‟s last run started eight miles back down the British Rail test track towards Nottingham, where a railway man threw a small external switch to start her moving. At four miles she could have been stopped by an automatic signal. One mile to go and she passed the point of no return. The crash was all over in perhaps five seconds, covered for another 10 seconds by the exploding locomotive‟s smoke. When the whole train came to rest within about 100 yards, the three carriages were still more or less upright, though most of their wheels, like those of the locomotive, had been torn off. Only a few windows were smashed. Seats in the rear two carriages were mostly still in place. It was not meant to be the railway ment‟s day, but they were quietly just as proud of the way their train had survived as the CEGB engineers were of how their nuclear flask had so passed its test. On this, a representative for the Welsh anti-nuclear campaign had the last word. Why, he asks sarcastically at the press de-briefing, if nuclear fuel was so safe on the railways did the board hand it over to Sellafield where it seemed to be spilt into the Irish sea? An irrelevant question, said the board‟s spokeman. Choose the answer that best completes each sentence. 1. The writer reports the time of the crash as 13.19 _____ A. to be exact C. becaused the test was delayed B. to give the effect of a timetable D. because it was lunchtime. 2. He refers to the locomotive as “she” because _____ A. it was very old C. this is how railway staff refer to trains B. he loves old trains D. all trains are feminine in English 3. In the test _____ A. a nuclear fuel flask was seriously damaged B. a train was destroyed C. a locomotive was destroyed D. a nuclear flask was completely undamaged 4. Sir Walter “beamed” because _____ A. he is a jolly sort of fellow B. he had been annoyed by the demonstrators. C. he wanted pressman to see he was happy D. He knew the test had been throughly successful. 5. After the crash the pressure inside the flask was _____ A. 99.29 p.s.i B. 99.71 p.s.i C. 100 p.s.i D. 100.29 p.s.i 6. The locomotive started its final journey _____. A. 4 miles from the crash point C. in the direction of Nottingham B. when Sir Walter pushed a button D. away from Nottingham 7. A test was carried out in March _____ A. to show the public the safety of transporting nuclear fuel by rail. B. to conform with international regulations. C. at a similar cost to the one reported in the passage. D. with a similar fanfare of publicity. 8. The phrase “ the board were considering” implies that the following information is being reported as _____ A. definite fact B. conjecture C. the writer‟s opinion D. Sir Walter‟s statement 9. The writer reports the condition of the windows and seats because this is _____ A. important information B. irrelevant but amusing C. an integral part of the test. D. An interesting by-product of the experiement. 10. The tone of the passage suggests that the writer is _____ the CEGB. A. amused by B. hostile to C. sceptical of D. shocked by READING 2: In the distance he heard the whistle and the train moved slowly across what sounded like an iron bridge

and came to a halt. It was a sixth stop since they had left Berlin. Billy Fenwick lay very stiffy in his upper berth of the sleeping compartment and he knew that it was the sixth stop because he‟d countec every one of them. He also knew that the time was exactly twenty five minutes to two and that they should be almost half-way to the border by now. Every other minute he glanced at the luminous dial of his wristwatch, a treasured possession given to him on his ninth birthday. Anything to pass the time, to stop him form falling asleep, to keep him from staring at the blind which, in the blue light of the little bulb over the door, looked like a sheet of shiny metal. But he shouldn‟t be frightened because he was nine years old now. A great big boy, as they kept telling him. Mummy had promised him that there were no monsters outside, it was just his imagination. Robin was frightened and he was only five and a half. Billy leaned over and looked down at his brother, who was curled up fast asleep with his head buried in the pillow. He looked so still he might have been dead. No. Robin wasn‟t frightened, but why should he be? Robin was too young to know why the blinds were pulled down so tightly. He couldn‟t picture the cold desert outside with the white-faced people who stood and watched the trains. Robin didn‟t realize that at every stop there was danger, that at any moment the people would start coming towards them and, if the train didn‟t start again soon, one of them might raise his hand, open the window and begin to climb in. And two of them were there now. Sweat ran down his forehead as he listened. Yes, footsteps were coming across the tracks, somebody was speaking in a low voice, somebody laughed, and there was a tapping noise just below the window. He pulled the blankets up tightly to his chin and tried not to scream, though at nay moment he knew the window come down and he would see a hand slide in under the blind. The tapping stopped, there was another deep laugh and he could picture fingers feeling for the window catch. Then the carriage creaked, the wheels stated to turn. They were on their way again and he was safe. Choose the answer that best completes each sentence. 1. Billy was lying stiffy in the berth because _____ A. he wasn‟t very comfortable. C. he was counting the stops. B. he was afraid D. he had trouble with his back. 2. Why did Billy keep looking at his watch? A. he wanted to know the time. C. it helped him stay awake. B. he was very proud of it. D. it was a birthday present. 3. Billy didn‟t want to look at the window blind because _____ A. it was made of dull metal C. the blue light was shining on it. B. it was behind him. D. he was afraid of what was behind it. 4. Why was Billy ashamed of being scared? A. he was older than his brother B. his brother was older than him. C. his mother thought he was a baby D. he had promised his mother that he wouldn‟t be. 5. When Billy looked at his brother _____ A. he thought he was dead. B. he saw he was lying stretched out on the bed. C. he noticed his head was under the pillow D. He saw he was fast asleep. 6. Why wasn‟t Robin afraid ? A. he understood about the blinds B. he had too much imagination. C. he couldn‟t draw the scene outside the window D. he wasn‟t old enough to understand the danger. 7. What did Billy imagine at every stop? A. he would become dangerous. C. someone outside would put his hand up. B. the train wouldn‟t start again. D. someone might enter the compartment. 8. When the train stopped Billy could hear _____ A. someone speaking to himself. C. someone telling a joke. B. a loud knock below the window. D. several different sounds. 9. Billy felt like screaming because _____ A. he could imagine the window opening. C. the train started suddently B. he couldn‟t hear anything. D. the noise stopped. 10. From the story what do we understand about Billy‟s character? A. he was sensitive and imaginative. C. he was artistic and easily frightened B. he was sensible and clever D. he was fearless and kind. QUESTION 5: Cloze test 1: Read the following text and decide which word best fits each blank. SPORT PHOTOGRAPHY Sport as a spectacle and photography as a way of recording action have developed together. At the turn of the 20th century, Edward Muybridge was experimenting with photographs of movement. His pictures of a

runner (1) _____ in every history of photography. Another milestone was when the scientist and photographer Harold Edgerton (2) _____ the limits of photographic technology with his study of a (3) _____ of milk hitting the surface of a dish. Another advance was the development of miniature cameras in the late 1920s, which made it possible for sports photographers to (4) _____ their cumbersome cameras behind. The arrival of television was a significant development in the transmission of sport. Paradoxically, it was of benefit to still photographers. People who watched a sports event on TV, with all its movement and action, (5) _____ the still image as a reminder of the game. Looking back, we can see how (6) _____ sports photography has changed. (7) _____ sports photographers were as interested in the stories behind the sport as in the sport itself. Contemporary sports photography (8) _____ the glamour of sport, the colour and the action. But the best sports photographers today do more than simply tell the story of the event, or make a (9) _____ of it. They (10) _____ in a single dramatic moment the real emotions of the participants emotions with which people looking at the photographs can identify 1. A. exhibit B. show C. feature D. demonstrate 2. A. enlarged B. extended C. prolonged D. spread 3. A. splash B. drop C. dash D. drip 4. A. put B. keep C. lay D. leave 5. A. chose B. valued C. pointed D. cheered 6. A. highly B. radically C. extremely D. severely 7. A. Initial B. First C. Early D. Primary 8. A. outlines B. signals C. emphasizes D. forms 9. A preservation B. store C. mark D. record 10. A. seize B. grasp C. capture D. secure Cloze test 2: Read the following text and decide which word best fits each blank THE OLDEST BUILDING On a hillside at Chichibu, north of Tokyo, Japanese archeologists have uncovered the remains of what is believed to be the world‟s oldest (1) _____ structure. The structure was discovered during the construction of a park. The site has been dated to half a million years ago, (2) _____ to a report in a scientific magazine. The structure consists of what appear to be 10 post holes, which form two (3) _____ pentagons. These could be the remains of two huts. A (4) _____ of stone tools were also found (5) _____ around the site. It is believed that the shelter was built by an (6) _____ ancestor of humans, Homo erectus, who is known to have used stone tools. The remains of these huts could help to (7) _____ how Homo erectus lived and hunted. What is not known is whether these structures were temporary or more permanent shelters. But they do (8) _____ us that hominids could (9) _____ of using technology to organize things. They had the idea of actually making a structure -a place where they could sleep. It (10) _____ the mental capacity to distinguish between inside and outside. Before this new discovery the oldest remains of a structure were those at Terra Amata in France, from around 200,000 to 400.000 years ago. 1. A. unnatural B. fake C. synthetic D. artificial 2. A. following B. according C. saying D. mentioning 3. A. odd B. shapeless C. irregular D. uneven 4. A. number B. few C. figure D. sum 5. A. thrown B. splashed C. extended D. scattered 6. A. old B. elderly C. antique D. ancient 7. A. explain B, inform C. argue D. answer 8. A. illustrate B. demonstrate C. show D. display 9. A. imagine B. think C. conceive D. plan 10. A. represents B. stands for C. means D. symbolizes zB. PHAN TIT LUAN QUESTION 1: OPEN CLOZE TEST (20 points) OPEN CLOZE TEST 1 MODERN MEDICINE Until quite recently almost everybody in the Western world (1) _____ uncritical faith in the power of medical science. The sulpha drugs introduced in the thirties, drugs (2) _____ as penicillin, and vaccines like (3) _____ developed against polio, as well as sensational advances in surgical techniques, were regarded as demonstrations of the triumph of modern medicine. Now an ever (4) _____ number of people are not so sure. It has become apparent that (5) _____ was in fact cleaner water and better diet and hygiene that won the battle against the fearful epidemics of earlier times. The “wonder” drugs only arrived on the scene (6) _____

the job had largely been done. It has been asserted that (7) _____ having more doctors, more and better equipped hospitals, and more food than any other nation, the U.S.A. is the unhealthiest country in the world. Perhaps an (8) _____ more serious charge is that much modern medical treatment, in particular the administering of drugs on a vast scale, (9) _____ from helping patients, actually makes people ill. More and more people are turning to “alternative” medicine, such as nature cure, acupuncture, or homeopathy. Alternative medicine differs widely from orthodox medicine (10) _____ that it is far less costly, is in practically every case hannless, and treats whole individuals rather than separate, depersonalised symptoms. A further consideration is one that possibly attracts people to it as much as any it does not subject patients to the painful and frightening ordeals that most modern hospitals so often do. OPEN CLOZE TEST 2 Band Manufacture The fate of any pop band is a question that is no longer of interest to its fans alone. Not only has the Prime Minister himself recognised pop music‟s importance (1) _____ a business, pointing (2) _____ that it contributes more (3) _____ export earnings than the steel industry, but strange as it (4) _____ seem, British people spend more on pop music than they do on fruit and vegetables. (5) _____ such serious money washing around, the question of (6) _____ will be the next big thing is (7) _____ too important to be left to random factors such as chance and talent. (8) _____ the great names of British rock in the 60s and 70s formed bands spontaneously before they were discovered and then marketed, their new millennium successors are increasingly (9) _____ to be brought together by marketing men. The Spice Girls, sold as a group of young girls in (10) _____ of their own destiny, were in fact dreamed up and promoted by middle-aged men. Designing a band is much the same as designing any other product: take a basic, successful model and adapt it. The challenge, when everything has been tried already, is to persuade consumers that what you are doing is in some way innovative. QUESTION 2: WORD FORMS A. Give the correct form of the words in brackets: 1. He no longer takes (depress) _____ or tranquillizers. 2. You want me to (cross) _____ the man I work for ? 3. He wore an (fit) _____ green corduroy suit. 4. He loved India with the (mind) _____ devotion that some men give to their work. 5. Rumours and (rumour) _____ will fly in all directions. 6. Grandfather rarely showed the affection he felt for his family. He was a very (demonstrate) _____ person. 7. She complained (cease) _____ about his rudeness. 8. Please ensure that your child‟s sports clothes are clearly marked in (delete) _____ ink. 9. His family suffered from his (expend) _____ 10. A (dominate) _____ friend is one who likes power. B. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the passage: MEDITATION People are often put off mediation by what they see as its many mystical associations. Yet meditation is a (1. straight) _____ technique which merely involves sitting and resting the mind. In addition to its (2. simple) _____ meditation offers powerful help in the battle against stress. Hundreds of studies have shown that meditation, when(3. take) _____ in a principled way, can reduce hypertension which is related to stress in the body. Research has proved that cetain types of meditation can (4. substance) _____ decrease key stress symptoms such as anxiety and (5. irritate) _____ In fact, those who practise meditation with any (6. regular) _____ see their doctors less and spend, on average, seventy per cent fewer days in hospital. They are said to have more stamina, a happier (7.dispose) _____ and even enjoy better relationships. When you learn to meditate, your teacher will give you a personal “mantra” or word which you use every time you practise the technique and which is (8. suppose) _____ chosen. According to your needs. Initial classes are taught individually but(9.sequence) _____ classes usually consist of a group of students and take place over a period of about four days. The aim is to learn how to slip into a deeper state of (10.conscious) _____ for twenty minutes a day. The rewards speak for themselves. QUESTION 3: MISTAKE CORRECTION There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and write the correct answers in the space provided. Let us suppose that you are in the position of a parent. Would you allow your children read any book they wanted to without first checking their content? Would you take them to see any film without first finding whether it is suitable for them? If your answer of these questions is yes, then you are either extremely permissive, or just plain irresponsible. If your answer is not, then you are exercising your right as a parent to protect your children form what you consider to be desirable influences. In other words, by acting as a censor yourself, you are admitting that there is a strong case for censorship.

Children need protection and it is the parents‟ responsibility to provide it. But what about adults? Aren‟t they old enough to decide that is good for them? The answer is that many adults are, but don‟t make the mistake of thinking that all adults are as yourself. Censorship is for the good of society as a whole. Highly civilized people might find it possible to live together without laws of any kind : they would just rely on good sense to solve their problems. But imagine what chaotic there would be if we live in a society without laws! Like the law, censorship contributes to the common good. QUESTION 4 : SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION A. Structures : 1. He stood no chance of passing his exams. It was inevitable __________________________________________________________ 2. You may be disqualified if you don‟t obey the regulations. Failure _________________________________________________________________ 3. It wasn‟t Melanie‟s fault that she ended up breaking the law. Through no ______________________________________________________________ 4. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelop to the above address. Further information can ____________________________________________________ B. Collocations: 5. A great many people will congratulate her if she wins, (showered) _______________________________________________________________________ 6. The new minister seems to be excellent at yielding awkward questions, (flair)‟ _______________________________________________________________________ 7. Going to and fro with all the cases is what I can‟t stand about holidays. It‟s all __________________________________________________________________ C. Idiomatic Expressions 8. We were elated by the birth of our first grandchild (moon) _______________________________________________________________________ 9. This house is very different from the little flat we used to live in (cry) _______________________________________________________________________ 10. That wasn‟t what I meant at all. You‟ve completely misunderstood me as usual (stick) That wasn‟t what I meant at all. You‟ve _______________________________________ ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 12 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 points) 1. PHONOLOGY (5 points) Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from that of the other three words in each question 1. A. eloquence B. secondary C. college D. collection 2. A. wicked B. picked C. licked D. ticked 3. A. foreign B. mountain C. determine D. areca 4. A. ascent B. parachute C. mission D. vicious 5. A. athlete B. ethnic C. asthma D. breath Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question 6. A. accompany B. comfortable C. interview D. dynamism 7. A. disrespectful B. attentiveness C. superior D. untrustworthy 8. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive 9. A. diplomacy B. delicacy C. peninsula D. pneumonia 10. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy 2 STRUCTURE and VOCABULARY (10 points) Choose the best answer 1. His involuntary reflexes betray his feeling. A. automatic B. unbelievable C. unnecessary D. edible 2. _____ in scope, romanticism was a reaction against neoclassical principles. A. Mainly literary B. It was mainly literary C. The main literature was D. The literature was mainly 3. According to the World Health Organization, _____ there to be an outbreak of any of the six most dangerous diseases, this could be cause for quarantine.

A. were B. they were C. there were D. were they 4. The agricultural project suffered a major _____ when winter arrived three weeks earlier than expected. A. distortion B. downfall C. contraction D. setback 5. In prehistoric _____ of western Utah was covered by Lake Bonneville. A. times, a large part B. times, there was a large part C. part of the time D. for large parts of time 6. I can‟t employ him. He doesn‟t have any _____ experience. A. whatsoever B. work C. combat D. inexplicable 7. After the death of the _____, the decline of the empire followed quickly. A. empiricist B. empress C. umpire D. emporium 8. When _____ a European, we should stick to the last name unless he suggests that we use his first name. A, speaking B. discussing C. talking D. addressing 9. _____ become blocked so that heat and moisture could not escape, death would result. A. Were the skin‟s pores to B. The pores of the skin were to C. The skin‟s pores D. If the pores of the skin 10. Mountaineers ___ climb Mount Everest must make reservations to do so, often up to seven years in advance. A. want to B. they want to C. who want D. wanting to 11 .The upper levels of the Sun‟s atmosphere are of very low _____ heats the gases there to very high temperatures. A. dense and solar B. density, solar activity C. density, but solar activity D. density and activity of the Sun is 12. Abraham Lincoln insisted that _____ not just on mere opinion but on moral purpose. A. to base democracy B. for democracy to be based C. democracy should be based D. whenever democracy is based 13. _____ anything suspicious arise; please let me know at once. A. Should B. Would C. Can D. Did 14. He traveled _____ for 20 years and then he decided to return home. A. farther away B. far and wide C. far from it D. farthest of all 15. Living organisms contain more water _____ substance. A. than do any other B. does than any other C.other than do they any D. than any other 16. Ancient civilization such as the Phoenicians and the Mesopotamians‟s _____ goods rather than use money. A. use to trade B. is used to trade C. used to trade D. was used to trade 17. The food my mother cooks is plain but _____. A. delicacy B. wholesome C. tasteful D. savoury 18. The referee _____ the goal because of a previous infringement. A. annulled B. demolished C. disallowed D. disqualified 19. A laser operation on the eyes is _____, so it must be carried out with great care. A. deniable B. irreversible C. advisable D. unremarkable 20. Ozone _____ has been the most severe at the poles , especially over antarctica, where a seasonal ozone layer “hole” appears. A. deterioration B. depletion C. exhaustion D. decomposition 3. PREPOSTIONS and PHRASAL VERBS (5 points) 1. No witnesses to the murder have come _____ and the police are struggling to solve the crime. A. around B. forward C. back D. across 2. When they first met, Kate was quite taken _____ Jim. A. away with B. to C. with D. through 3. The firm will have to step _____ production if it is to defeat its competitors. A. off B. in C. out D. up 4. Mrs Chapman is always polite and considerate _____ her employees. A. towards B. with C. for D. about 5. Once he decided what he wanted , he would _____ it with single mindedness. A. go out of B. go on with C. go after D. go ahead of 6. Despite all the interruptions , he _____ with his work. A. stuck at B. held on C. hung out D. pressed on 7. How many people _____ in the storm a few days ago ? A. called by B. passed on C. broke off D. gave off

8. I was _____ in a month in autumn 18 years ago. A. taken up B. put up C. given to D. brought forth . 9. Why don‟t you have a night out ? It would take your _____ off your worries. A. thoughts B. heart C. head D. mind 10. I‟m afraid we haven‟t got a spare bed . Can you _____ with a mattress on the floor ? A. make do B. make by C. make over D. make up 4. READING COMPREHENSION (10 points) 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions (5 points) Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man‟s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift - footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the world. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. 1. The title for this passage could be _____ . A. “Desert Plants” B. “Life Underground” C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Man‟s Life in a Desert Environment” 2. The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means _____ . A. “the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own” B. “collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants” C. “very small living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants” D. “the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants” 3. Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as . A. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert B. water is an essential part of his existence C. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things D. very few large animals are found in the desert 4. The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _____ . A. water-loving animals B. the coyote and the bobcat C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals 5. According to the passage, creatures in the desert _____ . A. run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest B. run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest C. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world 6. The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT _____ . A. they sleep during the day B. they dig home underground C. they are noisy and aggressive D. they are watchful and quiet 7. The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means A. “living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm” B. “able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating” C. “large and strong, difficult to control or deal with” D. “thin and weak because of lack of food and water” . 8. According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that . A. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B. they are less healthy than animals living in other places C. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees D. they live in an accommodating environment 9. The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means _____ .

A. “places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young” B. “holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in” C. “structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept” D. “places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found” 10. We can infer from the passage that _____ . A. living things adjust to their environment B. water is the basis of desert life C. desert life is colorful and diverse D. healthy animals live longer lives 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions (5 points) Although only a small percentage of the electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by the Sun is ultraviolet (UV) radiation, the amount that is emitted would be enough to cause severe damage to most forms of life on Earth were it all to reach the surface of the Earth. Fortunately, all of the Sun‟s ultraviolet radiation does not reach the Earth because of a layer of oxygen, called the ozone layer, encircling the Earth in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 15 miles above the Earth. The ozone layer absorbs much of the Sun‟s ultraviolet radiation and prevents it from reaching the Earth. Ozone is a form of oxygen in which each molecule consists of three atoms (03) instead of the two atoms (02) usually found in an oxygen molecule. Ozone forms in the stratosphere in a process that is initiated by ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. UV radiation from the Sun splits oxygen molecules with two atoms into free oxygen atoms, and each of these unattached oxygen atoms then joins up with an oxygen molecule to form ozone. UV radiation is also capable of splitting up ozone molecules; thus, ozone is constantly forming, splitting, and reforming in the stratosphere. When UV radiation is absorbed during the process of ozone formation and reformation, it is unable to reach Earth and cause damage there. Recently, however, the ozone layer over parts of the Earth has been diminishing. Chief among the culprits in the case of the disappearing ozone, those that are really responsible, are the chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs meander up from Earth into the stratosphere, where they break down and release chlorine. The released chlorine reacts with ozone in the stratosphere to form chlorine monoxide (CIO) and oxygen (02). The chlorine then becomes free to go through the cycle over and over again. One chlorine atom can, in fact, destroy hundreds of thousands of ozone molecules in this repetitious cycle, and the effects of this destructive process are now becoming evident. . 1. According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation from the Sun A. is causing severe damage to the Earth‟s ozone layer B. is only a fraction of the Sun‟s electromagnetic radiation C. creates electromagnetic radiation D. always reaches the Earth 2. The word “encircling” in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. rotating B. attacking C. raising D. surrounding 3. It is stated in the passage that the ozone layer A. enables ultraviolet radiation to reach the Earth B. reflects ultraviolet radiation C. shields the Earth from a lot of ultraviolet radiation D. reaches down to the Earth 4. According to the passage, an ozone molecule A. consists of three oxygen molecules B. contains more oxygen atoms than the usual oxygen molecule does C. consists of two, oxygen atoms D. contains the same number of atoms as the usual oxygen molecule 5. The word “free” in line 11 could best be replaced by A. liberal B. gratuitous C. unconnected D. emancipated 6. Ultraviolet radiation causes oxygen molecules to A. rise to the stratosphere B. burn up ozone molecules C. split up and reform as ozone D. reduce the number of chlorofluorocarbons 7. The word “culprits” in line 18 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. Guilty parties B. Detectives C. Group members D. Leaders 8. According to the passage, what happens after a chlorine molecule reacts with an ozone molecule? A. The ozone breaks down into three oxygen atoms B. Two different molecules are created. C. The two molecules combine into one molecule. D. Three distinct molecules result. 9. Where in the passage does the author explain how much damage chlorine can do? A. Lines 1-3 B. Lines 12-14 C. Lines 18-19 D. Lines 20-22 10. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses A. the negative results of the cycle of ozone destruction

B. where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) come from C. the causes of the destruction of ozone molecules D. how electromagnetic radiation is created 5. CLOZE TEST (10 points) Read the following passage carefully and then choose best option to fit each space (5 points) The 18th-century battlefield was, compared with that of the 20th-century, an intimate theatre, especially intimate in the (1) _____ of the Revolution, which was usually small even by the standards of the day. Soldiers had to come to close quarters to kill; this fact reduced the mystery of the battle, though perhaps not its terrors. But at least the battle field lost some of its impersonality. In fact, in (2) _____ to (with) the 20lhcentury combat, in which the enemy usually remains unseen and the source of incoming fire unknown, in the 18th-century battles the enemy could be seen and sometimes even (3) _____. (4) _____ one‟s enemy may have arose a singular (5) _____ of feeling uncommon in modem battles. Before the (6) _____ occurred tension and anxiety (7) _____ up as the troops marched from their column into a line of attack. The (8) _____ of their movements was well understood by themselves and their enemies, who mest have watched with feeling of dread and fascination. When the order came sending them (9) _____,rages, even madness replaced the attacker‟s (10) _____, while terror and desperation filled those who received the charge. 1. A. success B. engagement C. attachment D. independence 2. A. connection B. contrast C. contract D. link 3. A. stroked B. touched C. seen D. confronted 4. A. Seeing B. Dealing C. Fighting D. Killing 5. A. despair B. sadness C. intensity D. stress 6. A. assault B. confrontation C. obedience D. order 7. A. stored B. kept C. set D. built 8. A. notion B. purpose C. reason D. trace 9. A. upward B. outward C. forward D. downward 10. A. anxiety B. sympathy C. passions D. nerves Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase to fill in the blank in the following passage (5 points) Market research has become more and more important in recent years. In some organizations, in fact, managers will not initiate any activity without market research to back them up. The first thing to be said about market research is that it is not an (1) _____ to management decision making. No form of market research, no matter how deep, complicated and detailed, can ever be seen as a substitute (2) _____ creative decision - making by professional managers. At its very best, all it can do is (3) _____ some doubt and clarify the nature of the problem. It may even be seen as a tool which can improve the (4) _____ of decisions but it is not in itself a decision-making mechanism. Market research, in (5) _____ with a number of other approaches in marketing, suffers from the frequent (6) _____ that it is not really accurate. Market research results can never be completely accurate because they (7) _____ with a dynamic, ever-changing marketplace. It is vital that this is understood by everyone with an imagination when considering market research results and when making any (8) _____ to apply them in the marketplace. Lastly, it should always be remembered that market research is not an end in itself but simply a (9) _____ by which some degrees of risk can be removed from marketplace activity. If no activity results from the research, then the entire exercise has been completely (10) _____. 1. A. option B. alternative C. end D. opening 2. A. at B. from C. for D. with 3. A. reject B. omit C. deny D. remove 4. A. quality B. goodness C. well-being D. virtue 5. A. association B. common C. addition D. connection 6. A. complaint B. compliment C. refusal D. congratulation 7. A. work B. manage C. deal D. operate 8. A. attempt B. venture C. choice D. try 9. A. mode B. means C. way D. progress 10. A. costless B. invaluable C. priceless D. pointless B. WRITTEN TEST (70 points) 1. OPEN CLOZE TEST (20 points) Fill in each blank with the most suitable word of your choice (10 points) Birds are migratory animals. The (1) _____ to fly enables them to travel great distances. Birds also have

an exceptional ability to (2) _____ accurately over great distances. During migration, bird often have to fly over hostile territory. The long journeys are also physically (3) _____. Why then do birds migrate? Migration is linked to (4) _____ supply and survival. In winter, the amount of food available is low. The cold weather is another reason why many birds migrate. The journey of migrating bird is (5) _____ into many stages. Between each stage, the birds stop to feed. The time spent feeding (6) _____ on the length of the stage ahead. It has been proven that the ability to determine which (7) _____ to fly in autumn is inherited. Birds make use of the sun to (8) _____ themselves. Since early time, it has been observed that migratory birds have a tendency to get disoriented when the sun is totally (9) _____ by cloud. Birds are also able to navigate at night. They orientate themselves by using the north-sound axis about which the night sky seems to rotate. In recent times, it has been (10) _____ that some birds are even able to find their way by making use of the Earth‟s magnetic field. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10 points) True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1) _____ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness (2) _____ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3) _____ of quality and effect. (4) _____ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same (5) _____ passive awareness, in which our bodies are (6) _____ rest while our minds are awake. Moreover, it is as natural (7) _____ a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (8) _____ relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do,(9) _____ as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, (10) _____ than one of exhaustion. 2. WORD FORMS (20 points) Complete the following sentences with the suitable forms of the words given (10 points) 1. We (judge) _____ how long it would take us, so the ceremony was over by the time we arrived. 2. My mother‟s hair became (mature) _____ grey when she was only 35. 3. Many countries have passed (smoke) _____ laws recently because of the increase in tobaco-related illnesses. 4. Male students (number) _____ female students in the maths department of most universities. 5. As far as I concerned the book is completely (rate) _____. I found it really heavy-going. 6. George is very narrow-minded. He will only read (government) _____ newspapers and won‟t admit any criticism. 7. Their currency has been (value) _____ again in the hope that the move will halt inflation. 8. As several people could not attend today‟s meeting it has been (schedule) _____ for next Tuesday. 9. My boss‟s negative attitude to everything is very (motivate) _____ for the staff. 10. The other team completely (play) _____ us and we lost 6-0. Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given in the box (10 points) A man takes a single (1) _____ of a substance and puts it in his mouth. Instantly he is transported to another world, a place of surreal visions and swirling colours. He rushes (2) _____ into this parallel universe. What is this (3) _____ compound with the power to induce such a mind-blowing trip? Is it some kind of drug that makes the user hallucinate? No, it‟s just a humble cereal ad on TV. The Fruity Wheat ad is the latest in a long line of (4) _____ ads whose imagery appears to draw on the effects of mind-altering substances. Colin Rees of the „Stop TV Advertising‟ group, said: “I find this and other such ads totally (5) _____ Take this stuff and you will experience something out of this world - the (6) _____ of the ad seems clear to me. The companies who make them will say that any relation to drugs is just one (7) _____ of the advert, and not one that they (8) _____.When I complained about this ad, I was told that it didn‟t contain any (9) _____ messages. I thought that was a bit rich - I think the message in it is blatantly obvious! And I don‟t think we should be giving TV viewers any (10) _____ in that respect.” 3. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 points) In most line of the following text, there is one unnecessary word. It is either grammatically incorrect or does not fit in with the sense of the text. For each numbered linel-10, if the line is correct , put a () by the number. If the line has a word which should not be there, write that word by the number. DISCOVERY OF STAINLESS STEEL. Stainless steel was discovered by an accident in 1913 by 0/ an the British metallurgist Harry Brearley. He was 00/  experimenting with steel alloys-combinations of metals- l/ _____ that they would be suitable for making gun barrels. A few 2/ _____ months later he had noticed that most of his rejected 3/ _____

specimens had rusted although one was containing 14 4/ _____ percent chromium had not. The discovery led to the 5/ _____ development of stainless steel. Ordinary steel goes rusts 6/ _____ because it reacts easily with oxygen in the air to produce 7/ _____ crumbly red iron oxides. Other metals, such as 8/ _____ aluminium, nickel and chromium, also react in a much the 9/ _____ same way but their oxides form an impermeable surface 10/ _____ layer, stopping oxygen to reacting with the metal underneath with Brearley‟s steel, the chromium formed such as a film, protecting the metal from further attack. 4. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points) Rewrite the following sentences , using the given words, Do not alter these words. 1. Hard work was what caused Jill‟s success. PUT → Jill‟s success can _______________________________________________________ 2. I need a calculator to arrive at the total. WORK → I can‟t _____ a calculator. 3. There‟s no need to feel superior to everyone else. NOSE → You shouldn‟t _________________________________________________________ 4. When she sold the jewellery at such a low price, she was cheated. RIDE → _____________________________________________________________________ 5. Any personal involvement on the part of the Prime Minister in this scandal would be disastrous. CAUGHT → _____________________________________________________________________ Finish each of the following sentences so that it means the same as the printed one. 6. Even if they don‟t like it, I‟m not going away with my parents this year. → Whether ______________________________________________________________ 7. Jane shut the door with her keys still inside. → What happened ________________________________________________________ 8. It was Peter who pointed the mistake out to me. → Peter drew ____________________________________________________________ 9. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early. → But for _______________________________________________________________ 10. It‟s highly unlikely that the meeting will end before 7.00. → The chances ___________________________________________________________ ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 13 I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIẸM Câu hỏi 1: (5 điểm) 1. Phonology Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. 1. A. giant B. gigantic C. huge D. language 2. A. doubt B. bomb C. comb D. rob 3. A. sesame B. resume C. recipe D. catastrophe 4. A. stood B. boot C. foot D. good 5. A. breath B. path C. smooth D. loath Choose the word with the different stress pattern. 6. A. guitar B, concern C. parade D. detail 7. A. maximum B. procedure C. enormous D. potential! 8. A. politics B. advantage C. predator D. energy 9. A. available B. environment C. alternative D. entertainment 10. A, atmosphere B. introduce C. volleyball D. industry Câu hỏi 2: (5 điểm) 2. Vocabulary Choose the best answer. 1. It was _____ justice for Ted to receive a parking fine when he was at the doctor‟s. A. poetic B. only C. small D. rough

2. Always having had _____ feet, Delia is off again, backpacking round India. A. itchy B. scratchy C. sore D. light 3. He‟s nice enough as a neighbor, but as a businessman, he is as _____ as nails. A. tough B. heavy C. difficult D. hard 4. Once at the skating rink, Ivan was allowed to skate to his heart‟s _____ A. happiness B. contentment C. content D. delight 5. Investors have taken _____ from the improving economic situation. A. heart B. courage C. consolation D. meaning 6. Traffic is being _____ from the High Street while the water main is under repair. A. averted B. perverted C. diverted D. subverted 7. While you pedal away on the exercise bicycle, a machine will be _____ your breathing and heart rate. A. reviewing B. screening C. surveying D. monitoring 8. As he was caught in _____ of an offensive weapon, he was immediately a suspect. A. possession B. ownership C. handling D. control 9. You may think him rather on the quiet _____ when you first meet him, but he can be extremely witty. A. hand . B. side C. part D. level 10. Would you like to try out this _____ shaver? A. electric B. electrical C. electronic D. electrified Câu hỏi 3: (5 điểm) 3. Structures and grammar Choose the best answer. 1. Alice Freeman, _____ president of Wellesley College at the age of 27, is one of the youngest presidents in history. A. who is appointed B. who was appointed C. that is appointed D. whom has been appointed 2. Would you rather _____ the lunch, if you feel tired? A. I cook B. cooking C. cook D. I cooked 3. Of the two drivers, Mr Blake is very experienced and _____ A. the others are not B. the other is not C. another is not D. other is not 4. The weekend football match was cancelled _____ the heavy rain. A. as a result from B. on account of C. due for D. because with 5. It‟s urgent that the boss _____ a meeting to discuss the problem. A. called B. calls C. to call D. call 6. Either you or Daisy _____ the vase. There is no one else in the room. A. has broken B. have broken C. has been broken D. have been broken 7. _____ Mary, give her my best regards. A. If you had seen B. Do you see C. By seeing D. Should you see 8. In the US, _____ the states but Hawaii is an island. A. neither of B. none of C. not any D. all of 9. _____ I admire his intelligence, I can‟t stand his stubbornness. A. Much as B. Whatever C. Despite D. As long as 10. Suppose I _____ half the money I owe you. Would that satisfy you? A. will pay B. would pay C. pay D. paid Câu hỏi 4: (5 điểm) 4. Prepositions and phrasal verbs Choose the best answer. 1. He threw _____ his studies when he was offered a well-paid sales job. A. up B. away C. out D. off 2. The play _____ for a lot of criticism when it first opened. A. came in B. was up C. met with D. took out 3. When you make _____ the check, please make it payable to Mrs. Smith. A. down B. out C. up D. over 4. The team had to _____ out of the competition because of injuries. A. leave B. go C. put D. pull 5. How did you ever get _____ that policeman to let you park here? A. over B. on C. round D. with 6. He is handing the post _____ to his successor at the end of the month. A. out B. on C. off D. over 7. If we don‟t pay the bill tomorrow, they‟ll cut _____ our electricity. A. down B. off C. up D. away

8. I saw Ben in the town this morning and he asked _____ you. A. after B. about C. on D. over 9. The Densons have had to _____ off the party because their daughter is ill. A. pull B. call C. throw D. have 10. The audience behaved calmly when the bomb _____ off. A. came B. blew C. went D. ran Câu hỏi 5a: (5 điểm) 5. Reading comprehension a Read the following passage and circle the Setter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Exquisite patterns and surface ornamentation were an integral part of the aesthetics of the late Victorian era. In America, these developments, were incorporated into the themes of national expositions and artistic movements, as cottage industries grew and productivity in the decorative arts flourished. The last three decades of the 19th century saw a change in sensibility that resulted in new stylistic approaches in American decorative arts, a departure from the previous era of Rococo and Renaissance Revival excess. Shapes became more angular, smoother and less flamboyant. The popular carvings and deep modeling of earlier years disappeared as ornamentation became more linear and lighter in appearance. Decoration focused on the surface with rich and elegant patterns adorning furniture, objects of every sort, and architectural and interior decorations. This artistic reawakening was prompted by the effects of the Industrial Revolution on contemporary design. This new attitude, with its focus on ornament and the decorative, was later referred to as the Aesthetic Movement, but it also encompassed the early Arts and Crafts Movement as well. The purpose was to bring a refined sensibility and components of “good taste” to the domestic interior. Art and good taste not only denoted good character, but also could be used to induce proper moral conduct and actions, thereby contributing to the betterment of society. This placed a heavy burden on designers/decorators as well as on women as keepers of the home. Americans drew inspiration from the writing and work of English artists. This was a period of great eclecticism. Tastes ranged from the Modern Gothic through the Persian, Greek and Islamic, to the Japanese, and with more than a nod to Mother Nature. Yet, regardless of the influence, surface pattern reigned supreme. English reformers dictated that ornament should be derived from nature, and pattern should be flat and stylized. Forms were accentuated by colored outlines, or often with touches of gold. The emphasis was on art and on development of a refined sensibility. It was all a matter of taste. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. defining the “Aesthetic Movement” B. decorative arts in late 19th century America C. English influences on American decorative arts in the late 19th century D. The change in tastes from “Rocco and Renaissance Revival” to the “Aesthetic Movement” in late 19th century America 2. The word “integral” in line 1 is closest in meaning to A. essential B. additional C. important D. beautifying 3. According to the passage, during the Aesthetic Movement popular carvings and deep modeling of earlier years _____ A. were popular B. again became popular C. disappeared D. defined good taste 4. The word “elegant” is closest in meaning to _____ A. beautiful B. ornamental C. colorful D. refined 5. According to the passage, the purpose of the Aesthetic Movement was to _____ A. induce proper moral conduct and actions B. define what was meant by good taste in the domestic interior C. encompass Arts and Crafts as well as ornament an decoration D. define good character and contribute to the betterment of society 6. The phrase “new attitude” refers to _____ A. including the early Arts and Craft Movement as well B. artistic reawakening C. the Industrial Revolution D. Rococo and Renaissance Revival 7. The word “denoted” is closest in meaning to _____ A. promoted B. facilitated C. developed D. signified 8. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. designers and decorators were mainly responsible for starting the new attitude B. the movement led to a higher standard of morality in late 19th century America C. the Americans considered the English to be the arbiters of good taste D. women, as keepers of the home, faced a heavy burden 9. According to the passage, which of the following remained most important, regardless of influences from other countries? A. surface pattern B. English opinions C. good taste D. Proper moral conduct and actions 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the Aesthetic Movement? A. shapes became less flamboyant B. ornamentation became lighter in appearance C. forms were accentuated by colored lines D. decorations focused mainly on furniture Câu hỏi 5b: (5 điểm) Reading comprehension b Read the passage then choose from the list A-L given below the best phrase to fill each space. INDO-EUROPEAN LANGUAGES Today, most European languages, and many Asian languages (1) _____, are very similar to each other. (2) _____ about memorizing French word lists in school, these so-called „Indo-European‟ languages resemble English and each other in terms of vocabulary and grammar (3) _____. Only 140 of the modern world‟s 5,000 tongues belong to this language family, (4) _____. (5) _____ especially people from England, Spain, Portugal, France and Russia - nearly half of the world‟s present population now speaks an IndoEuropean language (6) _____. When, however, we go to parts of the world (7) _____, we realize how unusual Europe‟s linguistic similarity is, and how it calls for explanation. For example, in areas of the New Guinea highlands (8) _____, we find languages as different as English from Chinese (9) _____ . Eurasia must have originally been as diverse until some people speaking the mother tongue of Indo-European language family began to dominate and pushed almost all other European languages (10) _____. A. as well as French B. out of existence C. with great linguistic diversity D. as its native tongue E. but their importance is far out of proportion to their numbers F. being spoken in neighboring areas G. as far as east India H. which must have originated outside Europe I. Thanks to the global expansion of Europeans since 1492 J. No matter how much we complain K. where contact with the outside world began only in the 20th century L. yet differ in this respect from all the world‟s other languages Câu hỏi 6 a (5 điểm) Cloze Test a Read the following passage and choose the best option to fill each blank. EARLY EUROPEAN DOLLS Dolls have existed as children‟s playthings for of years. However, they were (1) _____ manufactured as toys in large numbers in Germany in the fifteenth century. The centres of the industry were factories at Nuremberg, Augsburg, and Sonneberg. The dolls were primitive and (2) _____ of wood, clay, rags, and wax. They were dressed in clothes to (3) _____ German women of the time. Soon factories in England, France, Holland, and Italy, as well as Germany, began producing dolls dressed in fashions (4) _____ of their respective countries. Another (5) _____ of doll, “lady” dolls, were extremely expensive and elegant, and were used as gifts (6) _____ the aristocracy. These dolls, and the “fashion” dolls, which were later manufactured in Paris, have remained popular .ever since. Such dolls were often used to model the latest clothing trends and were sent from one country to another to show off the latest fashions. Today they are prized collector‟s (7) _____ By the 17th century, however, simpler dolls began to appear, made of cloth or leather, and these were very (8) _____ as toys for both boys and girls. There were several improvements in manufacturing. Dolls‟ heads became more realistic, and new materials were used. (9) _____ in the 18th century manufacturers developed soft leather which (10) _____ like human skin, and this was used in the more expensive dolls. Dolls began to look, feel, and move more like humans.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

A. initially A. fabricated A. resemblance A. clothes A. brand A. among A. dolls A. adapted A. Soon A. resembled

B. factored B. construction B. be as B. typical B. make B. for B. things B. suitable B. But B. fits

C. first C. fabric C. look like C. those C. breed C. to C. prizes C. useful C. Early C. covering

D. final D. made D. appear D. famous D. type D. with D. items D. utilised D. When D. felt

Câu hỏi 6 b: (5 điểm) Cloze Test b Read the following passage and choose the best option to fill each blank. FIVE WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY • Pay better attention at the time. Rehearse the information immediately (1) _____, allowing (2) _____ longer gaps between each repetition. Thus, when you hear a name, say it to yourself, then say it again a minute later, and so on. • Tax your brain in a (3) _____ of ways. One researcher found that rats given many interesting things to do had better memories than (4) _____ rats. • Attach (5) _____ to memory - the more significant an event is, the better it will be remembered. • Attach what you want to remember to something (6) _____ familiar to you. Let‟s (7) _____ you need to remember ten words: start by memorizing things that are well known to you (8) _____, such as objects in your house, then associate one of the words with each. • Have (9) _____ in your ability to remember things. Don‟t (10) _____ your brain. 1. A. then B. after C. later D. afterwards 2. A. undoubtedly B. increasingly C. incredibly D. terribly 3. A. heap B. variety C. number D. range 4. A. „fat‟ B. „old‟ C. „lazy‟ D. „bored‟ 5. A. importance B. meaning C. attention D. information 6. A. is B. already C. instead D. yet 7. A. say B. example C. take D. suppose 8. A. manually B. locally C. personally D. individually 9. A. determination B. trust C. belief D. confidence 10. A. underestimate B. uphold C. degrade D. overtake II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN Câu hỏi 1 a: (10 điểm) Open cloze test a Complete the passage, using ONE word in each space. Anthropologists have pieced together the little they know about the history of left - handedness and righthandedness from indirect evidence. (1) _____ early men and women did not leave written records, they did leave tools, bones, and pictures. Stone Age hand axes and hatchets were (2) _____ from stones that were carefully chipped away to form sharp cutting edges. In some the pattern of chipping shows that these tools and weapons were made by right-handed (3) _____ designed to fit comfortably into a right hand. Other Stone Age implements were made by or for left-handers. Prehistoric pictures, painted on the (4) _____ of caves, provide further clues (5) _____ the handedness of ancient people. A right-hander finds it easier to draw faces of people and animals facing toward the left, (6) _____ a lefthander finds it easier to (7) _____ faces facing toward the right. Both kinds of faces have been found in ancient painting. On the whole the evidence seems to indicate that prehistoric people were (8) _____ ambidextrous or about equally likely to be left- or righthanded. But in the Bronze Age the picture changed. The tools and weapons found from that period are mostly made (9) _____ right - handed use. The predominance of right-handedness among humans today had apparently already (10) _____ established. Câu hỏi 1 b: (10 điểm) Open cloze test b Complete the passage, using ONE word in each space. The oldest living things on Earth are trees. Some of California‟s sequoias have for four thousand years

looked (1) _____ on the changes in the landscape and the comings and goings of humans. They sprouted from tiny seeds about the time the Egyptian pyramids (2) _____ being built. Today these giant patriarchs seem (3) _____ remote and inaccessible as the rocks arid mountain cliffs on which they grow, like cathedral columns holding up the sky. St is hard to imagine them (4) _____ any part: in the lives of mere humans or being in any way affected by the creatures that pass at their feet. Lesser trees, however, have played an intimate role in the lives of people (5) _____ they first appeared on Earth. Trees fed the fires that warmed humans: they (6) _____ shelter, food and medicine and even clothing. They also shaped people‟s spiritual horizons. Trees expressed the grandeur and mystery of life, as they moved through the cycle of seasons, from life to (7) _____ and back to life again. Trees were the largest living (8) _____ around humans and they knew that some trees had (9) _____ standing on the same spot in their parent‟s and grandparents‟ time, and would continue to stand long after they were gone. No (10) _____ these trees became symbols of strength, fruitfulness, and everlasting life. Câu hỏi 2 a: (10 điểm) Word forms a Complete the sentences, using the correct form of the word given. 1. Don‟t _____ I Nothing bad really happened. (DRAMA) 2. Pop art was an _____ art style in which commonplace objects were used as subject matter. (CONVENTION) 3. They grow up in the city knowing nothing else but what the Irish (11) _____ call “the troubles”. (EUPHEMISM) 4. We‟ve run out of _____ floss so we must remember to buy some. (DENTIST) 5. The _____ of those mountainous villages is the greatest achievement of this government. (ELECTRIC) 6. Her _____ in helping the poor earned her admiration in the neighbourhood. (SELF) 7. They _____ go to the pub before dinner on Sunday. (VARY) 8. He‟s by no means _____ He‟s just lazy! (INTELLIGENCE) 9. Is it possible to _____ between a hobby and an interest? (DISTINCT) 10. Many researchers hold the _____ that brain waves are significant. (CONVINCE) Câu hỏi 2 b: (10 điểm) Word form b Complete the passage, using the words given in the box in their correct form. corrupt critic dedicate employ establish excel journalism nature origin support Joseph Pulitzer was born in 1847 in Mako, Hungary. He emigrated to the United States when he was seventeen years old, and was (1) _____ on his twentieth birthday. He spent his career in journalism working in the mid-west and New York. From 1871 he was also the owner or part-owner of many newspapers. His most famous newspaper was the New York World. The World campaigned against (2) _____, and exposed many scandals. It was also a strong (3) _____ of the rights of the working man. In later life, Joseph Pulitzer collapsed from overwork, and lost his sight. He became (4) _____ to improving the quality of journalism in America, and donated $1 million to Columbia University to found a school of journalism. However, his most significant contribution was the (5) _____ of the Pulitzer prizes in his will. These prizes for (6) _____ in journalism have been given every year since 1917 by Columbia University. Since 1942 there have been extra categories for press photography, and later still for (7) _____ feature writing and commentary. The prize was (8) _____ for $500, but today the winners of the prize receive a gold medal. However, the real value of the prize is that it confirms that the (9) _____ who has received the award is the best American journalist of the year - a fact that is worth much more than $500 to the journalist and to the newspaper that (10) _____ him or her. 3. Câu hỏi 3: Sửa lỗi sai (10 điểm) rror identification Read the passage and look carefully at each line. Tick () the Hues which are correct. If you find a mistake in a tine, underline it and suggest an alternative. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00). Write your answers in the corresponding box provided. Suitably Dressed Today the notion of “suitable clothing” is dying down. It 0/ out would now appear that, to all intents and purposes, 00/  anything goes. At one time , it was possible to tell at a l/ _____ glance the difference among someone dressed for work and 2/ _____

someone en route to a nightclub. And, needless to tell, the same clothes would never have been worn to both. However, in the last thirty years, we had undergone a sea change in our ideas of what a dress code consists of. Even well into these 1960s, male air travellers were expected to dress a suit; these days it would come as no surprise to find them in short and trainers. In fact, such has been the revolution in our own dress codes than we may find us dressing down to go to work and dressing up to go out in the evening. There are occasions, a wedding or a funeral, for example, when only certain clothes will do.

3/ 4/ 5/ 6/ 7/ 8/ 9/ 10/

_____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____

Câu hỏi 4: Biến đổi câu (20 điểm) Sentence transformation 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. 1. The authorities failed to provide adequate warnings, which has caused considerable concern. Considerable concern ______________________________________________________ 2. The restoration of communications and essential services is of prime importance for the council. The first ________________________________________________________________ 3. His memory gradually failed as he grew old. The older _______________________________________________________________ 4. Trudging through malaria-infested swamps demanded tremendous strength of character. It took _________________________________________________________________ 2. Write a new sentence using the word given. Do not alter the word in any way. 5. I enjoy being the boss of a small company. FISH _______________________________________________________________________ . 6. He modestly understated his part in the rescue. DOWN _______________________________________________________________________ . 7. We have made neither a profit nor a loss this year. EVEN _______________________________________________________________________ . 3. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not alter the word given. 8. I know you‟ll find it hard to believe, but I don‟t know‟ how to chat on the Internet. SEEM Unlikely _____ how to chat on the Internet. 9. We must always bear in mind that many scientific breakthroughs arc due to luck. SIGHT We must _____ a large part in many scientific breakthroughs. 10. When it comes to friendship, I prefer having a few close friends to many acquaintances. RATHER As far _____ a few close friends than many acquaintances.

___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 14 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY * Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. ban B. inflation C. endangered D. landscapes 2. A. within B. fathom C. anthem D. with 3. A. brood B. broomstick C. foolscap D. brooch 4. A. contribute B. syndrome C. home D. microphone 5. A. mosaic B. conserve C. reserve D. poison * Choose the word that is stressed differently from the others in the list. 6. A. diversity B. amphibians C. ecotourist D. courageous 7. A. control B. severe C. install D. moonlight 8. A. hurriedly B. apartheid C. preparatory D. determine 9. A. humpback B. strengthen C. reduce D. rescue 10. A. mysterious B. preferential C. modernity D. historical II. VOCABULARY & STRUCTURE 1. People in financial difficulties sometimes fall ________to unscrupulous money lenders. A. prey B. fool C. scapegoat D. sacrifice 2. Fie was caught using forged bank notes to pay for goods and charged with A. deception B. fraud C. embezzlement D. theft 3. Don‘t stick your elbows out when you eat. ________ them in by your sides. A. Bend B. Place C. Tuck D. Turn 4. I was in no way prepared for the ________ of criticism my play received. A. onslaught B. onset C. offensive D. assault 5. She ________ affection from her children but they neglected her shamefully. A. yearned B. craved C. hungered D. desired 6. I‘ve got such a ________ headache that I can‘t concentrate on the lecture. A. beating B. drumming C. hammering D. throbbing 7. Race relations in this country are unlikely to improve until people overcome their ________ feelings of hostility towards foreigners. A. interior B. internal C. inverted D. innate 8. I utterly ________ your argument. In my opinion, you have distorted the facts. A. confound B. refute C. dispute D. decline 9. I offer you my most ________ apologies for offending you as I did. A. repentant B. servile C. abject D. candid 10. When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of ________. A. proportion B. introspection C. relativity D. comparison 11. All the way along the winding street ________. A. he came B. came he C. did he come D. comes he 12. ________ before, his first performance for the amateur dramatic group was a success. A. Though having never acted B. Despite he had never acted C. As he had never acted D. In spite of his never haying acted 13. There‘s no point in telephoning him. He‘s certain ________ by now. A. to leave B. to have left C. left D. having left 14. The bank is reported in the local newspaper ________ in broad daylight. A. to be robbed B. robbed C. to have been robbed D. having been robbed 15. ―Eric is really upset about losing his job.‖ - ―Well, ________ once myself, I can understand.‖ A. having been fired B. Fired C. having fired D. being fired 16. Clothing made of plastic fibers has certain advantages over ________ made of natural fibers like cotton, wool, or silk. A. what B. the one C. that D. which 17. I‘m not by ________ a particularly ambitious man. A. inclination B. habit C. character D. tendency 18. The government would be forced to use its emergency powers ________ further rioting to occur. A. should B. did C. were D. had 19. It is essential to be on the ________ for any signs of movement in the undergrowth since there are poisonous snakes in the area.

A. guard B. care C. alarm D. alert 20. ________, he remained optimistic. A. Though badly wounded he was B. Badly wounded as he was C. As he was badly wounded D. As badly wounded he was III. READING COMPREHENSION Passage 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. Since the 20th century, magazines have been a major growth area of popular publishing. Specialist magazines cater to every imaginable field and activity. In the United Kingdom, over 12,000 periodicals, magazines, bulletins, annuals, trade journals and academic journals are published on a regular basis. There are some 40 women‘s magazines and over 60 dealing with particular sports, games, hobbies, and pastimes. Although some U. S. magazines such as The Saturday Evening Post, has succumbed to the competition of television, many continue to have enormous international circulations, The Reader‘s Digest over 16 million, The National Geographic over 10 million. For many people, magazines have been the most available and widely used form of continuing education, providing information about history, geography, literature, science, and the arts, as well as guidance on gardening, cooking, home decorating, financial management, psychology, even marriage and family life. Until the rise of television, magazines were the most available form of cheap, convenient entertainment in the English-speaking world. Radio served a similar function, but it was more limited in what it could do. Magazines and television, however, both address the more powerful visual sense. During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincident with a dramatic rise in the popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of business. The shift in attention of a mass audience from reading such magazines to watching television has been a major factor in this decline, but it is an implicit tribute from television to the older genre that its programs are generally organized in a single format and content. 1. The word ―it‖ in bold refers to ________. A. television B. publishing C. entertainment D. radio 2. From the passage, it can be inferred that ________. A. movies have replaced magazines B. the author is fond of magazines C. almost all magazines are printed in English D. home decorating magazines are dramatic 3. According to the passage, which of the following magazines is no longer printed? A. The Saturday Evening Post B. The Reader‘s Digest C. The Nation D. The National Geographic 4. The word ―circulations‖ in bold is closest in meaning to ________. A. the number of blood banks selling magazines B. the number of readers of a magazine C. the number of international magazines D. the number of sold copies of a magazine 5. The passage implies that magazines ________. A. are less visual than radio B. put television out of business C. influence television programs D. have a limited range of subjects 6. Which of the following does the author describe as limited in what it could do? A. radio B. magazines C. movies D. television 7. The word ―succumbed‖ in bold means ________. A. set up for B. brought up for C. taken up by D. given in to 8. The passage mainly discusses ________. A. the rise and fall of the radio business B. the growth and decline of magazines in the 20th century C. magazines and continuing education D. the decline of international circulation 9. The phrase ―every imaginable field,‖ in bold is closest in meaning to A. all imaginary fields in stories and poems B. all images in a camera‘s field of vision C. all professions that one can think of D. all trade journals about farming and psychology 10. What does the author say about mass audiences? A. They have little influence on communications in the 20th century. B. They have gone out of business. C. They get information about gardening and psychology from radio. D. They have shifted their attention from magazines to television. Passage 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. The ruined temples of Angkor are perhaps one of the most impressive Seven Wonders of the World, Located in modern day Cambodia near Lake Tonle Sap, the largest freshwater lake in Asia, Angkor was the seat of power for the Khmer Empire from the ninth to the fifteenth century. The ruins of Angkor are

documented as some of the most impressive ones in the world, rivaling the pyramids of Giza in Egypt. Why this mighty civilization died out is a question that archeologists are now only beginning to ponder. The answer, it turns out, may be linked with the availability of fresh water. One possible explanation for the downfall of the Khmer Empire has to do with the inhabitant‘s irrigation system. The temples and palaces of Angkor were constructed around a series of artificial reservoirs and canals which were annually flooded to capacity by the Mekong River. Once filled, they were used to irrigate the surrounding paddies and farmland during the course of the year. Farmers were completely dependent on the water for their crucial rice crop. Without consistent irrigation, the farmers would have been unable to maintain functional crop production. Scientists speculate that toward the end of the Khmer Empire the hydraulic system of the reservoirs and canals broke down. The construction of hundreds of sandstone temples and palaces required an enormous amount of physical labor. In addition, as the capital of the Khmer Empire, Angkor contained upwards of one hundred thousand people who resided in and around Angkor. In order to feed so many people, the local farmers were driven to grow food more quickly and more efficiently. After centuries of continual use, the irrigation system was pushed beyond its capacity. Soil erosion, nutrient depletion, and loss of water led to decrease in the food supply. With less food available, the people of Angkor slowly began to migrate to other parts of Cambodia thus leaving the marvelous city of Angkor to be swallowed by the jungle. Therefore, it is speculated that the Khmer Empire may have been fallen victim to its own decrepit infrastructure. 1. What is the passage mainly about? A. Modern day agricultural procedures in Cambodia B. Religious temples of the ancient Khmer Empire C. A possible explanation for the decline of a civilization D. The essential role water plays in farming 2. The passage preceding most likely discusses ________. A. architecture of ancient Asian civilization B. religious practices of the people of Angkor C. the form of government practiced by the Khmer Empire D. the other six wonders of the world 3. According to the passage, Lake Tonle Sap in Cambodia ________. A. was unable to supply fish for the people of Angkor B. is one of the Seven Wonders of the world C. is an enormous body of fresh water in Asia D. became polluted due to a population explosion 4. The word ―seal‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. battle B. summit C. location D. chief 5. The hydraulic system of reservoirs . A. supplied irrigation from the Indian Ocean B. helped transport the sandstone for constructing temples C. were destroyed by nearby warrior‘s tribes D. became non-functional due to overuse 6. The word ―artificial‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to . A. man-made B. numerous C. natural D. insincere 7. The word ―they‖ in the passage refers to ________. A. reservoirs and canals B. rice paddies C. temples and palaces D. farmland 8. It can be inferred from the passage that the Khmer Empire ________. A. supplemented their diets with meat hunted in the nearby jungles B. were intentionally starved by the farmers C. lost their food source due to excess rainfall D. depended upon rice as their main source of food 9. All of the following are mentioned as events that can affect food supply EXCEPT ________. A. reduction of nutrients B. contamination of soil C. loss of water supply D. erosion of soil 10. The word ―decrepit‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to . A. incomplete B. deteriorated C. beneficial D. disorganized IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Whenever we read about the natural world nowadays, it is generally to be given dire predictions about its imminent destruction. Some scientists go so far as to assert that from now on, the world can no longer be called ―natural‖, in so far as future processes of weather, (1) ________ and all the interactions of plant and animal life will no longer carry on in their time honored way, unaffected by (2) ________. There will be never such a thing as ―natural weather‖ again, say such writers, only weather manufactured by global warming. It is hard to know whether to believe such (3) ________ of doom, possibly because what they are

saying seems to terrible to be (4) ________. There are other equally influential scientists who argue that climate, for example, has changed many times over the (5) ________, and that what we are experiencing now may simply be part of an endless cycle of change, rather than a disaster on a global (6) ________. One cannot help wondering these attempt to wish the problem be away simply underline the extent to which western industrialized countries are to blame for upsetting the world‘s (7) ________. It is not our fault; they seem to be saying, because everything is all right, really! One certain (8) ________ which is chilling in its implications, is that there is no longer anywhere on the earth‘s (9) ________ whether in the depths of the oceans or in the polar wastes, which is not (10) ________ by polluted air or littered, with empty cans and bottles. Now we are having to come to terms with understanding just what that means, and it is far from easy. 1. A. change B. atmosphere C. climate D. even 2. A. beings B. man C. people D. humans 3. A. prophets B. champions C. warriors D. giants 4. A. stopped B. true C. guessed D. here 5. A. top B. again C. centuries D. world 6. A. sense B. form C. scale D. existence 7. A. future B. ecology C. balance D. population 8. A. fact B. must C. fault D. and 9. A. planet B. atmosphere C. anywhere D. surface 10. A. full B. stained C. breathing D. only B. WRITTEN TEST I. Use the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Man has made great strides in all the fields of science, particularly medicine. For instance, research work in the laboratories at last (1. conquer) ________ poliomyelitis, one of the most devastating diseases. Although the Salk vaccine (2. not be) ________ one hundred percent effective, it (3. decrease) ________ the cases of polio considerably. Tuberculosis once (4. know) ________ as the white plague (5. study) ________ intensively. As a matter of fact, it is curable if it is detected in its early stages. We still have cancer (6. deal) ________ with, but research workers and doctors all over the world are striving to find a way to prevent and cure it. (7. Judge) ________ from past experience we can expect that encouraging news (8. issue) ________ from time to time. Heart disease, the greatest killer of mankind, is now in the process of being overcome. An example of the techniques that (9. develop) ________ is that of heart massage: when a heart stops nowadays while the patient is under anesthesia, the doctor opens the chest, massages the heart and revises the patient. Even a few years ago, such an operation would (10. be) ________ inconceivable. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition (s) or particle (s). 1. Although Mark said that he‘d be there at 8. 00, he didn‘t turn ________ until 10. 30. 2. She takes ________ her father; she has the same gestures and mannerisms. 3. He said he would make me a rich man, but I saw ________ him immediately. 4. We‘ve run ________ coffee. Could you go and buy some? 5. We put ________ a sum of money each month for our summer holidays. 6. He looks ________ his older brother and follows his example in everything. 7. She had to cancel her holiday when she went ________ the flu. 8. I don‘t know if she‘ll get ________ her husband‘s death. 9. He was told to cut ________ sugar and fats or he would suffer serious health problems. 10. We don‘t know yet how we‘ll solve the problem but I‘m sure someone will come _____ a solution soon. III. WORD FORM Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the words in brackets. 1. My daughter left a half ________ orange on the table. (EAT) 2. Most people who work feel that they are ________ (PAY) 3. The teacher warned the children that if they ________ again, they would be punished. (BEHAVE) 4. Are all those ________ they put in food really necessary? (ADD) 5. The manager handed in his ________ after being accused of dishonesty. (RESIGN) 6. A ________ damage was caused by the earthquake. (WIDE) 7. Phil was sentenced to seven-year ________ for his part in the armed robbery. (PRISON) 8. I was late because I ________ how much lime I will need. (ESTIMATE) 9. How can you ________ the fact that some people live in mansions while others live in slums? (JUST)

10. Site is so ________ that she won‘t let anything stand in the way of her ambition. (MIND) IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. Quotations and sayings are part of our language and our way of Line 1: __________ life. As the poet Emerson says, we use them by necessity, to Line 2: __________ remind ourselves to look before we leap or avoid crossing our Line 3: __________ bridges before we come to them. We use them in habit, often not Line 4: __________ realize we are doing so, and we all love to use an apt quotation Line 5: __________ to live conversation or score a point in an argument. This Line 6: __________ booklet contains over a thousand quotations, proverbs and Line 7: __________ sayings. Altogether, they offer a great deal of information, Line 8: __________ advice, amusement and comfort. Emerson writes ―I hate Line 9: __________ quotations‖ so it is undoubtful that he would have used this Line 10: _________ book - but we hope that you will. That you use it to improve Line 11: _________ your knowledge, as an aid to solve crossword puzzles, to enrich Line 12: _________ your own speech or simple for idle reading in your spare time, it Line 13: _________ will put you on touch with some of the cleverest minds of the Line 14: _________ past and present. Happy reading and happy quoting! Line 15: _________ V. OPEN CLOZE TEST * Fill each blank with ONE word. Many of the countries surrounding the Pacific Ocean have helped to create an economic (1) _________ that has become known as the Pacific Rim. In 1944 the geographer N. J. Spykman published a theory about the ―rim‖ of Eurasia. He proposed that the control of the rim land, as he called it, would effectively (2) _________ control of the world. Now, more than fifty years later we can see that part of his theory holds (3) _________, since the power of the Pacific Rim is quite extensive. The Pacific Rim includes countries (4) _________ the Pacific Ocean from North and South America to Asia to Oceania. Most of these countries have experienced major economic change and growth to become components of an economically (5) _________ trade region. Raw material and finished goods are shipped between Pacific Rim states for manufacture, (6) _________, and sale. The Pacific Rim continues to gain strength in the global economy. From the (7) _________ of the Americans to just a few years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had been the leading ocean for the shipment of goods and material. Since the early 1990s, the (8) of goods crossing the Pacific Ocean has been greater than that of goods crossing the Atlantic. Los Angeles is the American leader in the Pacific Rim as it is the source for the most (9) _________ flights and ocean-based (10) _________. Additionally, the value of United States imports from Pacific Rim countries is greater than that of the imports from NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) members in Europe. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. The government shouldn‘t let this situation get worse. - This state _____________________________________________________________ . 2. The completion of the work was scheduled for last week. - The work was __________________________________________________________ . 3. She is now leading a normal life as a result of all the support she received from social workers. - Had __________________________________________________________________ . 4. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh. - The very ______________________________________________________________ . 5. He declared his disapproval of the behavior of some of his supporters. - He let: ________________________________________________________________ . 6. Everybody wants Pauline as an after-dinner speaker. (DEMAND) - _____________________________________________________________________ . 7. I don‘t think you mean what you say about helping me. (EARNEST) - _____________________________________________________________________ . 8. At first the new computer made me feel a bit afraid. (AWE) - _____________________________________________________________________ . 9. William decided that an actor‘s life was not for him. (CUT) - _____________________________________________________________________ .

PRACTICE TEST 15 ♦ PART A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (60 POINTS) I. PHONOLOGY (10 POINTS) A. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. a. ecotourism b. olive c. omelet d. toddle 2. a. sidle b. thigh c. expertise d. umpire 3. a. chlorophyll b. chloride c. lichen d. chaperone 4. a. cursed b. ragged c. crooked d. accoutred 5. a. accredit b. salamander c. majesty d. saliva B. Stress: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from, that of the others. 6. a. contribute b. tsunami c. tornado d. category 7. a reservoir b. painstaking c. quinquina d. camera 8. a. gasometer b. agriculture c. nostalgic d. enthronement 9. a. introduce b. Japanese c. technological d. photography 10. a. European b. pneumonia c. Aborigine d. ingenuity II. VOCABULARY and STRUCTURES (20 points) 1. Linda is married ________ three children. a. to b. at c. with d. of 2. I am slow to ________. a. express my opinion b. express my viewing c. make my views d. make my opinion 3. The car was parked directly ________ the diner. a. before b. ahead of c. in front of d. preceding 4. It is already 3 o‘clock. Can you ________ time to catch the bus? a. have enough b. have it in c. make in d. make it in 5. The burning stick was very hot. He let ________ just in time. a. alone it b. go alone it c. go it d. go of it 6. Did you really pay $1. 000 for that normal painting? I think you were ________. a. robbed off b. ripped off c. turned off d. broken off 7. We saw ________ wild animals while on vacation a. quite a few b. quite much c. quite many d. quite some 8. ―David is still somewhat new and inexperienced in the job. He‘s a what you call ―a ________‖. Well give him a few more weeks and I‘m sure he‘ll be Okay,‖ George said to one of his other colleagues. a. green eye b. greenhorn c. green finger d. new leaf 9. Are you shopping for ________ health club to join so you can get in shape? a. a b. an c. the d. no article is needed 10. I love to do things for children because I get a ________ out of it. a. pass b. shoot c. kick d. move 11. Rowen ________ for joy when she heard that she‘d won the first prize. a. came b. burst c. moved d. jumped 12. You won ten pounds on the lottery ________! a. Big thing b. Big deal c. Big d. Big job. 13. She‘d go to the ends of ________ to save her children. a. the earth b. the house c. the life d. the world 14. He started talking about the cost of a new computer, which was a ________ herring because we‘ve got plenty of computers. a. blue b. red c. black d. green 15. When I first saw Pat, my heart ________ a beat. I knew he would be important to me. a. lost b. failed c. missed d. skipped 16. She always ________ to great lengths to make us feel welcome. a. goes b. jumps c. enters d. flies 17. Janet will see you if you use the computer without permission. She has eyes like a ________. a. bird b. goose c. hawk d. fox 18. Go on. Tell me the gossips. I‘m all ________. a. full b. head c. eyes d. ears 19. I ________ in to see Chris on my way home. a. joined b. dropped c. plugged d. put 20. You must be careful when you wash this ________ silk blouse.

a. weak b. sensitive c. delicate d. feeble III. READING COMPREHENSION (20 POINTS) * Passage 1 Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are just labels. Few films are exclusively formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important difference realism and reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular type, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually, all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what they do with this materialhow they shape and manipulate it- determines their stylistic emphasis. Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of distortion. In photographing objects and events, the filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both realist and formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, try to preserve the illusion that their film world is unmanipulated, an objective mirror of the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the very nave would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real thing. We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self- effacing. Some filmmakers are more concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It is essentially a recording mechanism that produces the surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. This is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? a. Acting styles b. Film plots c. Styles of filmmaking d. Filmmaking 100 years ago 2. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? a. Realism and formalism are outdated terms. b. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic. c. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones. d. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones. 3. The phrase ―this distinction‖ in the first paragraph refers to the difference between a. formalists and realists b. realism and reality c. general and absolute d. physical reality and raw materials 4. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for a style of a film? a. The director b. The actors c. The producer d. The camera operator 5. The word ―it‖ in the first paragraph refers to a. the photographable world b. their subject matter c. this material d. their stylistic emphasis 6. The word ―copiousness‖ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to a. bundance b. greatness c. fullness d. variety 7. How can one recognize the formalist style? a. It uses familiar images. b. It is very impersonal, c. It obviously manipulated images. d. It mirrors the actual world. 8. The word ―tangible‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to a. concrete b. complex c. various d. comprehensible 9. The word ―self-effacing‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to a. modest b. shy c. egocentric d. introverted 10. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style? a. A travel documentary b. A science fiction film c. A musical drama d. An animated cartoon * Passage 2 Whether it‘s the melodic sound of an Eric Clapton solo or the growl of a heavy metal band, the electric guitar has influenced popular music and culture more than any other instrument. Rock‘s greatest musicians have always been closely identified with their guitars. But the instruments being designed for tomorrow‘s pop stars may look and sound rather different from today‘s familiar electric and acoustic guitars. It is only sixty years since the electric guitar was invented. Since then there have been incredible changes to the technical design of the instrument. From what was once a rounded wooden box with a hole in the

front, the guitar has evolved into the smooth solid body of the rock guitarist‘s ―axe‖. The most modern guitars are really computer-controlled synthesisers. Adolph Rickenbacker‘s Electro String Company produced the first world‘s first electric guitar. It was made of wood and played on the user‘s lap. The first real breakthrough in design came in 1950 when Leo Fender, a Californian radio repairman, made the first solid-bodied electric guitar, the Fender Telecaster. Soon after the inventor Les Paul made the famous Gibson Les Paul, Fender launched his stylish Stratocaster two years later. These guitars became standard instruments against which newer guitar designs are measured. All sorts of different materials have been used to make guitars. Acoustic guitars are made from wood, which gives a soft tone. Wood is also a popular material in electric guitar manufacture, but more modern material such as glass and carbon fibre are also used. There have also been guitars with metal bodies and necks though these were never popular with players, who claim metal feels cold in the hand. Plastics, on the other hand, have been more used in guitar bodies. A company that makes parts for the aerospace industry has begun to use a kind of fiberglass that was originally used in helicopter blades to make the bodies for its electric-acoustic instruments. Other makers have begun to experiment with graphite, which is ten times stiffer than wood but much lighter. It doesn‘t expand or contract as the temperature or humidity changes either. This makes it particularly suitable for guitar necks and for tennis rackets, for which it is also used. As long as scientists and musicians work together harmoniously, the electric guitar will continue to benefit from technological innovations. But for all the efforts of the guitar companies‘ design engineers, production managers and quality controllers, it‘s the musicians who finally make the instruments sing- and not necessarily in the way the guitar maker intended. 1. What is likely to change in the future? a. the influence of the guitar on popular culture b. styles of guitar music c. the guitars themselves d. how musicians feel about their guitars 2. The first electric guitar was a. computer-controlled b. played sitting down c. not hollow inside d. designed by Leo Fender. 3. The guitars designed in the fifties a. were unsuccessful b. are often compared to guitars designed today. c. were made of wood d. were played sitting down 4. Which material was disliked by musicians? a. metal b. wood c. plastic d. carbon fibre 5. Why is graphite a good material for guitar necks? a. It has been used for tennis rackets b. It is heavier than wood c. It is more flexible than wood d. It is not affected by atmospheric conditions. 6. Recent technological innovations a. have not really improved the electric guitar b. have been ignored by musicians c. cannot determine the way the guitar will be played d. are not what musicians hoped for 7. Which one of the following subjects is not referred to: a. companies that make guitars b. materials guitars are made of c. the role of technology d. other musical instruments 8. The writer uses the word ―guitar‖ sixteen times in the passage. What other word(s) is/ are used instead of ―guitar‖? a. axe b. instruments c. both of them d. none of them 9. How many materials are mentioned? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 10. What can be the best title of the passage? a. Guitar Industry b. Guitar Legends c. Guitar Stories d. Guitar Makers IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10 POINTS) AN ORANGE A DAY KEEPS TIIE DOCTOR AWAY Most people today know how important it is to have a (1) ______ diet. If for some reason this is not possible we have available to us a wide (2) ______ of dietary supplements including vitamins and minerals. One of the earliest researchers to recognize the role dietary deficiencies (3) ______ in disease was the Scottish surgeon, James Lind. Lind analysed the diets of thousands of British sailors who had taken long sea voyages and discovered that they ate (4) ______ or no fresh fruit such as lemons or oranges. He (5) ______ to the conclusion that a lack of these fruits led to the disease (6) ______ as ―scurvy‖. Scurvy had occurred (7) ______ human history during times of warfare and famine when people could not get fresh foods like fruit, vegetables and meat. However, when Europeans began to make long voyages of exploration in the fifteen

and sixteen centuries the problem (8) ______ more acute. By the eighteenth century, more sailors were dying of scurvy on British ships than as a result of warfare. Lind proved his theory by (9) ______ the crew of one ship with a supply of fresh lemon juice and comparing the health of the sailors at the end of a long voyage with a second crew that had had only conventional meals. Many of this second group of sailors developed scurvy while the crew who had had (10) ______ to the lemon juice were healthy. 1. a. equal b. even c. careful d. balanced 2. a. range b. collection c. set d. series 3. a. do b. make c. play d. affect 4. a. little b. few c. scarce d. less 5. a. reached b. came c. arrived d. got 6. a. called b. named c. known d. well-known 7. a. along b. over c. in d. throughout 8. a. turned b. turned out c. came d. became 9. a. providing b. giving c. delivering d. bringing 10. a. access b. right c. permission d. admission ♦ PART B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES AND VERB FORMS 1. The little girl accompanied by her cats and dogs _______ (wander) in the back yard at midnight the other night. 2. Not only the Smiths but also Mr. Brown (not/ receive) any _______ support of late. 3. Neither my colleagues nor I (be) _______ particularly interested in the training course next month. 4. You (not, go) _______ there as she was not expecting you. 5. It is desirable that the systems we develop in-house _______ compatible with those in use elsewhere, (be) 6. I‘ll try phoning him but he _______ by now. (go out) 7. The weather _______ (be) bad, they couldn‘t but _______ (cancel) the camping trip. 8. The huge damage _______ (now report) _______ (cause) by the recent violent earthquake. II. FILL EACH BLANK WITH A SUITABLE PREPOSITION OR PARTICLE 1 ________ the photographs are two taken in Phong Nha in 1960. 2. Attach a recent photograph ________ your application form. 3. Roger took painting ________ for a while, but soon lost interest. 4. People thought that the use of robots would do ________ with boring low-paid factory jobs. 5. The jury was unable to bring ________ a verdict on the remaining six defendants. 6. Pour half a pint of milk ________ a small pan and warm it gently. 7. Eating good food is good insurance ________ sickness. 8. Everyone can use the cafeteria, from the managing director ________ to the office boy. 9. Several of the employees ________ him complained of his bullying behavior. 10. Don‘t come ________ hard on the new workers. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites that are carried and spread from human to human by female Anopheles mosquitoes. The World Health Organization (WHO) explains: Transmission is more intensified in places where the mosquito is relatively long-lived (so that the parasite has time completing its development inside the mosquito) and where it prefers to bite humans rather than other animals. For example, the long lifespan and strong human-bitten habit of the African vector species is the underlying reason why more than 85% of the world‘s malaria deaths are in Africa. When transmitting to a new host, Plasmodium sporozoites travel to the liver to mature. Once in the liver, they differentiate and release daughter organisms called merozoites into the blood to infect red blood cells, within which they duplicate further. As the original host cells rupture, the parasites periodically invade fresh red blood cells, getting waves of symptoms as high fever, chills, diarrhea, vomiting, headaches and profuse sweating. The first symptoms typically emerge 10 days to 4 weeks after infection, but have been known to appear as early as 8 days or up to a year later. With two types of malaria parasites, a dormant stage called hypnozoites can persist in the liver and cause relapses by invading the bloodstream weeks or years after infection. Untreated malaria can be fatal. It kills more than 1 million people each year, 90% in sub-Saharan Africa. The WHO reports that malaria counts for 20% of all child deaths in Africa, and which one African child dies of the disease every 45 seconds.

* How do you prevent it? You can put anti-malarial drugs before and after traveling to areas where malaria is prevalent. Get a prescription well in advance, because treatment may begin up to 2 weeks before you travel, and continue for a month after your return. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 points) Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. A snow leopard roars in the high mountains of Asia. A black rhinoceros gallops across the plains of Africa. A grizzly bear hunts for fish in a North American river. A mother blue whale and her calf glide through the deep waters of the ocean. All of these animals share the Earth with us. They fascinate us (1) ________ their beauty, their grace, and their speed. We love observing their behavior, and learning more about their habits. But (2) ________ loving them is not enough. All of these animals are endangered. Many of them have is gone forever. What can you do to help endangered animals? Learn as much died, and without special care, they may someday (3) ________ from the Earth. Why is it important to care for animals like these? One reason is to protect the(4) ________ of life on Earth. Another reason is the beauty of the animals themselves. Each species of animal is special. Once it is gone, it as you can about them. The more you know, the more you can help. (5) ________ an effort to support zoos and wildlife groups. Many zoos breed endangered animals, helping to ensure that they will continue to live on. Contribute to groups, such as the National Wildlife Federation and the Sierra Club, that work hard to protect animals. You can also be a smart shopper and never buy a (6) ________ that has been raised in the wilderness. The world is made up (7) ________ many living things, and each thing is dependent on the others to survive. (8) we allow even one species on Earth to become extinct, it has an impact (9) other living things and changes our world. When we mention any endangered wild animals, let‘s (10) ________ that we never again have to say, ―Gone forever.‖ VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 POINTS) 1. This bottle-opener is completely useless. (DEAD) ________________________________________________________________________ . 2. This important person will pay an official visit to our village. (SHOT) This ____________________________________________________________________ . 3. I am afraid that I cannot afford that car. (MEANS) That car is ________________________________________________________________ 4. You haven‘t done your homework, have you? It‘s about ________________________________________________________________ . 5. Drinking too much will affect your health. TELL Drinking too much _________________________________________________________ . 6. Laughing isn‘t permitted in the pagoda. You must keep ____________________________________________________________ . 7. Their problems are all self-inflicted. Their problems are of _______________________________________________________ . 8. We will not delay our voyage whether there is a rain or not. Regardless _______________________________________________________________ . 9. He pretended that his latest business failure was not important. He laughed _______________________________________________________________ . 10. Kate soon calmed down and explained her problem. Kate soon pulled __________________________________________________________ .

PRACTICE TEST 16 A. MULTIPLE CHOICES I. PHONOLOGY * Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the other three. 1. A. seizure B. measure C. confusion D. tension 2. A. maximum B. example C. exclusive D. external 3. A. gradual B. soldier C. education D. independent 4. A. piracy B. privilege C. primate D. privacy 5. A. archaic B. chivalry C. archive D. architect * Choose a word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. 6. A. metallic B. momentum C. medieval D. monastic 7. A. absentee B. referee C. employee D. committee 8. A. whereabouts B. whimsical C. genealogy D. harmony 9. A. procrastinate B. modesty C. hibernate D. frivolous 10. A. teleprinter B. posterior C. euphemism D. mischievous II. READING COMPREHENSION * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blanks or answer the questions. Diet and Sugar Since the 1960s, the consensus among those who study the subject has been that high-fat diets cause people to gain weight. The obvious response was to encourage low-fat diets, which emphasize carbohydrates, usually found in fruit, vegetables, and sugar. For several decades, a person who wanted to lose weight would try to eat food like rice or pasta, but avoid meat, oils, and other high-fat foods. This was the orthodox approach until recent years, leading to all sorts of diet books and eating plans that followed the same basic low—fat, high-carbohydrate method. One result has been that Americans have reduced the fat in their diets from 36 to 34 percent. However, this has not had the effects that many expected. While they have reduced the fat in their diets, Americans have also gained about eight pounds each. There are innumerable cases, reported from diet clinics, of people on low-fat diets who have actually put on weight. This has caused researchers to look again at the process of gaining weight and to revise their approaches about how to deal with it. There are several connected problems. These start with the common belief, long supported by many experts, that calories from carbohydrates are less harmful than those from fats, and it is this belief that inspired so many high-carbohydrate diets over the years. It is true that calories from fat are more easily converted into body fat than those from carbohydrates, but the actual difference is too small to have much effect on a person‘s weight. Calories from carbohydrates are still calories, which the body will process in a similar way. Dieters who replace fatty foods with carbohydrates but continue to ingest just as many calories will likely see no weight loss at all. Moreover, many such dieters replace fats with foods that are high in starch, like pasta and white bread, as well as those with too much sugar. All are highly caloric. Eating too much of these simple carbohydrates can lead to an additional set of problems. When people eat carbohydrates, the body responds by producing glucose, which can either be used for energy or stored as fat. Glucose production in turn stimulates production of insulin. This is a hormone involved in a number of processes in the body, one of which is regulating how the body uses glucose. If the body produces large amounts of insulin, it is more likely that calories from food will be converted into body fat, which is the reason why simple carbohydrates are not useful for losing weight. They are broken down quickly in the intestine, which rapidly raises the levels of glucose in the blood. This produces a proportional amount of insulin. The result is that a large amount of glucose ends up as fat. A rise in one‘s glucose level has other negative effects, including an increased risk of heart disease and the development of type-II diabetes. In addition to this, certain people are predisposed to a condition called insulin resistance, which makes them unable to fully metabolize glucose with normal amounts of insulin. Even a diet high in complex carbohydrates—like those in fresh fruits and vegetables—presents a problem to someone with this problem. Excessive consumption of sugar and other simple carbohydrates can be especially harmful, eventually increasing the risk of heart failure and type-II diabetes, which is a kind of extreme insulin resistance. Obesity and a lifestyle with little physical exercise can promote insulin resistance, which perhaps explains the condition‘s high incidence in the United States. One estimate places the proportion of such people at about twenty-five percent of the US population. High-carbohydrate diets would clearly be unhealthy for people with this condition. Modern dietary researchers now focus more on the glycemic qualities of foods, or their potential to

increase glucose levels, than simply the relative presence or absence of fat or carbohydrates in them. This has also shown the need for an approach to diet that is tailored for individuals, since each person‘s overall body chemistry is different. No single approach to dieting can be universally helpful. 11. The word orthodox in the passage means ________. A. old B. reasonable C. strange D. standard 12. Why does the author mention that Americans have been reducing the fat in their diets? A. To argue that dieters do not properly follow medical advice B. To show that past approaches to weight loss were flawed C. To persuade readers to try to lose more weight D. To give evidence that low-fat diets help people lose weight 13. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Increased body fat is typically the result of too much insulin, which in turn results from the body not getting enough calories in the form of simple carbohydrates. B. Even if a person eats simple carbohydrates instead of fats, a lack of insulin in the body will cause even small amounts of calories to be turned into body fat. C. Eating simple carbohydrates will not promote weight loss, since they make the body produce greater than usual quantities of insulin, which results in increased body fat. D. Because simple carbohydrates have too many calories, it is impossible for insulin to process them effectively, which usually results in increased weight gain. 14. According to paragraph 3, which of the following statements about glucose is true? A. It is produced when there is too much insulin in the body. B. It is broken down quickly in the intestine. C. It can be used by the body for energy or stored as fat. D. It regulates hormone production in the body. 15. The word predisposed in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. ignorant of B. likely to have C. concerned about D. suffering from 16. The word this in the passage refers to ________. A. insulin resistance B. type-II diabetes C. obesity D. high glucose levels in the blood 17. According to paragraph 4, what is insulin resistance? A. An inability to fully break down glucose B. A medical problem caused by type-II diabetes C. A condition caused by eating carbohydrates D. The ability to eat a lot of food without gaining weight 18. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 4 about people in the United States? A. Many have European ancestors B. Many do not exercise enough. C. Many eat too much fruit D. Many fail to recognize their diet problems 19. According to the passage, simple carbohydrates are unhealthy for all of the following reasons EXCEPT __. A. They are turned into fat very easily B. They are high in calories C. They rapidly raise glucose levels in the blood D. They are difficult to digest 20. Why does the author mention body chemistry in paragraph 5? A. To show how little science knows about digestion B. To give an example of how science affects everyday life C. To show how insulin-resistant people can best lose weight D. To support the idea that people need individualized diets * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blanks or answer the questions. Environment An aerial view of the border between Haiti and the Dominican Republic on the Caribbean island of Hispaniola shows a remarkable sight: large pristine forests on the Dominican side and an almost barren land on the Haitian side, a land devoid of trees except for a few small clumps. This is partially the result of nature, as less frequent rains and poorer soil in Haiti mean fewer, smaller trees with very slow re-growth compared to the Dominican side. However, it is people more than nature that have determined the island‘s differences in forest growth. In the centuries since Europeans first colonized the island, the two nations have followed different paths of forest management, which has resulted in the current discrepancy. This is the result of both the history of the two nations and the policies of both the people and their present-day governments. Christopher Columbus first sighted Hispaniola in 1492, and the Spanish soon colonized the island. The

half-million population of Arawak Indians died of disease by 1520, and the Spaniards had to import African slaves. The Spanish kept mostly to the eastern two-thirds of the island, and a small French trading post on the western side grew into a large French colony in the remaining third. The French decided to import massive numbers of slaves to clear vast forests and plant sugar cane, a cash crop. By the beginning of the nineteenth century, there was small elite of Europeans in Hispaniola supported by almost one million slaves, the majority on the French side. In 1803, the western slaves rebelled and defeated a French expedition to recapture the colony. The newly independent slaves renamed their nation Haiti, divided the land amongst the people, and forbade foreigners from owning land or businesses. This legacy has had a profound impact on Haiti‘s development and has resulted in Haiti being the poorest nation in the Western Hemisphere. With little outside investment, the nation‘s elite depend on the work of the peasants they exploit. Haiti also has the highest population density in the West, with ten million people crowded into one third of the island. The legacy of slavery led to a policy of free men owning their own land, with them clearing the land for farming, cutting down trees in every direction. The nation is too poor to develop a dependable electrical or gas infrastructure, so the Haitians primarily depend on charcoal for cooking fuel and burn trees to make it. Even the few protected parks in Haiti are raided for their prized trees. All of this has resulted in only one percent of the land remaining forested. The Dominican Republic, while not a very wealthy nation by global standards, is head and shoulders above Haiti. The Dominicans have no history of slave rebellion, and the Spanish encouraged foreign settlement and investment on their side of the island. Dominica has more rainfall and richer soil than Haiti, which has enabled the Dominicans to grow cash export crops such as cacao, coffee, tobacco, and avocadoes. With the wealth of these crops, the nation was able to import large numbers of gas ranges and propane tanks, which were sold to the population at discounts to encourage them not to use wood or charcoal for cooking. Politically, the Dominicans have had a series of governments that were concerned about the environmental protection of the nation‘s forests. Joaquin Balaguer, president for much of the late twentieth century, threw all his energy into preserving the Dominican Republic‘s forests, including making illegal logging a crime against the security of the nation. The military was charged with defending the nation‘s forests, with orders to kill illegal loggers who did not surrender. The legacy of Balaguer continues up to the present, with the Dominican Republic having one of the Western Hemisphere‘s most comprehensive environment protection laws, most of which are actually enforced. Over thirty-five percent of the Dominican land is forest, most of which is protected. This is in sharp contrast to Haiti, where one can look for miles and not see a tree. The already thin soil of Haiti is eroding and blowing away year after year, making the farmers‘ small plots less productive. With its massive population and bleak future, many Haitians are sneaking across the border, hoping for a better one in the Dominican Republic. 21. The word barren in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. fertile B. drained C. empty D. unproductive 22. According to paragraph 1, the difference in the amount of forest between Haiti and the Dominican Republic is a result of all of the following EXCEPT: ________. A. the legacy of each country‘s history B. the types of trees in the various forests C. the attitude of each country‘s government D. the forces of nature affecting the island 23. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the Arawak Indians were ________. A. enslaved by the Spanish after they landed on the island B. deliberately killed by the Spanish to make room for colonists C. at war with the Spanish until they were finally eliminated D. friends with the Spanish who died in spite of this amity 24. The author mentions that the French decided to plant sugar cane in order to ________. A. describe why such large parts of the forests were cut down B. discuss the basis of the economy in that particular colony C. show the differences between the French and Spanish colonies D. explain why there were so many slaves working in the colony 25. According to paragraph 3, after the slave rebellion in the French colony, the French ________. A. gave up the colony and left it without a fight B. agreed to set the slaves free and departed C. tried to retake it but failed in their attempt D. succeeded in retaking it from the former slaves 26. The word profound in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. extreme B. potential C. wide D. immediate

27. The word it in the passage refers to ________. A. nation B. electrical or gas infrastructure C. charcoal D. cooking fuel 28. According to paragraph 4, the Dominican Republic‘s military ________. A. cannot be corrupted by people who are interested in participating in illegal logging B. does much of the work regarding the enforcement of the forest protection policy C. will always shoot illegal loggers as soon as they are spotted chopping down trees D. was ordered by Joaquin Balaguer to make protecting forests of the utmost importance 29. According to paragraph 5, Haitian farms are less productive because ________. A. the population of the country is too big for farmers to support B. the farmers are fleeing the country to work elsewhere C. the topsoil on the farmland is continually disappearing D. the farms in the country are too small to be efficient 30. The word bleak in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. A doubtful B lonely C bitter D. hopeless III. GUIDED CLOZE * Read the following passage and choose the best option that best complete the blanks. The knowledge and eloquence that people ________ (31) through travelling is usually perceived as the best fulfillment in life. It is the inquisitive human nature that impels people to seek ________ (32) experiences and to set out on an exploration trip. Those who travel frequently and to diverse places benefit from establishing new relationships and ________ (33) a better knowledge about other cultures and lifestyles. However, there is a grain of truth in the assumption that people are prone to ________ (34) clicks and unfounded prejudices about other nations and their characteristics. Sometimes, it is only the first-hand encounter that can help change the ________ (35) towards the so-called ‗inferior communities‘. This direct contact with a different civilization enables travellers to ________ (36) their baseless assumptions and get ________ (37) with the real concept of life in all four corners of the globe. Beyond question, travelling ________ (38) friendship and makes it easier for many individuals to acknowledge the true value of different traditions and customs. Yet, it does not always mean enjoyment. It may also ________ (39) coming close with the atrocities of real existence as well as becoming aware of the challenges and hardships that other people have to struggle with. Hence, a true voyage is the one with a good deal of experience ________ (40) about, very often combined with exposure to abhorrent sights and incredible ordeals. The learning to be complete, thus, requires an ability to observe and analyse the surroundings, both their glamour and brutality. 31. A. purchase B. exact C. gain D. nurture 32. A. thriving B. throbbing C. thwarting D. thrilling 33. A. acquiring B. educating C. learning D. exacting 34. A. persevering B. cherishing C. indulging D. persisting 35. A. prejudice B. manner C. outlook D. approach 36. A. drop B. cease C. fail D. quit 37. A. informed B. realized C. acquainted D. defined 38. A. facilitates B. affords C. elicits D. incites 39. A. involve B. derive C. consist D. enclose 40. A. commemorate B. reminisce C. resemble D. remind B. WHITTEN TEST I. Verb tenses and forms 1. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct verb tenses 1. Scientists (discover) _______ that, all over the world, millions of frogs and toads are dying. 2. ‗You‘re looking well.‘ ‗I (play) _______ a lot of squash to lose weight.‘ 3. We (look) _______ at the painting for about ten minutes before we realised who the artist was. 4. The plane (travel) _______ at twice the speed of sound when it passes overhead. 5. Although people are now angry about what he did, I‘m sure that his behaviour soon (forget) _______. 6. Next year (work) _______ in the company for 30 years. 7. Our computer was broken and we hoped the new one (arrive) _______ soon 8. During the winter I decided that I (grow) _______ tomatoes and carrots when the summer came. 9. I (help) _______ with the performance, but I got flu the day before 10 .The results were completely wrong. As a scientist, she (plan) _______ the experiment more carefully.

2. Read the paragraph and give the correct verb tenses and forms for the verbs in the brackets. I don‘t normally go to the cinema. Not because I don‘t like it but because it‘s just a habit, I have never got into. However, on this occasion decided to go because my friends constantly (1. go) _______ on about this film all week and eventually wore me down. It (2. star) _______ some ephemeral Hollywood actor whom I had vaguely heard of but couldn‘t put a face to. We got to the cinema early to find people (3. already wait) _______ outside which suggested that my friends weren‘t the only ones who thought it was worth seeing although I could still think of several other things I would rather (4. do) _______ at that moment. In the end, the film (5. turn out) _______ to be not half as bad as expected, though I (6. prefer) _______ something with a bit more action. The plot centred on two men who were planning to carry out some immensely complicated robbery, though what they completely failed (7. realize) _______ was that all the time their plans (8. closely monitor) _______ by the police. Somewhat unpredictably, however, they got away with it because they (9. change) _______ their plans at the last minute. It was okay but I (10. not think) _______ of going again. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS 1. Put in suitable prepositions or adverb particles. 1. His stupidity can be ascribed _______ his extreme age. 2. The husband has been apprised _______ the good news _______ his son. 3. She averted her face _______ the sight _______ his suffering. 4. He paused, lit a cigarette, then faced _______ and walked quickly away. 5. Both the boys have serious injuries, but we‘re confident that they will pull _______. 6. She is married _______ two children. 7. Please go this report before we send it to the manager‘s office. 8. In stead of beating _______ the bush, Jones came straight to the point. 9. We‘ve come up _______ a bit of a problem. 10. Peter has fallen _______ with his boss. 2. Complete the following passage with prepositions or particles. Reginald Andrews, 29, was standing on the subway platform _______ (1) 14th Street, waiting for the train to take him back to his flat in Harlem. He was worried about being _______ (2) of work. He had been unemployed for a year, and he owed a lot of money _______ (3) the bank. But he had had an interview that morning _______ (4) Jamac Frozen Foods in Manhattan, and he was hoping they would offer him a job. His train pulled _______ (5) the station, and suddenly Andrew‘s thoughts were interrupted by a crisis. David Schnair, 75, a blind war veteran, had fallen _______ (6) two carriages and was lying across the rails. _______ (7) less than no time, Andrews climbed down from the platform, and he pulled Schnair _______ (8) of danger just as the train was about to move. Neither of them suffered more than a few cuts and bruises. President Reagan saw the rescue story in a newspaper and. rang Andrews to congratulate him on his courageous action. He also made a call _______ (9) Jamac Foods‘ Vice President, and as a result, Andrews now has a job. What‘s more, all Andrews‘ debts have been paid by an anonymous well-wisher. Said Andrews, ‗I‘m no hero, but I couldn‘t stand there and do nothing. I‘m just grateful _______ (10) everybody who‘s helped me get back to work again.‖ III. OPEN CLOZE TEST Fill each blank with ONE word. * Passage 1 The Great Pyramid of Giza, a monument of wisdom and prophecy was built as a (1) _______ for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B. C. (2) _______ its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction make it one of the truly great wonders of the world. The four sides of the pyramid are (3) _______ almost exactly on true north, south, east and west - an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were (4) _______ worshipers and great astronomers, so (5) _______ for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical (6) _______. Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many interesting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these present a type of time line of (7) _______ - past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known (8) _______ of the past. Others are prophesied for the future generations and are presently (9) _______ investigation. Was this structure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far (10) _______ to any known today? * Passage 2 MUSIC MAGAZINE HAS EYE ON CHINA US public Rolling Stones magazine is (1) _______ launch in China. The magazine, which should (2) _______ shelves early next year, will focus on China‘s emerging youth culture as well as foreign acts and entertainment. Rolling Stone was first (3) _______ in San Francisco in 1967 to chronicle cultural changes in

the US. ―We feel Chinese music and arts (4) _______ maturing rapidly and that a Chinese edition will be viable‖, said Jimmy Jung, (5) _______ One World Publishing. Rolling Stone has licensed Hong Kong-based One World to publish the Chinese language edition. Mr. Jung said the magazine to be printed in simplified Chinese characters, will (6) _______ a mix of local content (7) _______ primarily by Beijing -based staff and translations of articles from the US edition. ―We want to make (8) _______ that we‘re faithful to the spirit of the brand‖, said Jung. He added that (9) _______ Hong Kong and Taiwan had more developed pop cultures, mainland China was more important. ―We feel China offers greater potential and we want to be there from the start‖, said Jung, (10) _______ company also publishes Chinese editions of British car magazine, Top Gear and gadget magazine T3. IV. WORD FORMS 1. Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the given words. 1. They all cheered _______ as their team came out. (ENTHUSIASM) 2. Finally a _______ is brought about between the two sides. (RECONCILE) 3. The child has a _______ temperament. (REBEL) 4. No report can convey the _______ suffering that this war has caused, (speak) 5. He will not benefit _______ from the deal. (FINANCE) 6. The injury was _______ of her handling of the affair. (CRITICIZE) 7. Her case was _______ argued. (CONVINCE) 8. I don‘t find him very _______. (COMMUNICATE) 9. Mary is a really _______ pessimist. (CURE) 10. The aid programme was _______, resulting in large quantities of food failing to reach the famine victims. (CONDUCT) 2. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of the given words. In the centre of the room, clamped to an upright easel, stood the full-length portrait of a young man of _______ (1. ORDINARY) personal beauty, and in front of it, some little _______ (2. DISTANT) away, was sitting the artist himself, Basil Hallward, whose sudden (3. APPEAR) some years ago caused, at the time, such public _______ (4. EXCITE), and gave rise to so many strange conjectures. As the painter looked at the _______ (5. GRACE) and comely form he had so _______ (6. SKILL) mirrored in his art, a smile of _______ (7. PLEASE) passed across his face, and seemed about to linger there. But he _______ (8. SUDDEN) started up, and, closing his eyes, placed his fingers upon the lids, as though he sought to _______ (9. PRISON) within his brain some curious dream from which he feared he might _______ (10. WAKE) V. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Rewrite the sentences with given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. Why does life have to be so difficult! (ONLY) → ______________________________________________________________________ . 2. My jewelry has been stolen! (OFF) → ______________________________________________________________________ . 3. What you do with the money is of no interest to me. (CARE) → ______________________________________________________________________ . 4. In all probability we will finish the project on Thursday. (CHANCES) ________________________________________________________________________ 5. I‘m annoyed with you for not phoning me to say you‘d be late. (MIGHT) ________________________________________________________________________ 6. The thief must have come in through the window. →The thief almost _________________________________________________________ . 7. He said that he had won as a result of good luck. →He attributed____________________________________________________________ . 8. I thought about what has happened all those years before. →I cast __________________________________________________________________ . 9. To pass the time, I looked through some magazines. →I whiled _______________________________________________________________ . 10. I almost gave up at one point. →I came very_____________________________________________________________ VI. ERROR RECOGNITION AND CORRECTION * The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline the errors and correct them. Write your answer in the space provided on the right. Number 0 has been done as an example.

The market for tourism in remote areas is booming as ever before. Countries all across the world are active promoting their ‗wilderness‘ regions - such as mountains, Arctic lands, deserts, small islands and wetlands - to highly spending tourists. The attraction of these areas is obvious: by defining, wilderness tourism requires little or no initial investment. But that does not mean that there is no cost. Like the 1992 UN Conference on Environment and Development recognized, these regions are fragile (i. e. highly vulnerable of abnormal pressures) not just in terms of the culture of their inhabitation. The three most significant types of fragile environment in these respects are deserts, mountains and Arctic areas. An important character is their marked seasonality. Consequently, most human acts, including tourism, are limited to clearly defined parts of the year. Tourists are drawn to these regions by their natural beauty and the unique culture of its people. And poor governments in these areas have welcomed the ‗adventure tourists‘, grateful for the currency they bring. For several years, tourism is the prime source of foreign exchange in Nepal and Bhutan. Tourism is also a key element in the economics of Arctic zones such as Lapland and Alaska and in desert areas such as Ayres Rocks in Australia and Arizona‘s Monument Valley.

0. ever →never

___ THE END___

A. I. * 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. * 6. 7. 8. 9. 10 II. * 1. 2. 3.

4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

PRACTICE TEST 17 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS PHONOLOGY (10 points) Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from, that of the others. a. surplus b. surgery c. surprise d. surface a. draught b. gauge c. straight d. chamber a. obstacle b. observant c. obsolete d. obstinate a. unfold b. unfair c. unless d. undo a. days b. ways c. says d. plays Pick out the word which has the different stress pattern (5 points). a. journalese b. entertain c. Portuguese d. refusal a. ostensible b. cafeteria c. northeast d. detoxify a. westernize b. officialdom c. division d. millennium a. accelerate b. impossible c. assimilate d. opposition . a. paralytic b. registry c. reimburse d. unfamiliar VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE (20 points) Choose the best answer. Wasn‘t it you ________ the door open? a. to leave b. to have left c. who left d. that should leave If only motorists ________ drive more carefully. a. might b. shall c. would d. should Hoping to ________ the dispute, negotiators proposed a compromise that they felt would be ________ to both labor and management. a. enforce / useful b. end / divisive c. extend / satisfactory d. resolve / acceptable This evidence should prove ________ that he was telling the truth. a. once and for all b. now and then c. over and above d. from time to time A new computer has been produced, which will all previous models. a. overdo b. supersede c. excel d. overwhelm I don‘t want to be too ________ on Alice, but I think I should tell her that her work isn‘t good enough. a. strict b. firm c. stern d. hard Once the story ________ the headlines, everyone was talking about it. a. crashed b. struck c. smashed d. hit If I‘m late for work again, I‘ll be ________ a severe warning from my boss. a. up to b. in for c. onto d. alter With so many games to play in such a short time, it‘s going to be a very ________ time for the team.

a. testing b. thorny c. uphill d. steep 10. The whole movie was filmed on ________ in southern India. a. site b. location c. spot d. venue 11. I know it‘s a big favor to ask but ,________, I‘ve done you plenty of favors in the past. a. considering b. bearing in mind c. after all d. in the light 12. I‘m afraid I don‘t ________ your view on this matter, but let‘s not quarrel about it. a. correspond b. equate c. accord d. share 13. She is no that she has done the right thing. a. reservation b. misgiving c. doubt d. distrust 14. When he sings, he has the ________ ability to make even bad songs sound good. a. sparse b. rare c. infrequent d. scarce 15. The management are making ________ to increase the company‘s efficiency. a measures b. steps c. moves d. deeds 16. It ________ during our conservation that Anita was extremely unhappy. a. emanated b. revealed c. divulged d. emerged 17. I know this is a big disappointment but don‘t take it to ________. a. soul b. mind c. spirit d. heart 18. I was told yesterday that the car had been fixed but it‘s broken down ________ again. a. even b. still c. yet d. right 19. Simon ________ in me on the understanding that I wouldn‘t tell anyone else. a. confided b. intimated c. confessed d. disclosed 20. Eventually the list of candidates for the job was ________ down to three. a. narrowed b. lowered c. wound d. dropped III. READING COMPREHENSION (20 points) * Read the following passages and choose the best answers. Reading 1: DADA The course of Western art forever changed after World War I. The brutality and violence of the war affected an entire generation of young poets, writers, painters, and other artists. They were disappointed that Western ideals like peace and democracy had not prevented such violence. The outrage felt by these artists gave rise to the most subversive art movement the world had ever seen. Its practitioners called it Dada, and it stood for everything that art was not; it was, in a sense, ‗anti-art‘. Instead of pleasing the tastes of viewers, Dada artists sought to shock and offend them. Dadaists sought to challenge people‘s traditional beliefs by challenging the way in which they viewed art. Dada artists wanted not only to change the art world, but to change the beliefs and attitudes of the people as well. Throughout its short history, Dada spread to several cities around the world, taking on a new and unique form wherever it travelled. Dada was begun by a small group of artists in Zurich, Switzerland was neutral in the war, and it was a refuge for people from nearby warring countries such as Germany and Austria. Artists moved to Switzerland both to escape the war and to protest it. The movement centered on a local nightclub called the Cabaret Voltaire, where performance art was the main attraction. In one early performance, poet Hugo Ball read three pieces of experimental poetry while bouncing around the stage in a costume made of cardboard cylinders and a pair of cardboard wings. In short, the performance was completely absurd, and audiences left the club both shocked and confused at such disregard for their own pleasure. This, of course, was Ball‘s intention. Similar performances at the Cabaret included many important artists who would later go on to achieve great fame. One of them was Max Ernst, who, with the help of fellow artists, established a Dada group in Cologne, Germany shortly after the war. A From Zurich, some members of the original Dada group moved to New York City to join an already thriving community of Dada artists there. B The atmosphere in New York was much different from that of Zurich and cologne. C New York artists practiced what was perhaps the most playful form of Data to date. D Whereas cynicism played a major role in European Dada, irony and humor were important to the New York scene. The basic goals, however, remained the same: the creation of anti-art that challenged the beliefs of mainstream society. French artist Marcel Duchamp created one of the best known artworks from this time and place: a sculpture called Fountain, which.featured.an overturned bathroom urinal. Audiences reacted with disgust to the piece, and the work was almost universally reviled by the mainstream art community. However, it did spark a great deal of lively debate, as the artist had hoped it would. Artists in Paris had been closely following the works of various Dada groups around the world but a real movement didn‘t begin in Paris until 1920, when several of the movement‘s original members moved there. For many years prior to this, the city had held a stronger reputation for its literature than for its art. However, once an array of artists began pouring into the city, Dada succeeded in Paris more than in any other city.

Writers such as Andre Breton took up the cause of the Dadaists and published essays on the Dada philosophy. French painter Jean Crotti held the first exhibition of Dada painting at the Society Independent Artists. Composer Erik Satie collaborated with Pablo Picasso and others to create one of the most bizarre and scandalous ballets of the time. Whereas most ballets include graceful dancing and beautiful music, Satie and Picasso‘s ballet featured Cubist-style sets, an orchestra of noise making instruments, and costumes so large and awkward that few of the dancers could move with ease. Despite the wide array of art produced in Paris, the dda movement began to go out of style by 1922, and by 1924 had all but disappeared. Though Dada may be gone, the lasting influence of Dada can still be found in modern styles of music such as punk rock, and is also alive and well in many modern art films. 1. According to paragraph 1, what can be inferred about the effects of World War I on artists? a. It resulted in the deaths of many famous artists b. It caused artists to lose faith in their culture. c. It restricted artists‘ freedom of expression d. It became more difficult to earn a living in art. 2. The word refuge in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. route b. holiday c. shelter d. journey 3. The word disregard in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. misunderstanding b. Intention c. belief d. disrespect 4. The word This in the passage refers to ________. a. the absurdity of Ball‘s performance b. the audience‘s reaction Ball‘s performance c. the achievement of great fame by performers d. the beginning of a new art movement. 5. The word reviled in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. despised b. a dmired c. rejected d. ignored 6. According to paragraph 3, how was the Dada scene in New York City different from other cities? a. New York Dada was more lighthearted than other versions. b. New York Dada attracted more of the world‘s attention. c. New York Dada artists were more famous than most others. d. New York Dada marked the end of the movement. 7. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave essential information. a. New York featured playful art such as Fountain, a controversial work by French artist Marcel Duchamp. b. Marcel Duchamp of New York City was known for using found object in his art, including a toilet that he entitled Fountain. c. Marcel Duchamp‘s Fountain, a ‗sculpture‘ comprised of only an upside down toilet, was the most significant contribution to the Dada scene in New York. d. The only piece of art worthy of note to come from the New York Dada scene was Fountain, a beloved sculpture by French artist Marcel Duchamp. 8. According to the passage, what is NOT true of Dada? a. It affected a wide scope of art ranging from literature and fine art to ballet. b. It opposed mainstream belief systems and traditional forms of art. c. Dada artists did not respect the tastes of audience. d. Dada first emerged in France. 9. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as Dadaist art work EXCEPT ________. a. sculpture b. fashion c. painting d. poetry 10. Look at the four squares A, B, C, D that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage. * These artists were less burdened by the violence in Europe, and the result was this relatively careless attitude. Where would the sentence best fit? a. A b. B c. C d. D Reading 2: VOLCANO MONITORING As one of the most destructive occurrences on earth, volcanic eruptions are of great concern to people everywhere. The magma and ash that that spew out of a volcano‘ can cause much damage, posing an immediate threat to communities near it and causing extensive environmental and financial damage, too. For all of these reasons, scientists have developed several methods of monitoring volcanoes in order to catch any activity that foreshadows an eruption. The kinds of activity that are monitored are seismic disruptions, deformations in the volcano and landscape, gaseous emissions from the actual magma itself. A wide range of techniques and equipment is used in the process. One of the reliable and frequently employed methods of monitoring volcanoes and predicting eruptions is

through the measurement of local seismic disruptions. This is because impending volcanic eruptions frequently give off minor earthquakes. As magma rises into the volcano, it must squeeze through a constricted chamber or series of chambers while under great pleasure. The force will crack some of the rock or force rocks with preexisting cracks to convulse, setting off tremors with varying frequencies. This seismic activity is relatively weak and occurs roughly ten kilometers beneath the volcano. In order to detect such weak quakes, scientists must set up a network of seismometers around the volcano in order to catch the slightest fluctuations in seismic activity that are usually a prelude to a volcanic eruption. About four to eight seismometers are placed about twenty kilometers from one of the vents, and several more are placed on the volcano itself. All of these have to be close in order to catch the quakes, as a seismometer being placed too far away could not detect subtle shifts in seismic activity. Fortunately, this method has been used so extensively that it is quite advanced, and scientists are experienced in detecting crucial seismic activity quickly, accurately, and in real time. While seismic monitoring is the most widely used and trusted method of monitoring volcanoes, there are other technologies that allow scientists to observe landscape deformation, which usually accompanies activity. In addition to causing quakes, the increased magma flow will also make the volcano swell and alter the surrounding landscape, particularly in evenness and elevation, those these changes are too slight to be noticed with the naked eye. Scientists use a variety of tools to observe such changes. One major tool is the satellite. In particular, scientists use the Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites to study a very detailed map of the Earth‘s surface, though the GPS is not primarily used to study volcanoes. Additionally, scientists have Interferometric Synthetic Aperture Radar (InSAR) satellites. These satellites use radar to map out changes in the landscape and the development of deformations very accurately, detecting possible volcanic activity. A Changes on the ground can also be measured directly by people with land surveying equipment. B Scientists use devices such as electronic distance meters (EDM) and tiltmeters to directly observe subtle changes that magma flow causes in the landscape. C One way that scientists use all of these methods in combination is by pinpointing two distinct spots on a volcano with GPS satellites. D They then use EDMs, tiltmeters, and InSAR satellites to measure the exact distance between them. As the volcano fills with magma, it stretches like a balloon and thus increases the distance between the two spots. If surveying tools like tiltmeters and EDMs catch this development, scientists can be alerted to the possibility of an eruption before it occurs. In addition to the deformations in the ground caused by volcanic activity, scientists can measure chemical gaseous emissions. Gauging the emission of certain gases like sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide is helpful. As magma rises to the surface, it will give off greater amounts of these two gases, so increased amounts of them around a volcanic area would be a good indication of increased activity. While it is possible to monitor such activity at a safe distance via satellite, weather can interfere with accurate readings, so the direct sampling of these emissions by people is a more accurate method, though this means having to get near an active vent to retrieve the samples. This is difficult because acidic gases like sulfur dioxide are easily dissolved in bodies of water, skewing precise measurements. Carbon dioxide is less likely to vanish in such a manner, though, so it could be more helpful in predicting volcanic activity. 1. The word foreshadows in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. follows after b. may prevent c. makes worse d. comes before 2. The word constricted in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. hot b. wide c. tight d. hidden 3. The word these in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. kilometers b. vents c. quakes d. seismometers 4. According to paragraph 2, why must scientists use a network of seismometers around volcanoes? a. The earthquakes that occur are not very strong. b. They must be ready to replace damaged instruments. c. The earthquakes are so strong that many are necessary. d. They are not certain where tremors will occur. 5. According to paragraph 3, satellites can do all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. pinpoint two exact locations on a volcano b. monitor the direction of seismic waves c. monitor gases released by the magma d. detect deformations of the ground with radar 6. According to paragraph 3, tiltmeters help scientists predict volcanoes by ________. a. measuring the change in temperatures b. measuring the emission of gases c. measuring the evenness of the ground d. measuring the fracturing of rocks 7. The word Gauging in the passage is closest in meaning to ________. a. preventing b. causing c. measuring d. discovering 8. According to paragraph 4, why are gaseous emissions from magma directly sampled?

a. Because accurate readings of emissions can be hindered by bad weather b. Because it is impossible to read gas emissions using satellites c. Because direct sampling of gases is the safest method d. Because sampling of gases absorbed in the water bodies is required 9. According to paragraph 4, why is measuring sulfur dioxide emissions to monitor volcanic eruptions tricky? a. Sulfur dioxide emissions are tainted by carbon dioxide. b. Magma does not always release increased amounts of sulfur dioxide. c. Stormy weather can scatter sulfur dioxide gases away from volcanoes. d. Sulfur dioxide tends to dissolve in nearby bodies of water. 10. Look at the four squares A, B, C, D that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage. * Both of these types of satellites provide scientists with the advantage of measuring such changes from a safe distance away from volcanic activity. Where would the sentence best fit? a. A b. B c. C d. D IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 points) * For questions 1.12, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). Example: 0.a. notice b. attention c. regard d. interest She studies while he plays: true of children and chimps Little girls watch and learn; little boys don‘t pay (0) ________ and play around. At least, this seems to be the (1) ________ with chimpanzees, according to new research. Chimpanzees in the wild (2) ________ to snack on termites, and youngsters learn to fish for them by poking long sticks and other (3) ________ tools into the mounds that large groups of termites build. Researchers found that (4) ________ average female chimps in the Gombe National Park in Tanzania learnt how to do termite fishing at the age of 31 months, more than two years earlier than the males. The females seem to learn by watching their mothers. Researcher Dr. Elisabeth V. Lonsdorf, director of field conservation at the Lincoln Park Zoo in Chicago, said that it is (5) ________ to find that, when a young male and female are near a mound, ‗she‘s really focusing on termite fishing and he‘s spinning himself round (6) ________ circles. ‗Dr. Lansdorf and colleagues are studying chimpanzees at the zoo with a new, (7) ________ created termite mound, filled with mustard (8) ________ than termites. On the first day, adult females were getting at the mustard and a young female watched carefully and began to (9) ________ the skills. Two young males did not do as well as the females - one simply sat next to his mother and tried to (10) ________ some mustard from her, Dr. Lansdorf said. The behavior of both sexes may seem (11) ________ to many parents, she said, adding, ‗The sex differences we found in the chimps are (12) ________ to some of the findings from human child development research.‘ 1. a. case b. matter c. fact d. event 2. a. delight b. enjoy c. like d. fancy 3. a. relative b. connected c. close d. similar 4. a. on b. by c. at d. for 5. a. ordinary b. regular c. typical d. frequent 6. a. with b. in c. to d. through 7. a. specially b. particularly c. singly d. distinctly 8. a. other b. else c. rather d. instead 9. a. pick up b. find out c. come to d. take on 10. a. rob b. grasp c. grip d. steal B. WRITTEN TEST I. PROVIDE THE CORRECT FORMS / OR TENSES OF THE VERBS IN BRACKETS. The history of human civilization (1. entwist) ________ with the history of the ways we (2. learn) ________ to manipulate water resources. As towns gradually (3. expand) ________, water (4. bring) ________ from increasingly remote sources, (5. lead) ________ to sophisticated engineering efforts such as dams and aqueducts. At the height of Roman Empire, nine major systems, with an innovative layout of pipes and well-built sewers, (6. supply) ________ the occupants of Rome with as much water per person as is provided in many parts of the industrial world today. During the industrial revolution and population explosion of the 19 th and 20th centuries, the demand for water (7. rise) ________ dramatically. Unprecedented construction of tens of thousands of monumental

engineering projects (8. design) to control floods, protect clean water supplies, and provide water for irrigation and hydropower (9. bring) ________ great benefits to hundreds of people. Food production has kept pace with soaring populations mainly because of the expansion of artificial irrigation systems that make possible the growth of 40% of the world‘s food. Nearly one fifth of all the electricity generated worldwide (10. produce) by turbines (11. spin) by the power of falling water. II. FILL IN EACH BLANK WITH A SUITABLE PREPOSITION OR PARTICLE 1. Is it possible to insure my bike ________ theft. 2. Being rich doesn‘t count ________ much on a desert island. 3. When I asked Jean, she hinted ________ the chance of a promotion for me. 4. I pleaded ________ John to change his mind, but he wouldn‘t listen. 5. Peter always trusts me ________ his secrets. 6. The police couldn‘t draw any conclusions because his evidence just didn‘t add ________. 7. Sitting in the damp brought ________ rheumatism. 8. Sorry, but I haven‘t got ________ fixing the tap yet. 9. We haven‘t let Tim ________ on the plans. III. PROVIDE THE CORRECT FORM OF THE WORD IN BRACKETS Playing is a serious business. Children are engrossed in a make-believe world. Play may look like a (1. care) ________ and exuberant way to pass the time before the hard work of (2. adult) ________ comes along, but there is much more to it than that. For a start, play can be dangerous and cost some animals their lives. It is also extremely (3. cost) ________ in terms of energy. Nature tends not to waste energy, so there must be a reason for this dangerous and strenuous activity. Playing is a requirement for the development of intelligence. Current theories posit that more of the brain is involved in play than was previously believed. Play certainly seems to (4. act) ________ higher cognitive processes because it involves complex (5. assess) ________ of playmates, ideas of reciprocity and the use of (6. special) ________ signals and rules. It is already known that juveniles denied the opportunity for play lose the ability to apply social rules when they do interact with their peers. Children destined to suffer mental illnesses as adults engage in little social play early in life. The effect of depriving normal children of play is still (7. know) ________, but the implication is that (8. create) ________ and learning abilities could be adversely affected. With (9. school) ________ beginning earlier and becoming (10. increase) ________ more exam-oriented, the time afforded to play is obviously being reduced. What the result will be is likely to cause concern. IV. MISTAKE CORRECTION: THERE ARE 10 MISTAKES IN THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE. FIND AND CORRECT THEM. Called ‗the fastest grown puzzle in the world‘, Sudoku was virtually unheard of in Europe until a few years ago. The craze first took up in Japan over twenty years ago and the Japanese now buy hundreds of thousands of Sudoku magazines every month. When a British newspaper began publishing the game in 2004, its sales were rocketed. Other newspapers were quick to do the same. Reports of CBS and other TV news channels picked up on the craze and suddenly Sudoku was everywhere. There are now Sudoku magazines, Sudoku books and games for mobile phones. The rules of Sudoku are simple enough, and the puzzle itself can be fiendish difficult to solve. The board has nine rows of nine squares and it is divided into nine boxes of nine squares. The player is given a few of numbers to start with (no more than 32) and then has to fill in the grid therefore each row and each box contain the numbers one to nine once only. The puzzle asks no mathematical skill - it is a test of pure logic and concentration. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST: FILL IN EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD Batman first appeared in May, 1939. He was one of a (1) ________ of superheroes who were fighting to (2) ________ peace to the streets of American cities. But, unlike most of (3) ________ hundreds of costumed crime fighters that took to the streets between the 1930s and 1950s, Batman survived (4) ________ into the 21st century and he is now possibly the world‘s most popular superhero. He is certainly number one in the field of superhero merchandizing. There are more than 1,000 bat-items (5) ________ for sale in the US, and probably just (6) ________ many cheap imitations. You can buy all sorts of things, from dolls and costumes to clocks, perfume and inflatable beds. Like all good heroes, Batman is not perfect. He is (7) ________ up by revenge: revenge for the deaths of his own parents and for those of the ‗boy wonder‘, Robin. He and Robin manage to capture Antonio Zucco, the gangland boss who was responsible for the deaths of Robin‘s parents, but Batman will never be able to track down the criminal who killed his own parents in cold blood. He hides his obsession behind a mask and is plagued by doubts. Who is he? Which is his (8) ________ identity? Is he the philanthropist millionaire Bruce Wayne or the masked vigilante working in the shadow? Bruce Wayne spends his day (9) ________ his money to work to help the poor and needy, but at night he

takes the laws into his own hands and sometimes comes very close to (10) ________ the thin line between crime and crime fighting. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION; COMPLETE THE SECOND SENTENCE SO THAT IT HAS A SIMILAR MEANING TO THE FIRST SENTENCE, USING THE WORD GIVEN. DO NOT CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. 1. Jim‘s inability to make decisions dates from his accident. →Ever __________________________________ decisions 2. It was almost dark when we got home, (until) →Not ___________________________________ home. 3. They started building the new supermarket two years ago. →The new _______________________________ past two years. 4. They tied the dog up for fear it might escape, (case) →The ___________________________________ escaped. 5. He hated the way the media scrutinized his private life, (came) →He hated _______________________________ from the media. 6. If you want to succeed, you need to make good use of the things you are good at. (play) →You have ______________________________ if you want to succeed. 7. I quite like snails, but they wouldn‘t be my first choice, (averse) →Although I _____________________________ , they wouldn‘t be my first choice. 8. We were elated by the birth of our first grandchild, (moon) →We ___________________________________ was born. 9. Tom‘s presence at parties adds to everyone‘s enjoyment, (soul) →Tom __________________________________ parties. 10. Russ‘s opinions on the new management policies were very different from those of his fellow workers, (odds) →Russ __________________________________ the new management policies. ____ THE END____

PRACTICE TEST 18 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY 1/ Pronunciation (10 ms) * Choose the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. 1. A. honorable B. honesty C. historic D. heir 2. A. ecosystem B. knowledge C. technology D. commodity 3. A. anxiety B. complexion C. anxious D. luxury 4. A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage 5. A. complain B. bargain C. ascertain D. campaign 2/ Main stressed syllables * Choose the word which is stressed differently from the others in the list. 6. A. apparently B. insurance C. photographer D. politician 7. A. vanity B. mechanize C. nonprofit D. microwave 8. A. literature B. approximately C. museum D. maintain 9. A. fortunately B. entertain C. recommend D. disappear 10. . A. survive B. fashionable C. palace D. memory II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE A. Vocabulary: Choose the word or phrase which best complete each sentence. 1. These figures show a ________ in the number of unemployed people in England and Wales A. loss B. lessening C. reduction D. lowering 2. The doctor gave the patient ________ examination to discover the cause of his collapse. A. a thorough B. a universal C. an exact D. a whole 3. She never says a word; she is as ________ as a mouse. A. quiet B. small C. slight D. noiseless 4. You will have to ________ your holiday if you are too ill to travel. A. call off B. cut down C. back out D. put aside 5. She ________ him of wanting to marry her for her money.

A. cursed B. accused C. blamed D. warned 6. This cloth ________ very thin. A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles 7. I am sorry I opened your handbag but I ________ it for mine. A. mistook B. confused C. recognized D. imagined 8. ________ amount of money can buy true friendship. A. No B. Never C. None D. Not only 9. ________ the wet weather, the football, match went ahead. A. Although B. Owing to C. However D. In spite of 10. He was ________ to steal the money when he saw it lying on the table. A. attracted B. dragged C. tempted D. brought B. STRUCTURE AND GRAMMAR 1. There was a landslide in this area last year. If people hadn‘t cut down so many trees that wouldn‘t _____. A. have happened B. happen C. has happened D. happened 2. The damage caused by poachers and illegal lumberjacks must ________ to be believed. A. see B. be seen C. to be seen D. seen 3. Humpback whale are considered ________ species. A. dangerous B. danger C. endangered D. endanger 4. People should change their inappropriate lifestyle ________ destruction to natural reserves. A. that causes B. caused C. causing D. A&C are correct 5. What if our habitat ________? A. were destroyed B. to be destroyed C. destroying D. A&C are correct 6. John left without a word. If only he ________ something. A. said B. had said C. was saying D. says 7. Without music, the children wouldn‘t ________ so much fun. A. be having B. be C. have had D. have been 8. As it was raining, Paul didn‘t ________ like walking home. A. fancy B. feel C. wish D. want 9. ________ about what he had heard, John telephoned his brother. A. Having worried B. To worry C. He worried D. Worried 10. We will go for a walk ________ it‘s foggy- I hate walking in the fog. A. though B. unless C. if D. in case III. READING COMPREHENSION 1. Reading 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer. Tsunami is a Japanese word which means harbour wave and is used as the scientific term for seismic sea wave generated by an undersea earthquake or possibly an undersea landslide or volcanic eruption. When the ocean floor is tilted or offset during an earthquake, a set of waves is created similar to the concentric waves generated by an object dropped into the water. Most tsunamis originate along the Ring of Fire, a zone of volcanoes and seismic activity, 32,500 km long that encircles the Pacific Ocean. Since 1819, about 40 tsunamis have struck the Hawaiian Islands. A tsunami can have wave lengths, or widths, of 100 to 200 km, and may travel hundreds of kilometres across the deep ocean, reaching speeds of about 725 to 800 kilometres an hour. Upon entering shallow coastal waters, the wave, which may have been only about half a metre high out at sea, suddenly grows rapidly. When the wave reaches the shore, it may be 15 m high or more. Tsunamis have tremendous energy because of the great volume of water affected. They are capable of obliterating coastal settlements. Tsunamis should not be confused with storm surges, which are domes of water that rise underneath hurricanes or cyclones and cause extensive coastal flooding when the storms reach land. Storm surges are particularly devastating if they occur at high tide. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge killed an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh in 1970. The tsunami which struck south and Southeast Asia in late 2004 killed over 200 thousand people. 1. Scientifically, tsunami is the term for A. seismic sea wave. B. undersea earthquake C. undersea landslide D. volcanic eruption 2. What does the word concentric mean? A. Wavy B. Having many centres C. Having a common centre. D. A ring. 3. Which of the following may be a reason for a tsunami? A. An inactive volcano B. A landslide on the seashore C. An undersea earthquake D. A storm 4. What will happen when an object is dropped into the water?

A. Volcanic eruption may be a consequence B. Some concentric waves will be generated. C. There will be seismic activity D. Earthquake may happen 5. What is the zone of volcanoes and seismic activity in the world called? A. The concentric wave B. The tsunami C. The Pacific Ocean D. The Ring of Fire. 6. That is the greatest speed of tsunamis traveling across the deep ocean? A. 200 kilometres an hour. B. 700 kilometres an hour. C. 800 kilometres an hour. D. 150,000 kilometres an hour. 7. How high is the wave of the tsunami when it reaches the shore? A. 100 metres. B. 200 metres C. Half a metre D. Fifteen metres. 8. How are tsunamis capable of obliterating coastal settlements? A. They have tremendous energy due to the great volume of water affected. B. They are a metre high or more. C. They travel hundreds of kilometres. D. They can strike the shore fifteen metres high. 9. What killed an estimated 500,000 people in Bangladesh? A. A tsunami B. A cyclone and accompanying storm surge C. A high tide D.Flooding 10. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Tsunamis only occur in Asia B. A cyclone along with storm surge happened in Asia in 1970. C. Storm surges are domes of water rising underneath hurricanes or cyclones. D. Storm surges cause extensive coastal flooding. * Reading 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer. In 776 B. C, the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honour the Greek‘s chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later the Games were open to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, discus and javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honoured by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to allow the game to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented. The Greeks attached so much importance to the Games that they calculated time in four- year cycles called ―Olympiads‖ dating from 776 B. C. The contests coincided with religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the part of the participants to please the gods. Anyone who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but also to the cities they represented. 1. Which of the following is not true? A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads. B. The games were held in Greece every four years. C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games. D. Poems glorified the winner in song. 2. The word ―elite‖ is closest in the meaning to A. aristocracy B. brave C. intellectuals D. muscular 3. Why were the Olympics held? A. To stop war B. To honour Zeus C. To crown the best athletes D. To sing songs about athletes 4. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate? A. 800 years B. 1,200 years C. 2,300 years D. 2,800 years 5. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greek? A. They are pacifists B. They believed athletic events were important C. They were very simple D. They couldn‘t count, so they used ―Olympiads‖ for dates 6. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks. B. The Greeks severely punished those who did not participate in physical fitness programs. C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games. D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war when the games were over.

7. The word ―deeds‖ is closest in meaning to A. accomplishments B. ancestors C. documents D. property 8. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the Olympics? A. They must have completed military service. B. They had to attend special training sessions. C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record. D. They had to be religious. 9. The word ―halted‖ means most nearly the same as A. encouraged B. started C. curtailed D. fixed 10. What is an ―Olympiad‖? A. The time it took to finish the games B. The time between games. C. The time it took to finish a war D. The time it took the athletes to train. IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST * Read the passage and choose the word or phrase that best fits each space. Then mark your choice on the answer sheet. Mobile phones (1) ________ microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves might (2) ________ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (3) ________ us to say with certainty that mobile phones are categorically (4) ________ On the other hand, current research has not yet (5) ________ clear adverse effects associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones. Numerous studies are now going (6) ________ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (7) ________, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long-term investigation. (8) ________ the scientific data are more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phones for long (9) ________ of time. Don‘t think that hands-free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in face showing the (10) ________ and they may be just as dangerous. 1. A. send B. give C. emit D. charge 2. A. cause B. lead C. produce D. bring 3. A. enable B. make C. able D. let 4. A. risky B. secure C. unhealthy D. safe 5. A. investigated B. demonstrated C. caused D. produced 6. A. by B. on C. through D. about 7. A. Though B. Additionally C. However D. While 8. A. Provide B. As C. When D. Until 9. A. amounts B. periods C. quantities D. intervals 10. A. fact B. opposite C. way D. truth B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES/FORMS * Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets. 1. She (try) ________ to prevent the dog from running into the road. 2. I enjoy (invite) ________ to parties. 3. ―When can I have my car back?‖ - ―I think it‘ll (finish) ________ late this afternoon.‖ 4. After (carry) ________ those books up the stairs, Ann panted heavily. 5. If you want to develop inner tranquility, you have to stop (bother) ________ by every little thing that happens. 6. Have you ever met the man (stand) ________ over there? 7. Neither industries nor the garbage disposal (account) ________ for the pollution in this city. 8. If I weren‘t working for an accounting firm, I (work) ________ in a bank. 9. It was very kind of you to get me something for my birthday, but you (need/not/ buy) ________ me such an expensive present. 10. The medicine made me feel dizzy. I felt as though the room (spin) ________ around and around. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS * Complete the sentences with the correct prepositions or phrasal Verbs. 1. If you pay the restaurant bill with your credit card, I‘ll ________ with you later. 2. It‘s difficult to ________ to the customer helpline in the morning. 3. My friend and I ________ last week because she thinks I‘m in love with her boyfriend.

4. I hope I will be able to ________ to answering the letter this in the mid- and late evening. 5. As you‘ve arrived late, you‘ll have to ________ for the time you have lost. 6. ________ the mid- and late 20th century, technological advances expanded the definition of the book to include audio books and electronic books or e-books. 7. The price of excursions is included ________ the cost of the holiday. 8. The uniform seems to ________ him so much. He looks stronger in it. 9. I meant to sound confident at the interview but I‘m afraid I came ________ as dogmatic. 10. I can lend you five pounds to help you ________ until you‘ve had time to go to the bank. III. WORD FORMS A/ Fill each gap with the correct form of the word given in brackets. 1. The family managed to get out of the burning house, but they lost nearly all their ________. (possess) 2. Travelling in big cities is becoming more ________ every day. (trouble) 3. If you want to ________, you must not be shy. (society) 4. Athens is particularly affected by ________ pollution. (atmostphere) 5. Her ________ from the group show her dislike of its members, (withdraw) 6. Applicants must be under 25, hard-working and ________. (energy) 7. He‘s more ________ than I expected, (tolerate) 8. I had to look up the number in the telephone ________. (direct) 9. They all cheered ________ as their team came out. (enthusiasm) 10. A conversation isn‘t fun unless it becomes ________. (hot) IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * The passage below contains 10 errors, identify and correct them. When you are being interviewed to a job, remember that it‘s normal for many people to be nervous, particular in such stress-produce situation period. There are plenty of jobs- indeed, probably most- where a few nervousness isn‘t looking at askance. It des help to drying a damp brow or a clammy hand just after meeting the interviewer, but otherwise, don‘t be too concern about the outward manifestations of your nervousness. Experienced interviewers will discount most physically signs of nervousness. The only one that people have a hardly time ignoring is a fidgety hand. Interviewees who constantly twist their hands or make movements that are dramatically distracting are visibly nervous. Example: 0. to → for V. OPEN CLOSE TEST (20PTS) FILL IN EACH BLANK WITH ONE SUITABLE WORD. Agriculture is the world‘s most important industry. It provides us with (1) ________ all our food. It also supplies materials for two other basic human needs - clothing and shelter. In (2) ________, agriculture provides materials (3) ________ in making many industrial products such as paints and medicines. About half the world‘s workers areemployed in agriculture - far more than in any (4) ________ industry. Agriculture is one of the world‘s oldest industries. It began about 10,000 years ago in the Middle East. (5) ________ that time, certain Middle Eastern tribes had discovered how to grow plants from seeds and how to raise (6) ________ in captivity. Having mastered these skills, they could begin to practise agriculture. Before the development of agriculture, people got all their food by gathering wild plants, hunting, and fishing. They had to search for food continually, (7) ________ left them little time for other activities. But as agriculture developed and farm output increased, fewer people were (8) ________ to produce food. The nonfarmers could then develop the arts, crafts, trades, and other activities of civilized life. Agriculture (9) ________ not only greatly affected food supply but also (10) ________ civilization possible. VI. WRITING: Sentence Transformation (20pts) A. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. 1. Twice as many men as women are insurance agents. Male insurance agents _______________________________________________________ 2. I‘d like to know more about world religions. I am _____________________________________________________________________ 3. Frank doesn‘t care if Jean leaves or stays. Whatever _________________________________________________________________ 4. People rumour that he is rich but stingy. What _____________________________________________________________________ B. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the word given. 1. His acting in a play caused him to lose his voice. Performing He lost his voice because _____________________________________________________

2. They will want to know what you have in your suitcase. Asked You______________________________________________________________________ 3. Are you implying that he is a thief? Infer _________________________________________________________________________ 4. The plumber advised me not to use the faulty appliance. Advice _________________________________________________________________________ 5. The Member of Parliament did everything he could do to exploit the situation. Advantage _________________________________________________________________________ 6. The worst is over now. Through _________________________________________________________________________ ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 19 PART ONE: PHONOLOGY A. Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the others: (5 points) 1. A. houses B. produces C. releases D. decreases 2. A. chamber B. dangerous C. straight D. balance 3. A. bombard B. discard C. mustard D. retard 4. A. complain B. bargain C. ascertain D. campaign 5. A. spear B. wear C. bear D. pear B. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 1. A. disastrous B. humorous C. unanimous D. ambiguous 2. A. patriotic B. citizenship C. entertainment D. popularity 3. A. diplomacy B. delicacy C. peninsula D. pneumonia 4. A. morale B. moustache C. disease D. contour 5. A. telecommuting B. geophysical C. hydroelectric D. humanitarian PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR A. Choose the best answer. (20 points) 1. General Custer was confident of victory despite being vastly ________ by the enemy. A. outnumbered B. outclassed C. overcome D. overtaken 2. Since he spoke about the subject so indirectly, it was difficult to see what he was ________. A. getting at B. getting on C. getting in D. getting up 3. The ministry refused to ________ the figures to the press. A. release B. leak C. show D. add 4. Steve ________ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question. A. threw out B. threw off C. threw away D. threw in 5. Mr Jones gave his sons some money to ________ them up in business. A. get B. set C. put D. make 6. ________ comes a time when you have to make a decision and stick to it. A. It B. Therefore C. There D. That 7. James had, ________, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house. A. lastly B. at last C. lately D. at least 8. Mr Nixon refused to answer the questions on the ________ that the matter was confidential. A. reasons B. excuses C. grounds D. foundations 9. The lawyer insisted that his client ________ never have been arrested in the first place. A. should B. must C. ought D. would 10. As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to ________. A. fall away B. fall back C. fall over D. fall out 11. How voters will react to this latest political scandal ________ to be seen. A. is B. remains C. has D. waits 12. ‗There is no further treatment we can give,‘ said Dr Jekyll. ‗We must let the disease take its ________‘ A. course B. end C. term D. way

13. He walked from the court a free man, having been ________ of murder. A. unconvinced B. discharged C. liberated D. acquitted 14. Michael was the ________ force behind the company‘s rapid expansion. A. managing B. leading C. rising D. driving 15. Can you take ________ of the shop while Mr Benoit is away? A. management B. running C. charge D. operation 16. Jack and Christine wondered how the rumours had begun to ________. A. disseminate B. spread C. run D. develop 17. The minister made no ________ of any further negotiations. A. mention B. comment C. indication D. remark 18. The forecasters take a gloomy ________ of the economic future. A. regard B. aspect C. view D. outlook 19. The soldiers walked cautiously through the ________ deserted streets. A. obviously B. apparently C. probably D. hopefully 20. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the ________ relatives. A. lamenting B. wailing C. complaining D. grieving B. Supply the correct form of the word provided in brackets 1. During her ________ the garden was transformed. (occupy) 2. The characters in this novel are ________. (draw) 3. The control centre is deep underground and completely ________ except by a direct hit from a nuclear missile. (destroy) 4. The slight ________ in his left hand was corrected by surgery. (form) 5. Between 1860 and 1900 the country had a number of revolutions and uprisings. It was a time of great ________. (stable) 6. The school has won five ________ games. (succession) 7. His acting style is ________. No one can copy him. (imitate) 8. On such a hot day, the sea was ________. (resist) 9. Her luck seems to have taken an ________. (turn) 10. If you do not require surgery you can be treated as an ________. (patient) C. There are 10 errors in the passage below, read the passage, find out these errors then correct them. E.g: (0) physically → physical Before man had flown in space it was thought that his physically and mental capabilities might be affected to long periods of weightlessness, and that he might be endangered by high levels in radiation. Yuri Gagarin‘s first space flight in April 1961, shown that man could live in space and so this journey only lasted for 108 minutes, it made encouragement to those interested in the future of manned space flight. In fact most of the early fears about man‘s health in space have proved ground, and although several odd medical effects have been observed, none has serious affected man‘s ability for useful work. All astronauts undergo strenuously training to prepare them to the experience of space flight but, despite this, most astronauts suffered from space sickness early in their flights. This effect, similar to sea sickness, soon wear off, and there appears to be no medicine reason why man cannot live‘ in space for long periods of time. A constant check is kept to the health of all astronauts during its mission. Small medical detections which monitor their heartbeats, pulse rates, breathe and temperature are taped to their bodies. 1 ________________________________________________________________________ 2 ________________________________________________________________________ 3 ________________________________________________________________________ 4 ________________________________________________________________________ 5 ________________________________________________________________________ 6 ________________________________________________________________________ 7 ________________________________________________________________________ 8 ________________________________________________________________________ 9 ________________________________________________________________________ 10 _______________________________________________________________________ D. Put in suitable prepositions. 1. She gets ________ at least £200 every weekend - I don‘t know what she spends it on. 2. If you paint the figures ________ bright colours they will stand ________ more clearly. 3. You had better allow ________ a few extra ________ supper tonight and cater ________ ten. 4. David, I beg you not consort ________ those girls; they are not worthy ________ you. 5. This man stands ________ the court charged ________ arson.

6. ________ all your patent medicines you haven‘t cured me ________ this cold. 7. The accused was absolved ________ all blame. 8. I must ask you not to allude ________ my past indiscretions. 9. The books are ________ loan ________ us ________ a private library. 10. I refuse to bargain ________ you ________ the price ________ those conditions. E. Put the verbs in brackets into the correct forms. 1. I live in German, but I come from Australia. This is the first time I (ever, be) ________ to Canada. By the time I go home I hope I (take) ________ photos of all parts of the country When I am back to German, I (have) ________ an exhibition of my photos. 2. Is it necessary that he (take) ________ an examination? 3. ―We (wait) ________ here for half an hour now so I (not think) ________ she will come. She always (arrive) ________ late, or you (think) ________ something (happen) ________ to her?‖ ―I (not know) ________, but I (think) ________ we (wait) ________ long enough.‖ 4. It was our fault to keep Jane (wait) ________ so long. We (inform) ________ her in advance. 5. He greeted her. She really (look) ________ better than when he (see) ________ her last. Yes, she (change) ________ 6. It‘s no use (ask) ________ children (keep) ________ quiet. They can‘t help (make) ________ a noise. PART THREE: READING A. Read the passage and then decide which word (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space. OLYMPIC GAMES It is not so much the scandals and disputes of recent years that have (1) ________ the Olympic Games. It is their sheer enormity, their excessive cost, their (2) ________ of national pride. One very sensible suggestion is that future Games should be (3) ________ to individual events in which one person clearly wins. All team games would go, and no one would feel any los.5 at the disappearance of Olympic soccer, a (4) ________ shadow of the more professional game. Anything which required judging would also be (5) ________ One reason for this is the difficulty of obtaining fair and accurate judges. An (6) ________ example of this is the case of Jacqueline de Bief, a former world figure skating champion. She revealed to the (7) ________ that she was sometimes offered generous marks in exchange for what one newspaper called ―an amorous adventure‖. If events that required judging were excluded, it would also (8) ________ the Games of boxing, wrestling, and the boring diving competitions. It would also eliminate sailing, largely a matter of boat building, and horse jumping, largely a matter of the horse. Under such circumstances, the individual would be (9) ________ to his rightful place, and a (10) ________ size to the Games would be achieved. 1. A. warned B. threatened C. reproached D. shocked 2. A. pampering B. easing C, indulgence D. spoiling 3. A. held B. restricted C. limit D. decided 4. A. slight B. dull C. pale D. empty 5. A. undone B. left C. omit D. excluded 6. A. extreme B. outside C. upset D. unlimited 7. A. paper B. press C. journal D. magazine 8. A. remove B. take C. rid D. scratch 9. A. retained B. ascended C. renovated D. restored 10. A. sane B. approximate C. accepted D. sensible B. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space, use only one word in each space. About two hundred years ago, man lived in greater ____ (1) ____ with his environment ____ (2) ____ industry was not much developed. Today the situation is quite ____ (3) ____. People all over the world are worried about what is happening to the ____ (4) ____, because of modern industry and the need for more energy. Newspapers and magazines ____ (5) ____ about water pollution, air pollution, and land pollution. Why is there so much ____ (6) ____ about pollution? After ____ (7) ____, people have been polluting the world around them for thousands and thousands of years. But in the ____ (8) ____, there were not ____ (9) ____ people and lots of room in the world so they could move to another place when their ____ (10) ____ became dirty. C. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the following questions. (10 points) AN UNLIKELY MUSE

A new wave of music and arts projects has emerged, focusing on someone who may seem for some a dubious source of inspiration. Imelda Marcos, former first lady of the Philippines, is currently becoming the subject of musicals, song cycles and shows on a worldwide arena. When the Marcos regime collapsed in 1986, and Imelda and her husband Ferdinand were exiled in Hawaii, they carried with them allegations of embezzlement, corruption and human rights abuses Imelda had spent the last twenty years living off a seemingly endless supply of funds, living an exotic and glamorous lifestyle and rubbing shoulders with powerful figures worldwide. In 1972, when the superstar couple‘s popularity was fading and they were at risk of losing their power, Ferdinand Marcos instated martial, leading to an era of chaos and plunder, and what is described by some as the second most corrupt regime of the twentieth century. Ferdinand and Imelda fled in 1986 to escape the People‘s Power Revolution, Imelda leaving behind some 2000 pairs of shoes. After her husband died in Hawaii due to ill health, Imelda stood trial in the United States on behalf of her husband. Following that, she returned to the Philippines to face seventy more counts of corruption and tax evasion. She has now returned to congress in the Philippines, her make-up and gowns as flawless as ever. So what makes Imelda Marcos such an appealing muse? Undoubtedly, Imelda Marcos‘s resolute character which has withstood exile, legal battles and the wrath of her enemies makes her an appealing heroine, but filmmaker Fenton Bailey attributes her iconicity to her sense of glamour and style, and her role as a cultural trend-setter. And like so many women who let nothing come between them and their goals, she has gained a certain iconic status, particularly among homosexuals, not unlike that of Judy Garland and Lady Gaga. And now the story of Imelda Marcos can be seen in the format of a musical, an artistic genre which is quite befitting for this flamboyant, entertaining figure of beauty and glamour. ‗Imelda - A new musical‘ has played in Los Angeles and New York. The artistic director of the musical, Tim Dang, realizes that the musical glosses over the darker aspects of the Marcos regime, but wanted to portray Imelda as a person with all her faults on display, leaving the audience to come to a verdict. However, despite the glitz of the show, reviews were mixed, stating the ‗the serio-comic spoof... had a vacuum at its centre‘. The story of Imelda Marcos has also been immortalized as a song cycle, ‗Here Lies Love‘ written by David Byrne and Norman Cook, in which Imelda comes across as both a hero and villain. Their reasoning was to try to understand the story of how people can attain positions of such power and greed. They were also inspired by Imeida‘s love of dancing and clubbing, and how her own style of music could be incorporated into their own. Byrne adds that their story is not black and white - the couple were very popular at first, and Imelda headed a lot of public works in the Philippines and added much to the nation‘s sense of culture and identity. At the Cultural Centre of the Philippines, a tour named ‗La Vida Imelda‘ led by Carlos Sedran describes the life of Imelda Marcos, the cold war and martial law, while also portraying the glamour of the Imelda lifestyle. He describes it as an eternal story, in which her extravagance can be seen as either distasteful or in some ways estimable. There is a danger that these new art forms airbrush out the atrocities which accompanied the ostentation and glamour. It was a time when democracy was suppressed, political enemies disappeared, and billions of dollars which could have helped the poverty-stricken country were spent on the Marcos‘s extravagant lifestyle. However, the artists involved are keen to make clear that the regime also resulted in great leaps forward in the country‘s culture, architecture and infrastructure. The Marcos legacy remains in the form of hospitals, Heart and Lung Centres, Folk Art theatres and homes for children and the elderly, notwithstanding that the Marcos couple set their war-ravaged, poverty-stricken land onto the world stage. 1. The word dubious in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________. A. doubtful B. great C. endless D. invaluable 2. Why are Imeida‘s shoes mentioned in the second paragraph? A. To illustrate how little she cared for her personal possessions B. To illustrate her love of fashion and beauty C. To indicate how quickly she had to flee the country D. To illustrate the extravagance of her lifestyle 3. What aspect of Imeida‘s character is emphasized in paragraph 3? A. her flamboyance B. her kindness C. her resolution D. her beauty 4. What does the word that in paragraph 4 refer to? A. goal B. style C. iconic status D. music 5. Why is Imelda compared with Judy Garland and Lady Gaga? A. Due to her status as a gay icon B. Due to her ambition and drive C. Because she has created new fashions D. Because she has triumphed over legal battles

6. Why was the musical of Imelda‘s life criticized? A. Because it did not portray Imelda‘s faults B. Because the show was too shallow C. Because it was too glamorous and showy D. Because it was both serious and comedic 7. What was it about Imelda‘s story that interested David Byrne and Norman Cooke? A. The ongoing themes of power, greed and music B. The fact that the story had both a clear hero and villain C. The reasoning why people such as Imelda become who they are D. The fact that her musical taste was similar to theirs 8. According to Carlos Sedran, how do people respond to Imelda‘s expensive lifestyle? A. Most people are shocked by it B. It evokes both positive and negative feelings C. People want to be like her D. People realize why she did it 9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text as something Imelda Marcos did for the Philippines? A. She made health services available to the people. B. She gave the country a cultural identity. C. She reduced the levels of poverty for Filipino people. D. She drew the world‘s attention to the country. 10. According to the reading passage, which is NOT TRUE about Imelda Marcos? A. She is internationally famous B. She is living in poverty now. C. She was Filipino President‘s wife D. There are songs written about her. PART FOUR: WRITING A. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points) 1. After the beginning of the opera, latecomers had to wait before taking their seats. Once _____________________________________________________________________ 2. You will be able to relax soon if we get there as quickly as possible. The quicker _______________________________________________________________ 3. Such a ridiculous proposal isn‘t worth serious consideration. There is___________________________________________________________________ 4. The best solution was thought of by Sally. Sally came ________________________________________________________________ 5. Brenda doesn‘t get on with her next-door neighbour any more. Brenda has ________________________________________________________________ B. WRITE A NEW SENTENCE USING THE WORD GIVEN. PLEASE DO NOT ALTER THESE WORDS. (5 POINTS) 1. They decided not to go by boat because they thought they would be seasick, (fear) _________________________________________________________________________ 2. I didn‘t see her again for five years, (before) _________________________________________________________________________ 3. He owed his rescue to a passer-by. (indebted) _________________________________________________________________________ 4. Don‘t run away with the idea that this job is easy, (conclusion) _________________________________________________________________________ 5. Only final-year students are allowed to use the main college car park, (restricted) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 20 A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS) I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. 1. A. question B. protection C. aviation D. exception 2. A. junkyard B. summit C. hallucination D. hunting 3. A. expunge B. expurgate C. external D. extenuating 4. A. dispose B. chastise C. depose D. obese 5. A. doubt B. thumb C. subtle D. absorb * Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. 6. A. botanist B. infamous C. automobile D. technique 7. A. obsolete B. complete C. compete D. deplete 8. A. antonym B. consequence C. phenomenon D. ingot 9. A. destination B. enthusiast C. hallucinate D. technology 10. A. coherent B. permanent C. continent D. sentiment II. Choose the best answer. 1. A dividend is ________ the only benefit a corporation can offer its shareholders. A. no B. nor C. none D. not 2. In the 1960s, pop art ________ to discover artistic significance in the commercial artifacts of the consumer culture. A. seeking B. to seek C. has sought D. sought 3. There was no ________ difference between the original and the copy. A. knowable B. Discoverable C. discernible D. understandable 4. The actors have to ________ before they appear in front of the strong lights on stage. A. cover up B. do up C. make up D. paint up 5. After the interval, the change of ________ brought a gasp of surprise from the audience. A. panorama B. scenery C: view D. vista 6. When he finally ________, he couldn‘t remember what had happened. A. stood back B. came round C. held back D. wore off 7. Although there is no official censorship in our country, the press is still ________ the laws of the land. A. subject to B. accountable to C. restrained by D. controlled by 8. Be careful seeding, weathermakers can encourage two small clouds to merge into one big cloud produce a powerful thunderstorm. A. so B. these C. which D. and 9. ________ we have finished the course, we shall start doing more revision work. A. Now that B. For now C. Ever since D. By now 10. Private printing was simply a means ________ he could increase his income. A. whereupon B. whereby C. wherewithal D. whereabouts 11. What he told me was a ________ of lies. A. pack B. load C. mob D. flock 12. He was pleased to have the ________ to hear such a fine musician play his favourite piece of music. A. occasion B. possibility C. opportunity D. fate 13. Doctors advise people who are deficient ________ Vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables. A. in B. of C. from D. for 14. I copied down the directions that he gave me. A. verbatim B. by word C. by heart D. finely 15. I thought you said that you were ________ to be in Spain this weekend. A. intended B. assumed C. supposed D. planned 16. When I stopped talking, Sam finished my sentence for me as though he ________ my mind. A. would read B. can read C. reads D. had read 17. My anti-sports tendencies were reinforced ________ the years by reports of injured sports enthusiasts. A. for B. over C. by D. in 18. The defendant had been ________ with robbery and assault. A. guilty B. accused C. blamed D. charged 19. The film was finished in the ________ of time to be shown at the festival. A. nick B. moment C. right D. just 20. Just before closing, the barman asked the customers to drink ________. A. down B. out C. up D. on

Reading 1:

Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. (10 points) Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man‘s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantites of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop. Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist-skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found: the giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed, running, and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population are largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere in the world. The secret of their adjustment lies in a combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees. An example of a desert animal that has adapted to subterranean living and lack of water is the kangaroo rat. Like many desert animals, kangaroo rats stay underground during the day. At night, they go outside to look for food. As evening temperatures drop, moisture from the air forms on plants and seeds. They absorb some of this moisture and kangaroo rats take in the life-giving water as they eat. 1. What is the topic of this passage? A. Desert plant B. Life underground C. Animal life in a desert environment D. Man‘s life in the desert 2. The word ―greater‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. stronger B. larger C. more noticeable D. heavier 3. The phrase ―those forms‖ refers to all of the following except A. water-loving animals B. the bobcat C. moist-skinned animals D. many large animals 4. ―Desiccating‖ means ________. A. drying B. humidifying C. killing D. life threatening 5. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT ________. A. animals sleep during the day B. animals dig homes underground C. animals are noisy and aggressive D. animals are watchful and quiet 6. The word ―emaciated‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. wild B. cunning C. unmanageable D. unhealthy 7. The author states that one characteristic of animals who live in the desert is that they ________. A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals B. are less healthy than animals who live in different places C. can hunt in temperatures of 150 degrees D. live in an accommodating environment 8. The word ―subterranean‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. underground B. safe C. precarious D. harsh 9. The word ―they‖ refers to ________. A. kangaroo rats B. the desert population C. plants and seeds D. the burrows of desert animals 10. Which of the following generalizations are supported by the passage? A. Water is the basis of life B. All living things adjust to their environments C. Desert life is colorful D. Healthy animals live longer lives Reading 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. (10 points) Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication- having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for

your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn‘t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer‘s doctor didn‘t agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it‘s best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it‘s wise not to use your mobile phone too often. 1. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ________. A. they are indispensable in everyday communications B. they make them look more stylish C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they can not be replaced by regular phones 2. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with _ _______. A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory. 3. The word ―means‖ in the passage most closely means ________. A. meanings B. expression C. method D. transmission 4. The word ―potentially‖ in the passage most closely means ________. A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately 5. ―Negative publicity‖ in the passage most closely means ________. A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones C. the negative public use of cell phones D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones 6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may ________. A. damage their users‘ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction C. change their users‘ temperament D. change their users‘ social behavior 7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, ________. A. suffer serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory 8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________. A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays 9. According to the writer, people should ________. A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones regularly C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never use mobile phones in all cases 10. The most suitable tittle for the passage could be ________. A. ―The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are popular‖ B. ―Technological Innovations and Their Price‖ C. ―The Way Mobile Phones Work‖ D. ―Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time‖ IV. For questions 1.10, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). THE CHANGING EARTH Although the earth was formed about 4,500 million years ago, human beings have inhabited it for less than half a million years. Within this time, population has increased hugely and people have had a vast (1) ________ upon the earth. They have long been able to (2) ________ the forces of nature to use. Now, with modern technology, they have the power to alter the balance of life on earth. Reports back from the first astronauts helped dispel the dangerous (3) ________ that the world had no boundaries and had limitless resources. (4) ________ ecologists have shown that all forms of life on earth are interconnected, so it (5) ________ that all human activity has an effect on the natural environment. In recent years, people have been putting the environment under stress. As a result, certain (6) ________ materials such as timber, water and minerals are beginning to (7) ________ short. Pollution and the (8) ________ of waste are already critical issues, and the state of the environment is fast becoming the most

pressing problem (9) ________ us all. The way we response to the challenge will have a profound effect on the earth and its life support system. However, despite all these threats there are (10) ________ signs. Over the past few decades, the growth in population has been more than matched by food production, indicating that we should be able to feed ourselves for some time yet. III. Supply the correct form of the word provided in brackets. 1. My daughter left a half ________ orange on the table. (EAT) 2. Most people who work feel that they are ________ (PAY) 3. The teacher warned the children that if they ________ again, they would be punished. (BEHAVE) 4. Are all those ________ they put in food really necessary? (ADD) 5. The manager handed in his ________ after being accused of dishonesty. (RESIGN) 6. A ________ damage was caused by the earthquake. (WIDE) 7. Phil was sentenced to seven years ________ for his part in the armed robbery. (PRISON) 8. I was late because I ________ how much time I will need. (ESTIMATE) 9. How can you ________ the fact that some people live in mansions while others live in slums? (JUST) 10. She is so ________ that she won‘t let anything stand in the way of her ambition. (MIND) IV. There is one unnecessary word in most of the lines of this text. Write these words in the space provided. Tick any lines that are correct. (10 points) THE COMET HALE-BOPP Comets wander through deepest space. Occasionally, and for only 00.____ⱱ____ a so short time we are privileged to view this wonderful naturally 0. ____so____ phenomenon as from earth. In April 1997, the comet Hale- Bopp 1. ________ made out its closest approach to our sun and its appearance 2. ________ had caught the attention of professional and amateur astronomers alike. 3. ________ The comet had in fact and only been discovered in July 1995. During those 4. ________ April evenings, Hale-Bopp provided us with an unforgettable sight. Night 5. ________ after night, because thanks to dear skies, this magical body was clearly 6. ________ visible to the naked eyes, trailing its elegant, long dust tail across the all 7. ________ night sky. Though still briefly visible in early May, it has eventually 8. ________ disappeared that month, was heading back into the outer solar system. 9. ________ observers around the world agreed that Hale-Bopp was the most complex 10. ________ structure they had seen and considered themselves fortunate to have witnessed it. V. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (10 points) THE HISTORY OF THE CINEMA In Britain, the cinema was, (0) without doubt, the most important form of public commercial entertainment of the twentieth century. Until its popularity was eclipsed in the 1950s by television, cinema enjoyed a period of some fifty years during (1) ________ its appeal far exceeded that of sport or indeed any other commercial leisure activity. The popularity of the cinema at that time is (2) ________ difficult to explain: it was accessible, glamorous and cheap. At its height, between 1920 and 1950, a very small sum of money (3) ________ guarantee a good seat in the cinema. In the 1920s, the usual venue was a small, neighborhood hall. The audience was drawn from the local area, and could (4) ________ some occasions be rather noisy. By the end of the 1930s, (5) ________, the venue was more likely to be in one of the larger cinemas known as ―picture palaces‖, which were springing up everywhere in city centers to accommodate audiences of over two thousand people. (6) ________ these establishments, the audiences were expected to be well behaved; the performances were organized just (7) ________ military operations, (8) ________ uniformed staff on hand to control the queues and usherettes to direct seating arrangements. These large cinemas attracted (9) ________ very mixed audience, although older people were less likely to be cinema-goers than adolescents. As might be expected, people in rural areas were less immersed in the cinema than were people in towns, simply (10) ________ of the greater provision of cinemas in urban areas. VI. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10 points) 1. It is essential that this door is kept unlocked. → On no account should this door _____________________________________________ . 2. Because of its price, the book may never become a bestseller. →The price of the book may prevent ___________________________________________ . 3. It was such an impressive painting that I had an irresistible urge to buy it.

→It was so _______________________________________________________________ . 4. I find his clothes the most irritating about him. →What most ______________________________________________________________ . 5. His rude behaviour is too much for me. →I can‘t put _______________________________________________________________ . * Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (10 points) 6. He bought a new jacket without having planned to. (SPUR) →He bought __________________________________________ moment. 7. This plant often gets attacked by insects. (PRONE) →This plant __________________________________________ by insects. 8. Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? (OBJECTION) →Do you ____________________________________________ you while you paint? 9. They weren‘t getting anywhere until John had a bright idea. (CAME) →They were getting ___________________________________ a bright idea. 10. The young actress was very nervous before the audition. (BUTTERFLIES) →The young actress ___________________________________ audition. ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 21 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY A. Pick out the word whose bold part is pronounced differently from those of the others. 1. A. houses B. horses C. places D. mouses 2. A. beloved B. wicked C. looked D. needed 3. A. dazzle B. pizza C. puzzle D. drizzle 4. A. garbage B. age C. mileage D. rouge 5. A. daytime B. quay C. spray D. Malaysia B. Choose the word in each group that has the stressed syllable different from the rest. 6. A. education B. compulsory C. technology D. intelligent 7. A. human B. humane C. severe D. finance 8. A. guarantee B. committee C. pioneer D. volunteer 9. A. anniversary B. caravansary C. adversary D. preparation 10. A. electrician B. nevertheless C. environmentally D. communication II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE. (20pts) 1. I know it‘s a big favour to ask but,________, I‘ve done you plenty of favours in the past! A. considering B. bearing in mind C. after all D. in the light 2. I‘m afraid I don‘t ________ your view on this matter, but let‘s not quarrel about it. A. correspond B. equate C. accord D. share 3. She is in no ________ that she has done the right thing. A. reservation B. misgiving C. doubt D. distrust 4. When he sings, he has the ________ ability to make even bad songs sound good. A. sparse B. rare C. infrequent D. scarce 5. The management are making ________ to increase the company‘s efficiency. A. measures B. steps C. moves D. deeds 6. It ________ during our conversation that Anita was extremely unhappy. A. emanated B. revealed C. divulged D. emerged 7. I know this is a big disappointment but don‘t take it to ________. A. soul B. mind C. spirit D. heart 8. I was told yesterday that the car had been fixed but it‘s broken down ________ again! A. even B. still C. yet D. right 9. Simon ________ in me on the understanding that I wouldn‘t tell anyone else. A. confided B. intimated C. confessed D. disclosed 10. Eventually the list of candidates for the job was ________ down to three. A. narrowed B. lowered C. wound D. dropped

11. The you say, the ________ services you get. A. fewer/less B. fewer/fewer C. less/less D. less/fewer 12. The two computers for sale were in poor condition, so I didn‘t buy ________. A. either of them B. none of them C. neither of them D. both of them 13. Not until the office phoned me ________. A. I found out about the meeting B. had I found out about the meeting C. did I find out about the meeting D. that I found out about the meeting 14. I don‘t think he‘s ever been there, ________? A. do I B. has he C. do you D. hasn‘t he 15. Don‘t be silly! That ________ possibly be Madonna. A. mustn‘t B. shouldn‘t C. won‘t D. can‘t 16. I supposed, as ________ we all, that the meeting would be cancelled. A. did B. would C. equally D. just 17. ________ let me know. A. If you heard anything B. Had you heard anything C. Unless you hear anything D. Should you hear anything 18. On Sundays when I was a child we ________ up early and go fishing. A. got B. had got C. would get D. should get 19. I would appreciate ________ it a secret A. you to keep B. your keeping C. that you keep D. that you will keep 20. ________ leaves last should turn off the lights. A. The person B. Who C. Anyone D. Whoever III. READING COMPREHENSION (20pts) * READING 1: ALCOHOLICS ANONYMOUS * Read the following passage and answer the questions. Alcoholics Anonymous, or A. A., was founded by two friends who were themselves alcoholics. Bill Wilson was a stockbroker from New York City, and Dr. Robert Smith was a surgeon from Ohio. When the two met in May, 1935, Wilson had already been sober for several months, after years of struggling with his drinking. He shared with Smith three important aspects that he had learned about alcoholism. The first was that alcoholism is not a moral weakness, or a lack of willpower. A New York specialist, Dr. William Duncan Silkworth had taught Wilson that it was more like a disease than a sin. Alcoholism, he said, is comparable to allergies, in that it produces abnormal reactions to alcohol that do not afflict non-alcoholics. These include the intense craving for alcohol that makes it so hard for an alcoholic to stop drinking, once he or she has started. Second, alcoholics develop an obsession that leads them to begin drinking again even after long periods of sobriety, even knowing that the powerful cravings would return. These facts explained the enormous rate of relapse among ―reformed‖ alcoholics. The third of Wilson‘s discoveries is that recovery is possible through a spiritual transformation. He first learned of this approach through a friend who told him the story of Rowland H. Rowland H. was an alcoholic who had undergone treatment with the famous Swiss psychologist Carl Jung. After a prolonged period of therapy that produced no results, Jung told Rowland that his case, like that of most alcoholics, was almost hopeless. Rowland had only one chance: a spiritual conversion experience. According to Jung, virtually every successful alcoholic recovery was due to a spiritual transformation. Heeding Jung‘s advice, Rowland became a member of the Oxford Group, a Christian movement that advocated finding God through moral self-examination, confession of faults, reliance upon God, and helping others. Rowland‘s story suggested that such a spiritual conversion could cure an alcoholic of the obsession that kept sending him or her back to drinking. Also, Wilson told Smith he had found that simply talking to other alcoholics about his personal struggle with drinking seemed to be very beneficial. The two men decided together to put these ideas into practice. Smith‘s last drink is thought to have been on June 10, 1935, and that is still considered to be the date of A. A. ‘s founding. In 1939 they published their book Alcoholics Anonymous, which is still in print and remains a bestseller. There are now more than 100,000 A. A. groups in 150 countries, with a total membership of about two million people. 1. Which the following best describes the passage? A. An explanation the Alcoholics Anonymous program B. A history of the founding of Alcoholics Anonymous C. Short biographies of the two men who founded Alcoholics Anonymous D. A discussion of the origin and symptoms of alcoholism 2. Which of the following is true? A. Wilson stopped drinking before Smith did.

B. Smith told Wilson several important things he had learned. C. Smith and Wilson believed that alcoholism was a moral weakness. D. Wilson learned from Carl Jung that alcoholism was disease. 3. According to paragraph 2, there is a high rate of relapse among alcoholics because A. most of them do not have enough willpower to stop drinking B. they have abnormal reactions to alcohol C. they have an allergy to alcohol that cannot be cured D. most of them do not really wish to stop drinking 4. It is indicated in paragraph 3 that Rowland H. ‘s therapy with Carl Jung A. was entirely successful B. lasted only a short time C. led to Rowland‘s joining the Oxford Group D. is the model for the Alcoholics Anonymous program 5. It can be inferred from the passage that A. Rowland H. failed to quit drinking B. spiritual conversion is an important part of the Alcoholics Anonymous program C. Rowland H. convinced Smith to stop drinking D. joining Alcoholics Anonymous is the only way to cure alcoholism 6. The word ―These‖ in paragraph 2 refers to A. alcoholics B. reactions C. non-alcoholics D. allergies 7. The word ―that‖ in paragraph 4 refers to A. idea B. practice C. drink D. June 10, 1935 8. The word ―comparable‖ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by A. similar B. identical C. relevant D. related 9. The word ―advocated‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. developed B. encouraged C. questioned D. tried 10. Why does the author discuss Rowland H. in paragraph 3? A. To explain how Wilson learned about the spiritual conversion approach B. To give an example of one of Alcoholics Anonymous‘s early successes C. To contrast his story with that of Wilson D. To show that most cases of alcoholism are hopeless * READING 2: 1 After the Anasazi abandoned southwestern Colorado in the late 1200s or early 1300s, history‘s pages are blank. The Anasazi were masons and apartment builders who occupied the deserts, river valleys, and mesas of this region for over a thousand years, building structures that have weathered the test of time. 5 The first Europeans to visit southwestern Colorado were ever- restless, ambitious Spanish, who sought gold, pelts, and slaves. In 1765, under orders from the Spanish governor in Santa Fe, Juan Maria Antoni Rivera led a prospecting and trading party into the region. Near the Dolores River in southwestern Colorado, he found some insignificant silver- bearing rocks, and it is thought that it was he who named the. 10 mountains nearby the Sierra de la Plata or the Silver Mountains. Rivera found little of commercial value that would interest his superiors in Santa Fe, but he did open up a route that would soon lead „ to the establishment of the Old Spanish Trail. This expedition and others to follow left names on the land which are the only reminders we have today that Spanish once explored this region. 15 In 1776, one of the men who had accompanied Rivera, Andre Muniz, acted as a guide for another expedition. That party entered southwestern Colorado in search of route west to California, traveling near today‘s towns of Durango and Dolores. Along the way, they camped at the base of a large green mesa which today carries the name Mesa Verde. They were the first Europeans to record the discovery of an Anasazi 20 archaeological site in southwestern Colorado. By the early 1800s, American mountain men and trappers were exploring the area in their quest for beaver pelts. Men like Peg-leg Smith were outfitted with supplies in the crossroads trapping town of Taos, New Mexico. These adventurous American trappers were a tough bunch. They, possibly more than any other newcomers, 25 penetrated deeply into the mountain fastness of southwestern Colorado, bringing back valuable information about the area and discovering new routes through the mountains. One of the trappers, William Becknell, the farther of the Santa Fe Trail, camped in the area of Mesa Verde, where he found pottery shards, stone houses, and other Anasazi remains.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Early exploration of Colorado B. The history of the Anasazi in Colorado C. The Spanish influence in Colorado D. Economic exploitation of Colorado 2. The phrase ―weathered the test of time‖ in line 4 means that A. the Anasazi culture was very old B. the Anasazi abandoned Colorado because of the desert conditions C. Anasazi buildings can still be seen D. climatic conditions have changed since the time of the Anasazi 3. Why does the author mention ―gold, pelts, and slaves‖ in line 6? A. To point out the wealth of the region B. To classify the natural resources C. To criticize the cruelty of the Spanish D. To show commercial interest in the region 4. The phrase ―the region‖ in line 8 refers to A. Sierra de la Plata B. Santa Fe C. southwestern Colorado . New Mexico 5. It can be concluded frome lines 12-14 that A. Rivera‘s expedition was unsuccessfull B. many places in the area have Spanish names C. not much is known of the Spanish exploration of the region D. the Spanish culture quickly overtook the native culture 6. The purpose of the expedition of 1776 was A. to look for silver in the mountains B. to build the towns of Durango and Dolores C. to look for a way to reach California D. to study the archaeology of the region 7. The word ―fastness‖ in line 25 is closest in meaning to A. wasteland B. stronghold C. desert D. starvation 8. In paragraph 4, the author suggests that A. mountain men and trappers survived in harsh conditions B. Peg-leg Smith owned a trading post in New Mexico C. Amerian trappers traded with the Spanish D. beaver pelts were becoming scarce in Colorado in the 1800s 9. Which of the following best describes the organization of passage? A. A comparison of Spanish and American expeditions B. A description of southwestern Colorado C. A historical account of southwestern Colorado D. An illustration of archaeological discovery 10. Which of the following sentences should NOT be included in a summary of this passage? A. The Anasazi were early inhabitants of Colorado B. The discovery of gold and silver changed Colorado history. C. The Spanish were the first Europeans to explore Colorado. D. Economic interests influenced the exploration of Colorado IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10pts) * Decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each space. THE CHANGING EARTH Although the earth was formed about 4,500 million years ago, human beings have inhabited it for less than half a million years. Within this time, population has increased hugely and people have had a vast (1) _______ upon the earth. They have long been able to (2) _______ the forces of nature to use. Now, with modern technology, they have the power to alter the balance of life on earth. Reports back from the first astronauts helped dispel the dangerous (3) _______ that the world had no boundaries and had limitless resources. (4) _______ ecologists have shown that all forms of life on earth are interconnected, so it follows that all human activity has an effect on the natural environment. In recent years, people have been putting the environment under stress. As a result, certain (5) _______ materials such as timber, water and minerals are beginning to (6) _______ short. Pollution and the (7) _______ of waste are already critical issues, and the state of the environment is fast becoming the most pressing problem (8) _______ us all. The way we respond to the challenge will have a profound effect on the earth and its life support (9) _______. However, despite all these threats there are (10) _______ signs. Over the past few decades, the growth in population has been more than matched by food production, indicating that we should be able to feed ourselves for some time yet.

1. A. imprint B. indication C. impression D. impact 2. A. put B. make C. place D. stand 3. A. judgement B. notion C. reflection D. concept 4. A. However B. Likewise C. Moreover D. Otherwise 5. A. raw B. coarse C. crude D. rough 6. A. turn B. come C. go D. run 7. A. disposal B. displacement C. dismissal D. disposition 8. A. encountering B. opposing C, meeting D. confronting 9. A. projects B. systems C. methods D. routines 10. A. stimulating B. welcoming C. satisfying D. reassuring B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES AND VERB FORMS (10pts) * Put each verb given in brackets into an appropriate tense or form. 1. He ________ (always enter) the room without knocking first, which is annoying. 2. No sooner ________ (he arrive) than he had to leave again. 3. I‘ve got a terrible headache. If only I ________ (not drink) that wine. 4. He told her not to eat the meat, ________ (explain) that there was a risk of food poisoning. 5. I disapprove of people ________ (smoke) in public places. 6. She stopped talking about her illnesses and went on ________ (tell) us about her other problems. 7. You can‘t blame Tom for ________ (tempt) to eat that dessert. It looked delicious. 8. Do you mind ________ (disturb) when you are working? 9. If you don‘t mind, I‘d sooner you ________ (practise) your violin somewhere else. 10. That was a lucky escape! We ________ (kill). II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10pts) * Fill each blank with a suitable preposition or particle. 1. It‘s no use crying ________ spilt milk. 2. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung ________. 3. Is it possible to insure my bike ________ theft. 4. Don‘t worry about that missing book, it‘s bound to turn ________ sooner or later. 5. My assistant will stand ________ for me while I‘m away. 6. I pleaded John to change his mind, but he wouldn‘t listen. 7. Paul talked me ________ going skiing, against my better judgement. 8. Harry is clever but he can‘t put his ideas ________. 9. The thief made ________ with a valuable necklace. 10. Micheal put his mistake ________ to lack of concentration. III. WORD FORMS: (10pts) * Supply the correct form of the word provided in brackets in each sentence: 1. Keith‘s exam results turned out to be ________ (DISASTER) 2. There will be no pay rise in the ________ future. (SEE) 3. Jim is one of the most ________ members of the committee. (SPEAK) 4. The inquiry was set up after the ________ of a train near Leeds, the third accident on the line this year. (RAIL) 5. Janet had to ________ from the team because of injury. (DRAW) 6. A list of ________ events will be posted on the notice board. (COME) 7. Unless something is done about unemployment, the ________ for the future is not good. (LOOK) 8. Use a bigger screwdriver to ________ this screw. (TIGHT) 9. It is really quite ________ that we should have been at the same college without having met before. (ORDINARY) 10. This knife is very blunt. It needs ________ (SHARP) IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION: (10pts) * There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them. Children who say pop music do not interfere with their homework receive support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely different brain pathways which can operate at a same time with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not interfere to children‘s homework. The affect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied to the design of

places which people have to take in large amounts of informations very quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits on aircraft. Eg: (0) do not → does not 1._____________________________________ 6._____________________________________ 2._____________________________________ 7._____________________________________ 3._____________________________________ 8._____________________________________ 4._____________________________________ 9._____________________________________ 5._____________________________________ 10.____________________________________ V. OPEN CLOZE TEST: (10pts) * Fill in each of the following blanks with ONE suitable word COMMUNICATION Throughout our lives, right from the moment when(0) ____as____ infants we cry to express hunger, we are engaging in social interaction of one form or another. Each and(1) ________ time we encounter fellow human beings, some kind of social interaction will take place, (2) ________ it‘s getting on a bus and paying the fare for the journey, or socialising with friends. It goes without (3) ________ therefore, that we need the ability to communicate. Without some method of transmitting intentions, we would be(4) ________ a complete loss when it came to interacting socially. Communication involves the exchange of information, which can be (5) ________ from a gesture to a friend signalling boredom to the presentation of a university thesis which may only ever be read by a handful of others, or it could be something in (6) ________ the two. Our highly developed languages set us (7) ________ from animals. (8) ________ for these languages, we could not communicate sophisticated or abstract ideas. (9) ________ could we talk or write about people or objects not immediately present. (10) ________ we restricted to discussing objects already present, we would be unable to make abstract generalsations about the world. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION A. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that the second sentences has the same meaning as the first one: (10 points) 1. That dress has only the slightest mark on it. →I can barely______________________________________________________________ 2. Tony‘s very charming, but I wouldn‘t trust him. →Charming _______________________________________________________________ 3. I almost gave up at one point. →I came very______________________________________________________________ 4. He can shout even louder but I still won‘t take any notice. →No_____________________________________________________________________ 5. It was the goalkeeper who saved the match for us. →If it hadn‘t ______________________________________________________________ B. Rewrite the following sentences with the given words in such a way that the second sentence has the same meaning as the first one. Do not change the form of the words in brackets. (10 points) 1. Local residents said they were against the new traffic scheme. (DISAPPROVAL) _________________________________________________________________________ 2. Jenny didn‘t feel like going to the party. (MOOD) _________________________________________________________________________ 3. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT) _________________________________________________________________________ 4. I find Harold‘s behaviour quite incomprehensible. (LOSS) _________________________________________________________________________ 5. He always makes everything look so difficult! (WEATHER) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 22 PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY A. Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from, the other three in each question. 1. A. strategy B. classmate C. grader D. information 2. A. racial B. democracy C. central D. receive 3. A. punched B. announced C. received D. worked 4. A. days B. plays C. pays D. says 5. A. power B. narrow C. browse D. allow B. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 1. A, historical B. establishment C. fascinating D. imperial 2. A. diversity B. economic C. activity D. development 3. A. penalty B. goalkeeper C. basketball D. defender 4. A. comedy B. tragedy C. creative D. management 5. A. instrument B. composer C. arrangement D. electric II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE * Choose the best answer. (20 points) 1. The film ________ several scenes that might upset young children. A. admits B. involves C. contains D. displays 2. Their aim is to ________ up a new political party. A. strike B. stand C. set D. show 3. It is hot in the day-time but the temperature ________ sharply at night. A. slips B. drops C. descends D. reduces 4. I am not sure how old he is but he must be ________ for 70. A. going by B. getting up C. getting on D. going off 5. The air in the house felt cold and ________ after weeks of bad weather. A. wet B. moist C. damp D. watery 6. After a lengthy debate, the spokesman announced the board had ________ a unanimous conclusion. A. committed B. solved C. reached D. compromised 7. You might not get better but this medicine will do you no ________. A. worse B. danger C. harm D. illness 8. I was immensely ________ to hear that none of my relatives was killed in the bus accident. A. relieved B. improved C. recovered D. healed 9. James was ________ from school for bad behaviour. A. exiled B. dismissed C. expelled D. discharged 10. Among the astronomers of ancient Greece, two theories ________ concerning the place of the earth in the universe. A. developing B. in development C. developed D. which they developed 11. Bernard Foucault ________ in 1851 that the earth is rotating. A. who proved B. proved C. he proved D. it was proved 12. The Homestead Act of 1862 ________ to acquire land at a small cost. A. made possible B. made it possible C. made the possibility D. possibly made 13. Especially important to many people ________. A. there is legislation against population B. is legislation against population C. it is legislation against population D. legislation against population is 14. ________ with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountains do not seem high at all. A. When compared B. Compare them C. If you compare D. A comparison 15. ________, Nathan Hale was a young school-teacher living in Connecticut. A. When the American Revolution began B. The American Revolution began C. It was when the American Revolution began D. The beginning of the American Revolution 16. Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known to have a possible life span greater than _____. A. man B. the man‘s C. the one of man‘s D. that of man 17. Public transportation in most of the nation is expanding. ________ the use of subways and buses is declining in some metropolitan areas. A. Nevertheless B. Consequently C. Despite the fact D. Although

18. A baby might show fear of an unfamiliar adult, ________ he is likely to smile and reach out to another infant. A. if B. whenever C. so that D. whereas 19. ________ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them. A. Although B. However C. Because D. On account of 20. ________ no fault of his own, Brian was an hour late for the meeting. A. From B. For C. By D. Through III. READING COMPREHENSION * Reading 1: Fill the gaps in the passage by choosing the best phrases from A-M. (10 points) A few years ago one enlightened city decided to ease traffic congestion by (1). People would just take a bike, ride it to where they were going and leave it (2). The trouble was the citizens naturally found it (3) to have their very own free bicycle and (4). That slight detail of human nature apart, it was a good idea and (5). The electric cars buzzing round the streets of La Rochelle in France are seen (6) and, it is claimed, will make it easier (7) within the city centre. The idea is based on the belief that people like their own space, the freedom to drive a vehicle themselves (8). It‘s also based on the fact that cars in towns usually carry just one person. In effect, it‘s (9). At the moment, it‘s a slightly utopian view but the concept has grown (10). A. to end the use of private cars G. even more convenient B. rather than crowd on to a bus or train H. supplying sufficient communal bicycles C. to encourage their use I. taking the place of bicycles D. stock swiftly dwindled J. a sort of do-it-yourself taxi E. out of a practical study K. as a supplement to conventional cars F. for someone else to use L. instead of cars M. it‘s now the basis of a new scheme * Reading 2: Read the passage and choose the correct answer for the questions. (6 points) In its short history, the art of motion pictures has frequently undergone changes that seemed fundamental, such as that resulting from the introduction of sound. It exists today in styles that differ significantly from country to country and in forms as diverse as the documentary created by one man with a hand-help camera and the multimillion-dollar ―epic‖, involving hundreds of performers and technicians. Despite its diversity, however, an essential unchanging nature can be discerned in most of its manifestations. A number of factors immediately come to mind in connection with the motion picture experience. For one thing, there is something mildly hypnotic about the illusion of movement that holds the attention and may even lower critical resistance. Also, the accuracy of the motion picture image is compelling because it is made by a nonhuman, scientific process. And, the motion picture gives what has been called a strong sense of being present: the film image always appears to be in the present tense. There is also the concrete nature of film; it appears to show the actual people and things. No less important than any of the above are the conditions under which the motion picture ideally is seen, where everything helps to dominate the spectator. He or she is taken from the everyday environment, partially isolated from others, and comfortably seated in an air-conditioned auditorium. There, the darkness concentrates attention and prevents comparison of the image on the screen with the objects or people around the viewer. For a while, the motion picture unfolds the word in which the spectator lives. 1. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage? A. Motion pictures vary greatly from country to country, B. The fundamental characteristics of motion pictures remain unchanged. C. Motion pictures have been modified over the years. D. The styles of motion pictures have become significantly different. 2. According to the passage, which can be the most simply made type of motion picture? A. A documentary B. An accurate one C. An epic D. A hypnotic 3. Which of the following statements does the author NOT include as part of the motion picture experience? A. The viewing environment controls the spectator. B. The spectator is somewhat apart from other viewers. C. The viewer becomes fascinated by the action on the screen. D. The spectator realizes that events on the screen are false. 4. The nature of movies is most comparable to which one of the following activities? A. Dancing at a party B. Drawing a picture C. Describing a painting D. Reading a book 5. The author most probably believes that main purpose of movies is to allow the audience to A. see actual places, people and things B. be entertained in a comfortable setting

C. escape from the real world D. enjoy the results of a scientific process 6. The passage supports which of the following conclusions? A. Motion projected on the screen captivates viewers. B. Viewers feel detached from the action on the screen. C. The viewing environment is of minor importance. D. Documentaries and epics have universal appeal. IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST: * Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space. (14 points) You have probably never heard of Charles Burgess Fry but in the (1) years of this century, he was the most famous man in England. He became famous while (2) at university, mainly on (3) of his achievements in sport. He was, at the same time, captain of the university football, cricket and athletics teams and (4) the world record for the long jump. He was also a (5) sports journalist. He was so famous that letters addressed to Mr. Fry. Oxford were (6) to him without any difficulty. His college, although it had quite a different name, was (7) as ―Fry‘s College‖. Some people have (8) Fry‘s sporting achievements. They (9) out that he lived at a time when standards were quite low and it was much easier to (10) well in several sports. It is certainly true that athletes of that time did not have the totally dedicated (11) of modern athletes. However, it is only (12) to judge him (13) the standards of his own time. There is no doubt that he had extraordinary skill (14) with an ability to write about sport with style and intelligence. 1. A. primary B. early C. beginning D, initial 2. A. still B. yet C. then D. already 3. A. case B. account C. view D. regard 4. A. held B. did C. made D. reached 5. A. common B. usual C. normal D. popular 6. A. posted B. diverted C. delivered D. carried 7. A. referred B. named C. called D. known 8. A. complained B. contradicted C. criticized D. contrasted 9. A. point B. give C. put D. speak 10. A. make B. be C. go D. do 11. A. approach B. style C. method D. skill 12. A. balanced B. rational C. fair D. precise 13. A. for B. by C. as D. with 14. A. attached B. combined C. connected D. related PART B: WRITTEN TEST I. Supply the correct tense of the verb in brackets. (10 points) I don‘t like to admit to disliking anyone, but I have to confess that there is one of my classmates who I particularly (1. dislike). We (2. study) together in the same class for the last few years and I (3. begin) to feel that I have had enough. It‘s not that he is an unpleasant person, in fact in other circumstances I feel sure that we would get on fine. It is just that when you (4. sit) next to someone for so long in such an artificial environment as a classroom, you find that the smallest thing can start to get on your nerves. I (5. think) about this only the other day after the person in question - let us call him George, though that is not his real name (6. try) to help me with an exercise in our text book. I realized immediately that he really didn‘t know what he was talking about. This was not a problem but what (7. annoy) me was the fact that he refused to listen to my explanations. The exercise consisted of reading a text and answering questions on it and I didn‘t think that he (8. read) the text. I didn‘t know what to say. I (9. tell) him to stop being stupid but that (10. sound) rude. So in the end I just sat and said nothing. II. Complete these sentences using the correct form of one the phrasal verbs below in each space. (10 points) did away with getting at go by turn on drop out keep in with feel for cutting in on hold up catch up on 1. Their reasoning just didn‘t ________. It would not stand up to logical examination. 2. If you want to get on, you‘ll have to ________ your boss, not disagree with him. 3. After the first year I couldn‘t cope with university, so I decided to ________. 4. I have the feeling that he‘s always ________me. 5. I have a lot of work to ________. 6. The Prime Minister thinks that it‘s time we _______red tape and bureaucracy. 7. The dogs suddenly ________each other.

8. I really ________her when her husband died. 9. If past experience is anything to ________, they‘ll be late. 10. She kept ________our conversation. III. In the text below some lines have a word that should not be there. Write the words that should not be there. (10 points) A HOLIDAY IN SCOTLAND Some friends of mine decided to go on holiday to Scotland. They 1. ___________ asked me if I was wanted to go too but I had already arranged to go to 2. ___________ Italy. I told them so that I had been to Scotland before, so they asked 3. ___________ me to give them some ideas. I advised them to take up warm clothes 4. ___________ and raincoats. ―If I were like you, I‘d always carry umbrellas!‖ I told 5. ___________ them. ―I doubt that whether you‘ll have any sunny days. ― I didn‘t see 6. ___________ them again until was after their holiday. They were all very 7. ___________ suntanned, and they told to me that they had had very hot weather. ―If 8. ___________ we had been taken your advice, we would have made a terrible 9. ___________ mistake,‖ they said. ―Luckily we were told us before we left that it 10. __________ was very hot in Scotland. It is said to they have been the hottest summer ever! IV. Use the right form of the word given in brackets to complete each sentence. (10 points) 1. It usually takes you a lot of time to (climate) _______ when you arrive in a tropical country. 2. Thanks to their (persevere) _______ with the research, the scientists have at last been able to identify the virus causing the disease. 3. After having driven for a few miles, I got a sneaking (suspect) _______ that we were going the wrong way. 4. Tiredness affects your powers of (centre) _______. 5. The goal being scored at the very last minute was just a (sick) _______ feeling to the fans. 6. She watched (wonder) _______ as the fingers of the pianist smoothly moved on the keyboards. 7. Horses were among the first wild animals to have been (domestic) _______ to work for humans. 8. Prisoners of war are expected to be (human) _______ treated. 9. Intensive cultivation has (poor) _______ the soil. 10. Many newspapers today gave very sensational (close) _______ about the private life of that Hollywood star. V. Read the text and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word, LETTER FROM A GENIUS In 1912, the world‘s top mathematicians began to receive letters which were full of incredibly complex formulae. They came from Madras, in India, where a 23.year-old accounts clerk named Srinivasa Ramanujan had seemingly (1) up with hundreds of new solutions to known mathematical problems (2) any form of assistance or training. For the most part, the professional mathematicians‘ response was the usual one (3) faced with eccentric letters: they consigned them straight to the bin. But in 1913, some reached G. H. Hardy, a leading authority in number theory at Cambridge University. He, too, initially dismissed the letters (4) the work of an eccentric, but unable to (5) them out of his head, he eventually subjected them to closer scrutiny. After a few hours, Hardy arrived at the conclusion that what he had (6) him was the work of a mathematical genius, a view confirmed by colleagues with whom he shared his discovery. Before very (7), Ramanujan had received an invitation to Cambridge and, once there, he soon proved (8) worth. A fruitful collaboration with Hardy (9) in the opening up of vast areas of mathematical research, still being worked on to (10) day. VI. Sentence Transformation A. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capitals in brackets, and so that the meaning stays the same. (10 points) 1. We did not know what to say. (LOSS) → _______________________________________________________________________ 2. His new hobby is swimming. (TAKEN) → _______________________________________________________________________ 3. Janet persuaded me not to sell my house. (OUT) → _______________________________________________________________________ 4. Members of the audience started making fun of the speaker. (UP)

→ _______________________________________________________________________ 5. I can‘t afford such expensive clothes on my salary. (TO) → _______________________________________________________________________ B. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the one printed before it. (10 points) 1. I wasn‘t in the office yesterday, so you must have spoken to my assistant. →I wasn‘t in the office yesterday, so it must _____________________________________ 2. His hobby is one thing that he does not intend to give up. →He has__________________________________________________________________ 3. Susan and I have been friends since 1999. →My ____________________________________________________________ to 1999. 4. The government has been reviewing their tax policy for some time. →The government‘s ________________________________________________________ 5. I didn‘t realize we had been at school together until he mentioned his surname. →It was only ______________________________________________________________ ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 23 MULTIPLE CHOICE PHONOLOGY (10 points) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. A. maturity B. situation C. intuition D. saturate A. exploration B. pastoral C. corridor D, victor A. attorney B. hormone C. sword D. incorporate A. suffocate B, decimate C. excavate D. considerate A. deciduous B. procedure C. individual D. credulous Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. A. foreseeable B. contributory C. retrospect D. hypnosis A. decompose B. premature C. minaret D. coincide A. genocide B. anonymity C. manifesto D. miscellaneous A. infiltrate B. intrepid C. introvert D. inventory . A. retrovirus B. indestructible C. advantageous D. abnormality VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE (20 points) Choose the correct answers to complete the sentences. ________ more help, I could call my neighbour. A. Should I need B. Needed C. I have needed D. I should need 2. He got his university degree last year. Now he‘s doing ________ studies. A. graduate B. graduating C. postgraduation D. graduation 3. I will only sign the papers ________ my solicitor. A. within reach B. of the agreement of C. under surveillance of D. in the presence of 4. ________ our pre-paid order, they failed to send us the items in time. A. With respect to B. Regardless of C. On behalf of D Without any notice of 5. Not only in the project, but he also wanted to become the leader. A. did Jack involve B. had Jack been involved C. was Jack involved D. Jack was involved 6. ________ sport really improves relations between countries. A. national B. internationally C. multi-national D. nationally 7. Children love watching the firework ________ on New Year‘s Eve. A. setting off B. going off C. putting through D. taking off 8. Body language is better understood accompanied by facial ________. A. features B. appearances C. descriptions D. expressions 9. Further down the street ________. A. a bus station is which was built ten years ago B. is a bus station which was built ten years ago C. is it a bus station which was built ten years ago D. it was built a bus station ten years ago 10. Though Carla has a great sense of humour, ________ with such a situation. A. I. * 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. * 6. 7. 8. 9. 10 II. * 1.

A. she hardly puts up B. she was difficult to put up C. hardly she puts up D. it was difficult for her put up 11. The higher the demand, ________. A. the more we have to make efforts B. the more efforts we have to make C. more efforts do we have to make D. the most efforts we have to make 12. Another ________ will be drawn from the experiment. A. attention B. contract C. inference D. conclusion 13. They refuse to ________ the old airport back into use. A. put B. make C. change D. send 14. I hate the way the boss is always acting ________ of Bill. A. on approval B. instead C. in the presence D. in favour 15. One of the first in the motion photography was a picture of a drop of milk on a dish. A. victories B. trophies C. triumphs D. milestones 16. The boss shouted at me as if ________. A. I had been the only one who were to blame B. I were the only one to be to blame C. nobody but I am to blame D. only I had been blamed 17. ________ in the schedule, would you please inform me? A. In case there were a change B. Despite changes C. As soon as there will be a change D. In the event of any change 18. ________ in the catalogue, you have to take off the cap of this instrument before you lubricate it with oil. A. Being illustrated B. As illustrated C. Like being illustrated D. As if it were illustrated 19. Not only knowledge and skills, ________ in schools for students‘ future adjustment to society. A. but also do attitudes need to be cultivated B. but do attitudes also need to be cultivated C. but also attitudes need to be cultivated D. attitudes also to be cultivated 20. Not until ________ the article did I realize the truth about the corporation. A. I had read B. had I read C. did I read D. me reading III. READING COMPREHENSION (20 points) * READING 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter‘s less than 10.hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 30 - less than that for any other planet. The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 12000. The latitude is generally very close to -220. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter‘s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted. 1. The main purpose of the passage is A. to explain why the Great Red Spot changes B. to show which of the planets shines the brightest C. to give an introduction to Jupiter and its Red Spot D. to prove that Jupiter is shrinking 2. According to the passage, Jupiter has the shortest day among the principal planets because A. its rotation period is shorter than 10 hours B. the axial inclination is only just over 30 C. it is on the average the brightest of all the planets D. there is the interference of the Great Red Spot 3. The author‘s tone in this passage is A. argumentative B. supportive C. enthusiastic D. neutral 4. According to the passage, Mars outshines Jupiter A. on a regular basis B. from time to time C. every several months D. less often than any other planet 5. This passage would be of most interest to

A. students of anthropology B. geologists C. mathematicians D. amateur astronomers 6. It can be inferred from this passage that Jupiter‘s Great Red Spot A. will become brighter with time B. will one day vanish C. will continue expanding D. is made of floating gases 7. The word ―intensity‖ in line 9 could best be replaced with A. visibility B. density C. brilliance D. surface area 8. According to the passage, all of the following are true about Jupiter EXCEPT A. there are four planets closer to the sun B. it is 14,000 kilometers wide C. there is still much to be learned about the Red Spot D. Pioneer and Voyager have added to our knowledge of Jupiter 9. Where in the passage does the author mention the theory about the Red Spot that has been disproved? A. Lines 5-7 B. Lines 8-9 C. Lines 13 - 16 D. Lines 16-18 10. As used in line 4, the word ―it‖ refers to A. Mars B. Venus C. Jupiter D. the sun * READING 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms‘ bodies that are used grow larger. Those parts that are not tend to wither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a man‘s body, we can tell which muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to guess his profession or his recreation. Enthusiasts of ―body-building‖ cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to build their bodies, almost like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture. Muscles are not the only parts of the body that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone. The farmer‘s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller‘s hands are relatively soft. The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world, progressively better during their lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans, through direct exposure to sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the particular local conditions. Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skins are susceptible to skin cancer. Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the harmful effects of further sunlight. If a suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears, and the body is able to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the principle use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used, and fades to white when it is not. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How principles of use and disuse change people‘s concepts of themselves B. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion C. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse 2. The phrase ―wither away‖ is closest in meaning to A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink 3. The word ―those‖ refers to A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles 4. According to the passage, men who build body A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable 5. From the passage, it can be inferred that the author views body building A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic form C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefit 6. The word ―horny‖ is closest in meaning to A. tough B. strong C. firm D. dense 7. From the passage, it can be inferred that the principle of use and disuse enables organisms to A. survive in any conditions B. automatically benefit C. change their existence D. improve their lifetime 8. The author suggests that melanin A. is necessary for the production of vitamin D B. is beneficial in sunless climates

C. helps protect fair-skinned people D. is a synthetic product 9. In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of A. humans improving their local condition B. humans using the principle of use and disuse C. humans surviving in adverse conditions D. humans running the risk of skin cancer 10. The word ―susceptible‖ could be best replaced by A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 points) * Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. How to cope (1) ________ a child who shows outstanding musical ability? It‘s not always clear (2) ________ best to develop and (3) ________ their gift. Many parents may even fail to recognize and respond to their child‘s need (4) ________ frustration explodes into difficult or uncooperative behavior. And (5) ________ most schools are equipped to (6) ________ children who are especially able in academic subjects, the musically gift require special understanding which may not always be (7) ________ in an ordinary school - especially one where music is regarded (8) ________ a secondary activity. Such children - as well as those (9) ________ ability is actively encouraged by parents or teachers - may well (10) ________ from the education offered by a specialist music school. 1. A. up B. with C. for D. on 2. A. what B. how C. which D. whether 3. A. encourage B. push up C. accelerate D. enforce 4. A. while B. as soon as C. until D. after 5. A. if B. when C. because D. while 6. A. associate with B. relate to C. deal with D. elaborate on 7. A. available B. willing C. on purpose D. in use 8. A. in B. as C. of D. for 9. A. who B. whom C. which D. whose 10. A. resign B. derive C. benefit D. profit B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB FORMS / TENSES (10 points) * Put the verbs in the brackets in the correct forms. a. Ms Abbott (1. walk) ________ home from work when she (2. see), ________ the child fall off the bridge. After (3. shout) ________ for help, she (4. take) ________ off her shoes and (5. jump) ________ in (6. save) ________ him. b. I‘m sure you (7. forget) ________ me by the time I (8. be) ________ back in five years. c. I don‘t remember (9. tell) ________ of the decision to change the company policy on vacations. d. They were fortunate (10. rescue) ________ from the fire before the building collapsed. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10 points) * Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). 1. Althought Mark said that he‘d be there at 8. 00, he didn‘t turn ________ until 10. 30. 2. She takes ________ her father: she has the same gestures and mannerisms. 3. He said he would make me a rich man, but I saw ________ him immediately. 4. We‘ve run ________ coffee. Could you go and buy some? 5. We put ________ a sum of money each month for our summer holidays. 6. He looks ________ his older brother and follows his example in everything. 7. She had to cancel her holiday when she went ________ the flu. 8. I don‘t know if she‘ll get ________ her husband‘s death. 9. He was told to cut ________ sugar and fats or he would suffer serious health problems. 10. We don‘t know yet how we‘ll solve the problem but I‘m sure someone will come ______ a solution soon. III. WORD FORMS (10 points) * Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. EXPLORATION In 1979 the explorer Sir Ranulph Fiennes entered an area of Antarctica (1) ________ than Great Britain where no human being had set foot before. BIG ―It was an (2) ________ experience,‖ he says, ―knowing that we were EXCITE mapping the area for the first time. Now, of course, satellites can do the same job far more (3) ________ ― Technology, it seems, and the growth EASY in adventure tourism, may soon see the end of

(4) ________ exploration, as TRADITION fewer and fewer human challenges remain. There are now (5) ________ NUMBER expeditions every year to places like Everest, where keen but (6) ________ EXPERIENCE climbers are virtually pulled up the mountain by their guides. (7) ________ FORTUNATE the increase in this new trend at tourism is (8) ________ the natural beauty THREAT or even the remotest parts of the globe, as (9) ________ and other MOUNTAIN adventurers leave (10) ________ of their visit in the form of oxygen EVIDENT bottles and other rubbish. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 points) * Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. HORSES IN THE BULLFIGHT Many horses are hurt each year in the bullfights. The bull and the bullfighter are usually the central attention. The crowd admires the bravery and skill of each. Sometimes, the bullfighter is on horseback. The horse also has skills. It is a highly-trained animal that works with the bullfighter. The horse and rider can move quickly in four directions on the slightest command. What is necessary to avoid the angry bull. The bull does not understand that a man is making it pain. It only sees the horse. People do not know that the horse is blindfolded and has cotton stuff in its ears. This prevents it from seeing and hearing the bulls. If this were the cases, the horse would be terrified. The horse depends on the bullfighter about its life in the ring. Sometimes, the bullfighter is not quick either, and the bull kills the horse. 1. ____________________ →____________________ 2. ____________________ →____________________ 3. ____________________ →____________________ 4. ____________________ →____________________ 5. ____________________ →____________________ 6. ____________________ →____________________ 7. ____________________ →____________________ 8. ____________________ →____________________ 9. ____________________ →____________________ 10. ____________________ →____________________ V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 points) * Fill in each blank with ONE word. BEWARE OF VITAMINS! Vitamins are good for our health, aren‘t they? Perhaps not. New research suggests that rather than ward off disease, high doses of certain vitamins may (1) ________ more harm than good and could even put you in an early grave. A variety of recent studies suggest that (2) ________ from improving health, these vitamins, (3) ________ taken in very high doses, may actually increase the risks of cancer and a range (4) ________ debilitating diseases, a discovery that has sent medical world into a spin. Scientists are unsure (5) ________ to why vitamins, so essential to health, can be toxic in high doses. The most likely explanation is that the body is only equipped to deal with the levels found naturally in the environment. If the intake is too far (6) ________ the normal range, then the body‘s internal chemistry can be shunted out of alignment. (7) ________ this means is that the commercially sold vitamins and (8) ________ provided by nature are not always compatible. The commercial forms may interfere with the body‘s internal chemistry (9) ________ ―crowding out‖ the (10) ________ natural and beneficial forms of the nutrients. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 points) * Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. I can‘t get my feet into these shoes. These shoes _______________________________________________________________ 2. It‘s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year. Sad ______________________________________________________________________ 3. I‘m sure that her success made her parents feel wonderful. Her success________________________________________________________________ 4. You must not leave the iron switched on for a long time. On_______________________________________________________________________ 5. Matthew didn‘t listen to what his doctor told him. (NOTICE) _________________________________________________________________________ 6. I expected the film to be good, but it wasn‘t at all. (LIVE) The film __________________________________________________________________ 7. Most people know that becoming an actor is difficult, (COMMON) It ________________________________________________________________________

8. All the witnesses said the accident was my fault. (BLAME) All the witnesses said ________________________________________________________ 9. ―It‘s not worth worrying about the past,‖ I told him. (POINT) I told him _________________________________________________________________ 10. That man reminds me a lot of my father. (BEARS) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 24 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. Phonology * Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. 1. A. possession B. massage C. impress D. passage A. dealt B. meant C. heal D, threat 2. 3. A. eventually B, invention C. preparation D. shyness 4. A. ragged B. changed C, learned D. sacred 5. A. interests B. chiefs C. stops D. mouths * Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the others in each group. 6. A. admirable B. desirable C. believable D. hospitable 7. A. commune B. event C. cartoon D. typhoon 8. A. industrial B. economic C. preservative D. statistical 9. A. grasshopper B. dragonfly C. mosquito D. butterfly 10. A. mechanize 8. innovate C. purify D. exhibit II. Vocabulary and structure * Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences. 1. The students were slow to catch ________, but gradually they began to understand. A. in B. on C. away D. out 2. Their flat is decorated in ________ combination of colours. A. tasteful B. sweet C. delicious D. tasty 3. The ring is only made of plastic so it‘s quite ________. A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. priceless 4. Having that accident has brought ________ a complete change in his attitude to other people. A. in B. about C. up D. out 5. She is to leave as soon as possible. A. cautious B. anxious C. worried D. nervous 6. Nobody seems to be ________ control of those children. A. under B. over C. with D. in 7. The traffic in town was very ________ and I arrived home earlier than expected. A. light B. weak C. little D. few 8. To his father‘s ________, Tom passed the exam with the highest score. A. annoyance B. please C. leisure D. satisfaction 9. You shouldn‘t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ___________ of you. A. unfortunate B. insensitive C. insensible D. unconscious 10. The papers were easy to find because the files were ________ organized. A. progressively B. intimately C. ironically D. meticulously 11. Frontier surgeon Ephraim MacDonald had to perform operations ________ anesthesia. A. no B. not having C. without D. there wasn‘t 12. ________ is more interested in rhythm than in melody is apparent from his compositions. A. That Philip Glass B. Philip Glass, who C. Philip Glass D. Because Philip Glass 13. ________ invisible to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways. A. Although is B. Despite C. Even though it D. Although 14. For many years people have wondered ________ exists elsewhere in the universe. A. that life B. life which C. whether life D. life as it 15. On the table ________.

A. the disks lay B. did the disks lie C. lay the disks D. lied the disks 16. No one cares about the people ________. A. whose aid is intended for B. that the aid is intended for C. for the aid is intended D. whom the aid is intended 17. Steel is used for ________. A. making machines and build B. making machines and building C. making machine and build D. making machine and building 18. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________. A. having fired B. being fired C. having been fired D. to have been fired 19. ________ there are more cars in Los Angeles than people. A. Fact that B. As fact that is C. The fact that D. It is a fact that 20. I don‘t know French, but I‘ll ________. A. get Tom to translate it B. have it translate C. have Tom to translate it D. Make it translated III. Reading comprehension * Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions. The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors: the physical location of the restaurant, e. g., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, e. g., informal or formal; and certain standards that are more universal. In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply almost anywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is inappropriate to do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurants. 1. With what topic is this passage primarily concerned? A. rules of etiquette B. instruction in proper etiquette C. the importance of good manners D. variable and universal standards of etiquette 2. According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette? A. tucking a napkin in your shirt B. not throwing food on the floor C. reading a magazine‘ at a coffee shop D. eating in rustic settings 3. What does the word ―it‖ refer to in line 6? A. learning the proper etiquette B. clear instruction C. knowing the type of restaurant D. sensitivity 4. Which of the following could best replace the word ―luxurious‖ in line 7? A. lurid B. austere C. elegant D. romantic 5. Which of the following words is most, similar to the meaning of ―rustic‖ in line 8? A. agricultural B. ancient C. unsophisticated D. urban 6. The word ―sophisticated‖ in line 9 could best be replaced by ________. A. expensive B. cultured C. famous D. exclusive 7. The word ―manners‖ in line 9 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. experience B. character C. ceremony D. tact 8. The word ―indiscriminately‖ in line 10 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. randomly B. angrily C. noisily D. destructively 9. The author uses the word ―draw‖ in line 11 to mean ________. A. pick out B. drag away C. evoke D. infer 10. What is the author‘s main purpose in this passage? A. to assist people in learning sophisticated manners B. to describe variations in restaurant manners C. to simplify rules of restaurant etiquette D. to compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants * Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions. Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile

phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn‘t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer‘s doctor didn‘t agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety, continues, it appears that it‘s best to use mobile phones less often. Us‘ your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it‘s wise not to use your mobile phone too often. 11. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because _______. A. they are indispensable in everyday communications B. they make them look more stylish C. they keep the users alert all the time D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones 12. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory 13. The word ―means‖ in the passage most closely means . A. meanings B. expression C. method D. transmission 14. The word ―potentially‖ in the passage most closely means _______. A. obviously B. possibly C. certainly D. privately 15. ―Negative publicity‖ in the passage most likely means _______. A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones C. the negative public use of cell phones D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones 16. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _______. A. damage their users‘ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction C. change their users‘ temperament D. change their users‘ social behaviors 17. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, _______. A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory 18. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is _______. A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays 19. According to the writer, people should _______. A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies C. keep off mobile phones regularly D. never use mobile phones in all cases 20. The most suitable title for the passage could be _______. A. ―The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular‖ B. ―Technological Innovations and Their Price‖ C. ―The Way Mobile Phones Work‖ D. ―Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time‖ IV. Guided cloze test * Choose the word that best completes each of the blanks in the following passage. DUTCH CHILDREN ENJOY THEIR FREEDOM ―Let them be free‖ is the golden rule for child-rearing in the Netherlands. No wonder Dutch kids have been (1) _______ Europe‘s most fortunate by a recent UNICEF survey. From a tender age, their opinions are (2) _______, their wishes respected, and there is no homework until their last year in preparatory school. Some would (3) _______ that the tendency of Dutch society to encourage infants to experience whatever they please has (4) _______ a whole generation into spoilt, undisciplined brats. Others say family members are remarkably open with one another, feeling free to say anything, and that the way parents (5) _______ with their children‘s anxieties means that the children are well-adjusted, which is (6) _______ up by the results of the survey.

Dr Gerrit Breeusma, head of development psychology at the University of Groningen says the survey‘s results came as no (7) _______. ―Children have always played a very important role in Holland but there were (8) _______ within families during the Sixties, usually over matters of discipline and conformity. As a result, the generation growing up at that time have made sure they (9) _______ on better with their kids,‖ he added. However, in several Dutch police precincts, such liberalism is not viewed positively. In an attempt to (10) _______ underage heavy drinking, police have taken to bringing home teenagers and threatening parents with obligatory attendance at courses on excessive alcohol problems or hefty fines unless they keep their children under control. 1. A. rated B. put C. compared D. assessed 2. A. regarded B. recognized C. valued D. measured 3. A. criticize B. argue C. defend D. judge 4. A. resulted B. created C. brought D. turned 5. A. empathize B. understand C. analyse D. handle 6. A. shown B. held C. made D, backed 7. A. doubt B. difference C. surprise D, consequence 8. A. conflicts B. beliefs C. decisions D. contradictions 9. A, follow B. get C. carry D. continue 10 . A. extinguish B. supervise C. tackle D. dispose B. WRITTEN TEST I. Verb tenses / forms * Supply the correct tense or form of the verb in brackets. 1. Everyone s future depends on the whole world (concern) (1) ________ about the ozone layer. 2. The uneaten breakfast was still on the table. She (must - call) (2) ________ away in a hurry. 3. He is decorating his house with a view to (sell) (3) ________ it. 4. She regretted (not learn) (4) ________ how to ride a bicycle when she was young. 5. (Make) (5) ________ the same mistake twice is unforgivable. 6. His (take) (6) ________ ill was quite unexpected. 7. I feel as if my head (be) (7) ________ on fire now, doctor. 8. Her car hit another car. If she (wear) (8) ________ her seat belt, she (not hurt) (9) ________ so badly. 9. She left the room without anyone (see) (10) ________. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS * Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. 1. Governments should bring ________ international laws against terrorism. 2. At first Jane refuse to lend me her car, but I managed to get ________ her. 3. He ignored my request. He simply brushed it ________ as if he hadn‘t heard what I said. 4. The defence asked the court to take ________ the prisoners age consideration. 5. She said she would join us at the restaurant later; when she was ________ duty. 6. If the government puts up income tax again, I shall leave this country ________ good and go and live in Spain or Greece. 7. Each waitress waits ________ three different tables in the restaurant. 8. I m trying to lose weight by cutting ________ on bread and sweet things. 9. Janet s children are very intelligent. When you explain something to them, they seem to catch ________ very quickly. 10. We must ________ all costs catch the 7:30 train. Otherwise we won‘t get to the meeting in time. III. WORD FORM * Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the words in brackets. 1. My daughter left a half ________ orange on the table. (EAT) 2. Most people who work feel that they are ________ (PAY) 3. The teacher warned the children that if they ________ again, they would be punished. (BEHAVE) 4. Are all those ________ they put in food really necessary? (ADD) 5. The manager handed in his ________ after being accused of dishonesty. (RESIGN) 6. A ________ damage was caused by the earthquake. (WIDE) 7. Phil was sentenced to seven years ________ for his part in the armed robbery (PRISON) 8. I was late because I ________ how much lime I will need, (ESTIMATE) 9. How can you ________ the fact that some people live in mansions while others live in slums? (JUST) 10. Site is so ________ that she won‘t let anything stand in the way of her ambition. (MIND) IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION

*

There are ten errors in the passage. Find and correct them. The first one has done as an example The ability to deceive other is thought by some psychologists to Ex: other → others be a character that has been genetically selected through human ________________ evolution, Comparison have been made with animal deception, such ________________ as camouflage and mimicry. For hundreds of generations, it is ________________ arguing, the ability to make others believe insincere remarks and ________________ promises have conferred advantages in struggles to control resources ________________ and win mating partners. The less cunning have, quite simply, ________________ produced fewer offspring, and a talent for creating false impressions ________________ has dominated the human gene pool. ________________ What the merits or shortcomings of this line of thinking, they are ________________ undoubtedly many occasions in everyday sociable encounters when ________________ people, for the reason or another, want to avoid expressing their true ________________ feelings. The ability to do these varies and success tends to breed ________________ success. Those which lie effectively will tend to lie more often, ________________ perfecting their social skills in a process. Those who fail are deterred ________________ from future attempts and get few practice. With flying, as with ________________ everything else, practice makes perfect. ________________ ________________ ________________ ________________ V. OPEN CLOZE TEST * Fill each gap in the passage with ONE suitable word. CAN PARRORS COMMUNICATE? Everyone knows that parrots can (1) ________ human speech, but can these birds also understand meaning? Two decade ago, researcher Irene Peperberg (2) ________ working with Alex, an African grey parrot, and ever since then, she has been building (3) ________ data on him. Peperberg, (4) ________ recently published book The Alex Studies makes fascinating reading, claims Alex doesn‘t copy speech but internationally uses words to get whatever it is that he wants. In actually fact, some of his cognitive skills are (5) ________ to those of a five-year-old child. Like a child‘s, Alex‘s learning has been a steady progression. Early on, he could (6) ________ whether two things were the same or different. Now, he carries out more complex tasks. Presented with different-coloured balls and blocks and asked the (7) ________ of red blocks, he‘ll answer correctly. He requests things as well. Should he ask to sit on your shoulder and you put him somewhere else, he will complain: ―Wanna do shoulder.‖ A few (8) ________ remain skeptical, seeing very little in Alex‘s performance beyond learning by association, by (9) ________ of intensive training. Yet Alex appears to have mastered simple two-way communication. As parrots live (10) ________ 60 years or more, Alex may surprise au all further. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. 1. As I listened to the music on repeated occasions, my request for the composer increased. The more _________________________________________________________________ 2. In spite of her initial reluctance to take the job, she‘s got on very well. Reluctant _________ 3. He met Jane, whom he later married, when he was at Cambridge. He met Jane, who was _______________________________________________________ 4. ―I admit that I forgot to turn on the alarm system,‖ said Robert. Robert confessed to _________________________________________________________ 5. The politician tried to find people who were willing to back his campaign to help the homeless. The politician tried to drum ___________________________________________________ * Rewrite each of the following sentences with the word given. Do not change the word given 6. Martin cannot go any higher in his career. (PINNACLE) _________________________________________________________________________ 7. Being her only niece, Ann is very precious to her, (APPLE) _________________________________________________________________________ 8. How much did the supermarket bill come to this week? (TOTAL) _________________________________________________________________________ 9. She loves animals and tends to become very angry when she sees one being badly treated. (RED)

_________________________________________________________________________ 10. Carol has trouble communicating her ideas to others. (ACROSS) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 25 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY (10pts) * Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. ban B. inflation C. endangered D. landscapes 2. A. within B. fathom C. anthem D. with 3. A. brood B. broomstick C. foolscap D. brooch 4. A. contribute B. syndrome C. home D. microphone 5. A. mosaic B. conserve C. reserve D. poison * Choose the word that is stressed differently from the others in the list. 6. A. diversity B. amphibians C. ecotourist D. courageous 7. A. control B. severe C. install D. moonlight 8. A. hurriedly B. apartheid C. preparatory D. determine 9. A. humpback B. strengthen C. reduce D. rescue 10 . A. mysterious B. preferential C. modernity D. historical II. VOCABULARY and STRUCTURE (20 pts) 1. I have never seen ________ before. A. such good film B. so good film C. so good a film D. such good a film 2. As a ________ parent, my main concern is balancing the needs of a small child with the need to earn a living. A. solo B. single C. sole D. solitary 3. Don‘t be silly! That ________ possibly be Madonna. A. mustn‘t B. shouldn‘t C. won‘t D. can‘t 4. To begin studying chemistry at this level, you must already have proved your ability in a related ________. A. line B. discipline C. region D. rule 5. This sad song movingly conveys the ________ of the lovers‘ final parting. A. ache B. argument C. anxiety D. anguish 6. The exam in January prepared pupils for the real thing in June. A. false B. unreal C. untrue D. imaginary 7. These periodicals generally appear at regular and frequent intervals - weekly ________ or monthly. A. double weekly B. biweekly C. twice weekly D. every two weekly 8. The book collector who expands an unusual collection over a ________ helps to preserve books for posterity. A. lifelike B. lifestyle C. life D. lifetime 9. In the larger communities special schools are provided for children who have physical or developmental ________. A. inabilities B. disabilities C. incompetence D. immature 10. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________. A. to be fired B. having fired C. to fire D. having been fired 11. Do you hear the guitar music? John ________ his new guitar. A. must be playing B. could play C. should play D. will be playing 12. - Have you heard anything from Tom? Is he still in Africa? - He ________ be, or he ________ already be on his way home. I‘m not sure. A. could/ must B. must/ could C. could/ could D. must/ must 13. The doctor arranged for me to see the ________ at the hospital about my neck. A. authority B. expert C. adviser D. specialist 14. At the end of the musical, the entire ________ burst into applause. A. watchers B. audience C. viewers D. spectators 15. Two days passed during which we did not ________ a single word. A. changed B. exchanged C. snapped D. converted

16. The match will be broadcast ________ to various countries in the world. A. live B. lively C. alive D. living 17. It is imperative ________ what to do when there is a fire. A. he must know about B. that everyone know C. we knew D. that he knew 18. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable ________ seems too good to be true. A. suspicion B. doubt C. reservation D. disbelief 19. ―The inflation rate in Greece is five times ________ my country,‘ he said. A. as much as B. more than C. as many as that in D. as high as that in 20. Be careful! Here‘s a wasps‘ nest. Don‘t ________ it. A. interfere B. disturb C. blast D. thrill III. READING COMPREHENSION (20 pts) * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blanks or answer the questions. 1 It is commonly believed that in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important. 5 Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, 10 from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of 15 school, and one that should be an integral part of one‘s entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of 20 reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high schools students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The best schools teach a wide variety of subjects. B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences. C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework. D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is. 2. What does the author probably mean by using the expression ―Children interrupt their education to go to school‖ (lines 2.3)? A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial. B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year. C. Summer school makes the school year too long. D. All of life is an education. 3. The word ―bounds‖ in line 6 is closest in meaning to ________. A. rules B. experiences C. limits D. exceptions 4. The word ―chance‖ in line 11 is closest in meaning to ________. A. unplanned B. unusual C. lengthy D. lively 5. The word ―integral‖ in line 14 is closest in meaning to ________. A. an equitable B. a profitable C. a pleasant D. an essential 6. The word ―they‖ in line 19 refers to ________. A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats 7. The phrase ―For example‖, line 20, introduces a sentence that gives example of ________.

A. similar textbooks B. the results of schooling C. the working of a government D. the boundaries of classroom subject 8. The passage supports which of the following conclusions? A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant. B. Education systems need to be radically reformed. C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated. D. Education involves many years of professional training. 9. The passage is organized by A. listing and discussing several educational problems B. contrasting the meanings of two related words C. narrating a story about excellent teachers D. giving examples of different kinds of schools 10. The writer seems to agree that ________. A. Schooling is as important than education B. Education is not as important as schooling C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal D. Education is more influential than schooling * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blanks or answer the questions. 1 Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in 5 these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth‘s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to 10 destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution Certainly, there have been periods in Earth‘s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either 15 climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0. 01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out. However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human 20 species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing 25 species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests C. The impact of human activities on Earth‘s ecosystems D. The time required for species to adapt to new environments 2. The word ―critical‖ in line 1 is closest in meaning to A. negative B. essential C. interesting D. complicated 3. The word ―jolting‖ in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. predicted B. shocking C. unknown D. illuminating 4. The author mentions the reduction of the variety of species on Earth in lines 11-12 to suggest that A. new habitats can be created for species B. humans are often made ill by polluted water C. some species have been made extinct by human activity D. understanding evolution can prevent certain species from is appearing 5. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world‘s ecosystems EXCEPT

A. destruction of the tropical rain forests B. habitat destruction in wetlands C. damage to marine ecosystems D. the introduction of new varieties of plant species 6. The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that A. the cause of the dinosaurs‘ extinction is unknown B. Earth‘s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs‘ extinction C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity D. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species‘ extinction 7. The word ―magnitude‖ in line 20 is closest in meaning to ________. A. concern B. determination C. carelessness D. extent 8. According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by humans in that changes caused by humans ________. A. are occurring at a much faster rate B. are less devastating to most species C. affect fewer ecosystems D. are reversible 9. Which of the following can best replace ―in flux‖ in line 23? A. increasing B. breaking C. producing D. changing 10. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy. B. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress. C. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems. D. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems. IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 pts) * Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. HAIR-RAISING FACTS Panic is rising (1) ________.hairstylists in Denmark. Some of those who often color, perm or highlight hair-125 stylists in all- are complaining (2) ________.symptoms which may indicate brain damage. Authorities have been forced to investigate, and it appears that many stylists are (3) ________.from memory loss, nausea and frequent headaches. The reason is that the chemicals (4) ________.produce harmful fumes. The hairdressers‘ unions are funding investigations into the problem. However, scientists are(5) ________.because the quantity of chemicals used is not enough to be harmful. Many stylists are now worried, so Denmark has (6) ________.strict regulations. Manufacturers must now list all the chemicals contained in the products. (7) ________.ventilation must be provided in hairdressing salons and clients will wear a special perm-helmet, (8) ________.the fumes away from the stylist. All of Europe will have to(9) ________.these new regulations. At the moment, everything is still at the committee stage, but soon the revolutionary perm-helmet will be worn in all salons. Final decisions will be (10) ________.when hairdressers‘ unions meet in Brussels to discuss the problem. 1. A. in B, among C. between D. at 2. A. from B. about C. of D because 3. A. experiencing B. suffering C. impaired D. injured 4. A. operated B. consumed C. exploited D. used 5. A. skeptical B. thoughtful C. suspicious D. scornful 6. A. introduced B. launched C, passed D. initiated 7. A. Abundant B. Surplus C. Ample D. Plenty 8. A. guiding B. leading C. turning D. directing 9. A. apply to B. comply with C. follow D. fulfill 10. A. introduced B. done C. made D. given B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES / FORMS (10 pts) * Use the correct tense and form of the verb provided to fit each gap. After a dinner (1. give) ________ by the Prime Minister of a little South American Republic, a (2. distinguish) ________ diplomat complained to his host that the Minister of Justice, who (3. sit) ________ on his left, (4. steal) ________ his watch. ‗Ah‖ he (5. not/do) ________ that‖, said the Prime Minister. ―I (6. get) ________ it back for you‖. Sure enough, toward the end of the evening the watch (7. return) ________ to its owner. ―And what (8 do) ________ he say?‖ asked the diplomat. ―Hush!‖ said the host, (9. glance) ________ anxiously at him. ―He doesn‘t know that 1 (10. get) ________it back.‖ II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10 pts) * Fill each gap with a suitable preposition or particle. 1. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ________ fail.

2. With total disregard ________ her own safety, Ann jumped in to rescue the dog. 3. My Mum told me ________ for coming home late from school. 4. Bill and Mike took ________ each other straightaway and became firm friends. 5. His business is growing so fast that he must take ________ more workers. 6. After a week on the run, he gave himself ________ to the police. 7. At first he didn‘t let her drive the car but she was so persuasive that eventually he gave ________. 8. It isn‘t fair to shout the speaker ________ without giving him a chance to explain. 9. Mom‘s having a day‘s holiday; we are waiting ________ her for a change. 10. She is always running ________ her friends behind their backs. She won‘t have any friends left, I‘m afraid. III. WORD FORMS (10 pts) * Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space. Lichens are a unique group of complex, (1. FLOWER) ________ plant growing on rock and trees. There are thousands of kinds of lichen, which come in a wide variety of colours. They are composed of algae and fungi which (2. UNITY) ________ to satisfy the needs of the lichens. The autotrophic green algae (3. PRODUCTION) ________ all their own food through a process called photosynthesis and provide the lichen with (4. NUTRITION) ________ elements. On the other hand, the heterotrophic fungus which (5. DEPENDENCE) ________ on other elements to provide its food, not only (6. ABSORPTION) ________ and stores water for the plant but also helps protect it. This (7. UNITE) ________ by which two (8. SIMILARITY) ________ organisms live together is called ―symbiosis‖. This (9. SHARE) ________ enables lichens to resist the most advert environmental conditions found on earth. They can be in some very (10. LIKE) ________ places such as the polar ice caps as well as in tropical zones, in dry areas as much as wet ones, on mountain peaks and along coastal areas. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * The passage below contains 10 errors. Identify 10 errors and correct them. My cousin and her husband lived in one of the suburbs of London. One morning they woke up to find their dismay that their car had been stolen from outside their house. They immediately phoned the police to report the thief before left for work by bus. When they returned home later the same day, they found that their car brought back and was parked in its common place outside their house. Under one of the windscreen wiper was a small envelope. They quickly opened it and found a note to apologize profusely for borrowing‖ their car. The man who wrote it explained that he didn‘t have the car itself, and his wife had gone into labour in the middle of the night with their one baby. So he hoped they wouldn‘t mind too much that he had taken their cars without their permit in order to run her to the hospital as it was anything of an emergency. 1_________________ 6_________________ 2_________________ 7_________________ 3_________________ 8_________________ 4_________________ 9_________________ 5_________________ 10_________________ V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 pts) * Fill each blank with ONE word. TIME TO RELAX? HOW? One of the (0) the greatest problems with holidays, (1) ________ from the usual travel complications and accommodation difficulties, (2) ________ the expectations people have of (3) ________. When we go on holiday we expect to leave all the stresses and strains of our daily lives (4) ________ us. We imagine we will be able to escape to such a degree that we even tend to believe, consciously or not, that we can change our own personalities and become completely different people. The average business-person, tense, preoccupied, short-tempered, (5) ________ to relax, envisages herself / himself (6) ________ from the moment of locking the office door, a radically different type of person: carefree, good-humored, ready to relax and enjoy whatever adventures present (7) ________. In practice, we take ourselves with us (8) ________ we go, and the personality that is shaped (9) ________ years of stress and tension is almost impossible to shake off (10) ________ a moment‘s notice. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 pts) * Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. I shouldn‘t have trusted a stranger with my savings. I ________________________________________________________________________

2. The reason why I was given promotion was that Laurence recommended me. I wouldn‘t ________________________ but _____________________________________ 3. His condition improved so rapidly he went home four days after the operation. There ____________________________________________________________________ 4. You must never mention this to him. Under ____________________________________________________________________ 5. His father was very angry with him when he heard had he damaged the car. (blew) The young actress _________________________________________________ audition. 6. The young actress was very nervous before the audition, (butterflies) The young actress _________________________________________________ audition. 7. Martin cannot go any higher in his career, (pinnacle) Martin__________________________________________________________ his career. 8. Margaret is said to be a very good cook, (reputation) Margaret __________________________________________________ very good cook. 9. Most people are indifferent to the mistreatment of animals, (show) Most __________________________________________________________ of animals. 10. You must do something to make sure this doesn‘t happen again, (steps) You_________________________________________________________ happen again.

PRACTICE TEST 26 A. I. * 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. * 6. 7. 8.

MULTIPLE CHOICE PHONOLOGY (10m) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other words. A. disguise B. bruise C. cruise D. suit A. intermediate B. immediate C. medium D. medicine A. excursion B. fur C. hurry D. Observant A. oasis B. oast C. oath D. oarsman A. distribute B. tribe C. triangle D. Trial Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other words. A. coherent B. permanent C. continent D. sentiment A. unconcerned B. tropical C. represent D. lemonade A. equality B. vegetable C. imaginable D. embarrassment 9. A. irritable B. irrelevant C. irreparable D. irrational 10. A. penalty B. document C. pedestrian D. Petrol II. VOCABULARY & STRUCTURE (20m) 1. We took ________ of the fine weather and spent the day on the beach. A. chance B. advantage C. occasion D. effect 2. Although the cyclist was unhurt, his bicycle was ________ between the lorry and the wall. A. clapped B. crushed C. split D. banged 3. The school was closed for a month because of a serious ________ of fever. A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak 4. After questioning the man for six hours, the police ________ the information they wanted. A. seized B. regained C. recovered D. obtained 5. They are leaving the district, so they have put their house up for ________. A. purchase B. offer C. sale D. trade 6. Thousands of steel ________ were used as a framework of the new office block. A. beams B. girders C. stakes D. piles 7. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only ________ the hot, humid air. A. stirred up B. cut back C. turned into D. poured through 8. Give me a word ________ with S. A. beginning B. begins C. began D. begin 9. ________ some countries have ruined their agriculture, squandering money on uneconomic factories, the Ivory Coast has stuck to what it is good. A. After B. During C. When D. While

10. He ________ a policeman; he‘s much too short. A. can‘t be B. must be C. looks like D. should be 11. He is a little bit ________ in his left ear, but if you speak clearly he will hear what you say. A. disabled B. deaf C. diseased D. dead 12. She remembered the correct address only ________ she had posted the letter. A. since B. afterwards C. following D. after 13. Mr. and Mrs. Hudson are always ________ with each other about money. A. annoying B. arguing C. discussing D. shouting 14. The children did not know the ________ by which the game was played. A. facts B. laws C. orders D. rules 15. It‘s an awful ________ your wife couldn‘t come. I was looking forward to meeting her. A. harm B. sorrow C. shame D. shock 16. He enjoyed the dessert so much that he accepted a second ________ when it was offered. A. load B. pile C. helping D. sharing 17. The music ________ the composer‘s joy of life. A. appeals B. attracts C. expresses D. arouses 18. If only he ________ told us the truth in the first place, things wouldn‘t have gone so wrong. A. had B. has C. would have D. should have 19. ________ you have no key, you will have to get back before I go out. A. Although B. Provided C. As D. Unless 20. You should iron out the ________ in that dress. A. wrinkles B. crumples C. folds D. creases III. READING COMPREHENSION (20m) * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. Passage 1: Memory is a vital characteristic of the human species. Organisms evolve to adapt to their environments in many different ways. There are, however, two broad classes of adaptation. The first of these involves preprograming the organism to cope with its environment so that it is born with all the necessary instincts and equipment to operate efficiently and effectively with virtually no learning. This is clearly a very successful means of adaptation and has enabled an enormous range of organisms, from plants, bacteria, and insects to ―simple‖ vertebrates, to continue to flourish for millions of years. Such organisms have their mode of adaptation ―wired in‖ and, as such, have minimal need for learning or memory. The second involves the production of an organism which is adaptable. Here, there is much less preprograming, and the organism is left to modify its behavior in response to its environment. This allows for considerably greater complexity and variability of behavior. It also demands a larger brain and is heavily dependent on the capacity to learn and remember. The human race is the obvious example of this form of evolution - our ability to learn and remember has allowed us to develop tools and language, technologies which in turn vastly increased our ability to store and communicate yet more information through writing, and subsequently films, videos, computers, all of which can be regarded as an extension of the memory. However, without the individual‘s memory, the vast storage of information in the libraries all over the world would be incomprehensible. Accordingly, the ability to learn and remember, allowing as it does for the development of language, is perhaps our most crucial characteristic. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Evolution B. Memory C. Adaptation D. Behavior 2. The word ―the first‖ refers to: A. classes. B. adaptation C. preprogramming D. organisms. 3. The author mentions all of the following in connection with the first class of adaptation EXCEPT: A. ability to deal with the environment B. state of being programed in advance. C. process of being wired into equipment D. possession of the requisite instincts. 4. According to the passage, many organisms have existed for millions of years because they: A. have inbuilt resources B. continually adapt to the environment. C. have no memory D. are unable to learn. 5. From the author‘s use of ―simple‖, it can be inferred that the vertebrates were: A. natural B. thoughtless C. uncomplicated D. plain 6. The word ―mode‖ is the closest in meaning to which of the following? A. method B. way C. manner D. route 7. According to the passage, the organisms of the second class:

A. changes the behavior constantly. B. relies upon its memory. C. modifies the environment. D. learn very quickly. 8. The author suggests that human being‘s memory is: A. partly responsible for the growth of the language B. a tool used for understanding C. supported by technological advances D. dependent upon the storage of writing 9. It can be inferred from the passage that man‘s most important characteristic is: A. the ability to speak. B. the capacity to remember. C. the skill of storing information. D. an aptitude for writing. 10. The word ―crucial‖ is closest in meaning to A. basic. B. vital. C. serious. D. effective. Passage 2: Recent technological advances in manned and unmanned undersea vehicles along with breakthroughs in satellite technology and computer equipment have overcome some of the limitations of divers and diving equipment. Without a vehicle, divers often became sluggish and their mental concentration was limited. Because of undersea pressure that affected their organs. Communication among divers was difficult or impossible. But today, most oceanographers make direct observations by means of instruments that are lowered into the ocean, from samples taken from the water, or from photographs made by orbiting satellites. Direct observations of the ocean floor are made not only by divers but also by deep-diving submarines and aerial photography. Some of the submarines can dive to depths of more than seven miles and cruise at depths of fifteen thousand feet. In addition, radio-equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit information back to land-based laboratories, often via satellite. Particularly important are data about water temperature, currents and weather. Satellite photographs can show the distribution of sea ice, oil slicks, and cloud formations over the ocean. Maps created from satellite pictures can represent the temperature and color of the ocean‘s surface, enabling researchers to study the ocean currents. Furthermore, computers help oceanographers to collect and analyze data from submarines and satellites. By creating a model of the ocean‘s movement and characteristics, scientists can predict the pattern and possible effects of the ocean on the environment. Recently, many oceanographers have been relying more on satellites and computers than on research ships or even submarine vehicles because they can supply a greater range of information more quickly and more efficiently. Some of mankind‘s most serious problems, especially those concerning energy and food, may be solved with the help of observations made possible by this new technology. 1. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned? A. Communication among divers B. Technological advances in oceanography C. Direct observation of the ocean floor D. Undersea vehicles 2. The word ―sluggish‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. nervous B. confused C. slow moving D. very weak 3. Divers have had problems in communicating underwater because ________. A. the pressure affected their speech organs B. the vehicles they used have not been perfected C. they did not pronounce clearly D. the water destroyed their speech organs 4. This passage suggests that the successful exploration of the ocean depends upon ________. A. vehicles as well as divers B. radios that divers use to communicate C. controlling currents and the weather D. the limitations of diving equipment 5. Undersea vehicles ________. A. are too small for a man to fit inside B. are very slow to respond C. have the same limitations that divers have D. make direct observations of the ocean floor 6. The word ―cruise‖ could best be replaced by ________. A. travel at a constant speed B. function without problems C. stay in communication D. remain still 7. How is a radio-equipped buoy operated? A. By operators inside the vehicle in the part underwater B. By operators outside the vehicle on a ship C. By operators outside the vehicle on a diving platform D. By operators outside the vehicle in a laboratory on shore 8. Which of the following are NOT shown in satellite photographs? A. The temperature of the ocean‘s surface B. Cloud formations over the ocean. C. A model of the ocean‘s movements D. The location of sea ice 9. The word those refers to ________. A. ships B. problems C. computers D. vehicles

10. According to the author, what are some of the problems the underwater studies may eventually resolve? A. Weather and temperature control B. Food and energy shortages C. Transportation and communication problems D. Overcrowding and housing problems ‗ IV. GUIDED CLOZE (10m) * Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. OSCAR‟S WINNING PERFORMANCE Two boats, engines paralysed are drifting helplessly towards rocks in a raging sea. Gale-force winds are blowing as a distress message is relayed to the (1) ________. The west coast search-and-rescue helicopter takes off from Shannon; its (2) ________ is Clew Bay in County Mayo. The terrified crews on Sundancer and Heather Berry are only half-a-mile from disaster when Hotel Oscar, the Irish Marine Emergency Service helicopter arrives and the winch crew (3) ________ saving their lives. There‘s no hope for the boats - the conditions are too bad for that. The threatening rocks will make matchwood of them. It‘s not easy to get the rescue line down on the pitching, rolling decks as the pilot, Captain A1 Lockey hovers directly (4) ________. By the time the exhausted winchman has (5) ________ the two crew members of Heather Berry, the helicopter is running low on fuel. The pair on Sundancer will have to be abandoned if everyone else is to survive. As if that decision isn‘t difficult enough, screaming winds make for a treacherous flight out of the bay. For Captain Lockey, 25 years a helicopter pilot and veteran of typhoon conditions off oil rigs in the South China Sea, this was the worst experience in a distinguished (6) ________. In fact, a change in wind direction was to spare Sundancer its horrible face, much to the (7) ________ of the rescue crew whose hearts were breaking as they were forced to turn their backs and (8) ________ for home. Medals, it is said should be given to those who have to (9) ________ that most painful decision to say ‗no‘. Fortunately, most crews can and do say ‗yes‘ in all conditions and at all (10) ________ of night and day. That was Mission 47, accomplished just over three months after Hotel Oscar‘s contract began in July 1991. 1. A. shore B, land C. beach D. seaside 2. A. direction B. destination C. journey D. arrival 3. A. set off B. set up C. set out D. set about 4. A. above B, higher C. ahead D. over 5. A. picked out B. picked up C. taken over D. taken off 6. A. job B. role C. profession D. career 7. A. satisfaction B, comfort C. relief D. gratitude 8. A. go B. fly C. head D. lend 9. A. give B. do C. say D. make 10. A. periods B. moments C. hours D. minutes B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES / FORMS (10m) a. She was breathing fast and deep, as if she (1-run) ________. b. (2-Lose) ________ the last time, she does not want to ask them. c. She can‘t bear (3-criticize) ________ about her work. d. Not until later (4-they / discover) ________that the picture (5-steal) ________. e. Before 2000, he (6-be) ________ a teacher at the University, as his father (7-be) ________ before him. f. You (8-be) ________ more careful. You (9-avoid) ________ (10-have) ________ this accident. II. PREPOSITIONS & PHRASAL VERBS (10m) * Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle: 1. John is not punctual. He usually turns ________ 10 minutes after the lesson has started. 2. The gun went ________ in his hand while he was cleaning it. 3. Put the cart ________ the horse. 4. He ignored my request. He simply brushed it ________ as if he hadn‘t hear what I said. 5. I was ill for 2 weeks, so I‘ve fallen ________ with my work. 6. The murderer has been condemned ________ death. 7. If he loses consciousness, give him a sip of brandy to bring him ________. 8. He pretended to be an Englishman, but his foreign accent gave him ________. 9. My plans for starting a restaurant fell ________ for lack of capital. 10. Everyone was won ________ by the force of her arguments. III. WORD FORMS (10m)

* 1. 2. 3.

Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the given words. This is not an original, but it‘s a good (produce) ________. A list of (come) ________ events for the autumn is being prepared. A mother has to be a nurse, house keeper, shopper, cook, teacher, etc.... She plays a (lateral) ________ role. 4. This professor explained his ideas with great (clear) ________. 5. Crimes of violence were (compare) ________ rare until a few years ago. 6. The scenery was beautiful beyond (describe) ________. 7. The train became (railway) ________ at 60 miles per hour but no one was seriously hurt. 8. A successful business needs good (organise) ________. 9. There was a (built) ________ of gas and we were afraid there would be an explosion. 10. Since the end of the World War II, (industry) ________ has been increasing very fast throughout the world. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10m) * Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. Who were the people responsible for collection and sending plants from one country to another? And why did they do it? Initially they were travellers with other purposes: traders, colonists, pilgrims and missionaries have all been important in providing new plants for English gardens. They sent back indigenous wild plants, or sometimes, as in the cases of visitors to China and Japan, plants which have been cultivated and improved for hundreds of years. This worked, of course, in both directions: English gardens were making in the most unlikely places. Travellers did not always recognise an interesting plant on seen it interesting, that is, to the collector at home. So in the 16th and 17th century, attempts were made to collect on a most professional basis, either by patrons sending collections into the field, or by subscriptions to finance local enthusiasts in the most promised areas. By 1611 John Tradescant was travelling and collecting in France and other parts of Europe. Lately, Peter Collinson, a London merchant, who had seen the richness of the plant material sending back by Tradescant, organised a syndicate to finance the amateur botanist John Bartram. Before long, special collectors were being dispatched to all parts of the world by institutions such as the Chelsea Physic Garden. Mistake Correction Mistake Correction 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10m) * Fill in each of the following blanks with ONE suitable word THE FLYING WING: AEROPLANE OF THE FUTURE What will the aero-plane of the future look like? An increasing number of journeys are being made (1) _______ air, and the airlines are therefore demanding a new kind of plane to help them cope with increasing passenger numbers. One of the revolutionary new designs (2) _______ developed is a ―flying wing‖, which is short but very wide, in contrast (3) _______ most planes, which are long and narrow. It will be capable (4) _______ carrying 600-800 passengers. It will be built of an extremely light material, and together (5) _______ the unusual design, this will improve performance. The new aero-plane will be quieter and more comfortable than existing planes. It will also cost less to operate and will therefore help to keep fares (6) _______ affordable levels. Computers will play an important role in this plane. They would be used (7) _______ the flight as (8) _______ as on ground: ground crews will simply plug their laptop computers into the flight computers to check all functions. An additional advantage of this plane is (9) _______ no new runways or terminal buildings will have to be built for it, (10) _______ it is being designed in such a way that it can use existing ones. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20m) * Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. It‘s sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year. Sad ______________________________________________________________________ 2. I only recognised him when he came into light.

Not until __________________________________________________________________ 3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended. Had it not _________________________________________________________________ 4. Under no circumstances should you phone the police. The last ___________________________________________________________________ 5. She chooses the kind of hotels she stays in very carefully. She‘s very fussy ____________________________________________________________ 6. I bought it without thinking about it first, (spur) _________________________________________________________________________ 7. We must accept the fact that we haven‘t made much progress in the struggle against poverty, (terms) _________________________________________________________________________ 8. Although he had his legs cut off after a serious accident, he competed in the Olympic Games and won a medal, (prevent) _________________________________________________________________________ 9. They suddenly realized that they were on the verge of a bankrupt, (dawned) _________________________________________________________________________ 10. The rocketing prices have proved too much for most salaried people, (cope) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 27 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY * Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. wicked B. beloved C. naked D. booked 2. A. burden B. hurry C. burgundy D. hurdle 3. A. message B. cottage C. hostage D. massage 4. A. pizza B. seize C. fertilizer D. horizon 5. A. dinosaur B. launch C. nausea D. laurel * Choose the word that is stressed differently from the others in the list. 6. A. economic B. photography C. catastrophe D. initiate 7. A. comfortable B. necessary C. industry D. intensity 8. A. contend B. sanguine C. delicate D. mineral 9. A. determine B. argument C. counterpart D. marvelous 10 . A. curriculum B. certificate C. kindergarten D. companion II. VOCABULARY & STRUCTURE * Choose the option that best completes the blank. 1. The brother and sister were ________ over who would get to inherit the beach house. A. at large B. at odds C. at a standstill D. at a loose end 2. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ________ down for a while. A. hair B. heads C. hearts D. souls 3. Grandma says there wasn‘t a _____ of truth in that story Granddad told last night about being a war hero. A. speck B. crumb C. dot D. grain 4 After a six-year relationship, Martha and Billy have decided to ________. A. break the bank B. turn the page C. tie the knot D. make the grade 5. I‘d like to make ________ for crashing your car. Let me pay for the repairs. A. improvements B. corrections C. amends D. adjustments 6. It‘s sad to say, but very few relationships nowadays stand the ________ of time. A. trial B. judgement C. test D. check 7. Thanks for lending me your umbrella; it really came in ________. A. used B. handy C. handful D. needy 8. Sara brought in a lot of business last month; she should ask for a pay rise while she‘s still on a ________. A. run B. roll C. rush D. roam 9. James never shows his emotions; no matter what happens, he always keeps a stiff upper ________. A. mouth B. eye C. head D. lip 10. The injury destroyed his hopes of being ________ world champion.

A. peaked B. crowned C. awarded D. topped 11. Created by the dissolution of limestone, the underground cave system ________ Mammoth Cave is noted for its stalactites and stalagmites. A. is known as B. it is known to be C. known as D. to be known 12. In the northern and central parts of the states of Idaho ________ and churning rivers. A. majestic mountains are found B. found majestic mountains C. ire found majestic mountains D. finding majestic mountains 13. The film Lawrence of Arabia is three hours and forty-one minutes long, one minute ________ Gone with the Wind. A. in length like B. long is C. is longer than D. longer than is 14. The surrealistic movement in art in the 1920s and 1930s placed ________ is pictured in the unconscious and often incorporated dreamlike images. A. to emphasize it B an emphasis on it C. emphasize what D. an emphasis on what 15. The genus Equus became extinct in North America during the glacial period, and it was not reintroduced until ________ by the Spaniards. A. brought there B. was brought there C. bringing it there D. it brought there 16. Most radioactive elements occur in igneous and metamorphic ________ fossils occur in sedimentary rocks. A. rocks, nearly all B. rocks, but nearly all C. rocks, nearly all are D. rocks, which nearly all are 17. According to the World Health Organization ________ there to be an outbreak of any of the six most dangerous diseases, this could be cause for quarantine. A. were B. they were C. there were D. were they 18. ________ off the Hawaiian coastline are living, others are dead. A. Coral reefs B. Some types of coral reefs C. There are many types of coral reefs D. While some types of coral reefs 19. ________ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. A. The moon B. That the Moon C. When the Moon D. The Moon which 20. The leaves of the white mulberry provide food for silkworms, ________ silk fabrics are woven. A. whose cocoons B. from cocoons C. whose cocoons are from D. from whose cocoons III. READING COMPREHENSION * Read the passage and choose the best answer for each of the questions below. Passage 1 Archaeological records-paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the use of hands-indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is depicted as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were righthanded. Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers. Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in tool making: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker). Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth ^ and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users‘ teeth. Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by lefthanders). Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology, scientists think that physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo Sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.

B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use. C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million years. D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modem humans. 2. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands? A. Some are not very old B. It is unusual to see such paintings. C. Many were made by children D. The artists were mostly right-handed 3. The word ‗depicted‘‘ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. written B. portrayed C. referred D. mentioned 4. When compared with ―implements flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation‖ (paragraph 2), it can be inferred that ―implements flaked with a clockwise motion‖ are ________. A. more common B. larger C. more sophisticated D. older 5. The word ―cranial morphology‖ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ― ________ ‖. A. the form of crane B. the form of body C. the study of physical bodies D. the study of skulls 6. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because ________. A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by modern knives D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools 7. The word ―hemispheres‘ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to - ________. A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies 8. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Homo habilis in the last paragraph? A. To contrast them with modern humans. B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools. C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right-handed. D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large. 9. All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT ________. A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones 10. Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial morphology (line 19)? A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently. B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain‘s hemispheres. C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals. D. Variation between the brain‘s hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Homo erectus and Homohabilis. Passage 2 Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more heat than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and move, heat is transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is moved by winds and some by ocean currents, and some gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of latent heat. The term ―latent heat‖ refers to the energy that has to be used to convert liquid water to water vapor. We know that if we warm a pan of water on a stove, it will evaporate, or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also know that if we hang wet clothes outside in the summertime they will dry faster than in winter, when temperatures are colder. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water vapor is supplied by heat - supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter case. This energy is not lost. It is stored in water vapor in the atmosphere as latent heat. Eventually, the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and the energy will be released to the atmosphere. In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun‘s incoming energy is used to evaporate water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to quantify this proportion of the Sun‘s energy. By analyzing temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe, they have estimated the quantity to be about 90 watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent of the Sun‘s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the atmosphere, it can be transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large-scale winds. Or it can be transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent storms, which then release the energy back to the atmosphere. 1. The passage mainly discusses how heat ________. A. is transformed and transported in the Earth‘s atmosphere. B. is transported by ocean currents.

C. can be measured and analyzed by scientists. D. moves about the Earth‘s equator. 2. The passage mentions that the tropics differ from the Earth‘s polar regions in which of the following ways? A. The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere B. The amount of heat they receive from the Sun C. The strength of their large scale winds D. The strength of their oceanic currents 3. The underlined word ―convert‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. mix B. change C. adapt D. reduce 4. Why does the author mention ―the stove‖ in line 9? A. To describe the heat of the Sun B. To illustrate how water vapor is stored C. To show how energy is stored D. To give an example of a heat source 5. According to the passage, most ocean water evaporation occurs especially ________. A. around the higher latitudes B. in the tropics C. because of large-scale winds D. because of strong ocean currents 6. According to the passage, 30 percent of the Sun‘s incoming energy ________. A. is stored in clouds in the lower latitude B. is transported by ocean currents C. never leaves the upper atmosphere D. gets stored as latent heat 7. The underlined word ―it‖ refers to ________. A. square meter B. the Sun‘s energy C. latent heat D. the atmosphere 8. The underlined word ―primarily‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. chiefly B. originally C. basically D. clearly 9. The word underlined ―prevailing‖ is closest in meaning to ________. A. essential B. dominant C. circular D. closest 10. All of the following words are defined in the passage EXCEPT ________. A. low latitudes (line 1) B. latent heat (line 4) C. evaporate (line 6) D. atmosphere (line 12) IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST * Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. BUSINESS AND THE ENVIRONMENT These days in business, people have to face many challenging questions when designing and implementing new projects in undeveloped areas of the countryside. One issue which has to be faced is whether it is possible to introduce new technology without destroying the local environment. Economic (1) ________ and environmental conservation are often seen as natural enemies. It is unfortunate that in the past this has often been true, and it has been necessary to choose between (2) ________ the project or protecting the environment. However, by taking environmental considerations (3) ________ at an early stage in a project, companies can significantly reduce any impact on local plants and animals. For example, in southern Africa, a company called CEL was asked to put up 410 km of a power transmission line without disturbing the rare birds which inhabit that area. The project was carried out with (4) ________ disturbance last summer. What may surprise many business people is the fact that this consideration for local wildlife did not in any way (5) ________ down the project. Indeed, the necessary advance planning (6) ________ with local knowledge and advanced technology, (7) ________ that the project was actually completed ahead of schedule. CEL was contracted to finish the job by October and (8) ________ to do so two months earlier. CEL is one of those companies which is (9) ________ to the principle of environmental conservation. Many other companies have yet to be (10) ________ of the importance of balancing the needs of people with those of the environment. However, it may be the only realistic way forward. 1. A. development B. progressior C. rise D. increase 2. A. running B. dealing C. controlling D. leading 3. A. deeply B. gravely C. seriously D. severely 4. A. bare B. smallest C. least D. minimal 5. A. turn B. slow C. speed D. hold 6. A tied B. combined C. added D. related 7. A. led B. caused C. resulted D. meant 8. A. managed B. succeeded C. achieved D. fulfilled 9. A. promised B. persuaded C. convicted D. committed 10. A. argued B. convinced C. urged D. impressed

B. I. * • •

WRITTEN TEST VERB TENSES/ FORMS Use the correct forms/ tenses of the given words. (1) _______ (I / not do) the test for the time being, I (2) _______ (play) football with you. My brother (3) _______ (work) in Australia for the last year, so by the time he (4) _______ (return) the month after next, I (5) _______ (not see) him for 14 months. • The US postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces of identification (6) _______ (present). • We would like (7) _______ (invite) to the president‘s reception, but we weren‘t. • Father (8) _______ (pay) a deposit on the car, but then he (9) _______ (tell) that it (10) _______ (promise / already) to someone else. ANSWERS _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ _________________ II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS * Complete each of the following sentences with (a) suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). 1. The concert was so popular that people who had not bought tickets in advance was turned ________. 2. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted came ________ a good answer. 3. I agree with most of what you said, but I can‘t go ________ your idea of letting children leave school at 14. 4. What chemical is this? It‘s giving ________ a horrible smell. 5. Learning English isn‘t so difficult once you get ________ it. 6. Venomous snakes have modified teeth connected ________ poison glands in which the venom is secreted and stored. 7. The effects of the anesthetics wore ________ after a couple of hours. 8. The secretary was reduced ________ tears by the manager‘s behavior. 9. Owing to circumstances ________ our control, the flight to Rome has been cancelled. 10. The boss hasn‘t told me anything yet, but I think it‘s only the lull ________ storm. III. WORD FORMS * Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given in the box. colony advantage accessevolve settle establish plantsufficient wild isolate The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies was the slow (1) ________ of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as (2) ________ communities and developed to mature urbanism in little more than a century. In the early (3) ________ days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported. Merchandising (4) ________ were, accordingly, (5) ________ located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior (6) ________. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance. This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as (7) ________, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local (8) ________ and the economic (9) ________ of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf (10) ________ to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * Identify 10 errors in the following passage and correct them. (0) has been done as an example.

It was the human factor that contributes to the absolute majority of road accidents which involves the tremendous toll of fatalities each year. Other, less decisive, causes are vehicle functions or road shortcomings. Speeding motorists are notorious about failing to give way at junctions, judging the situation on the road or being unable to accurately estimate the distance while overtaking the ‗snailpacers‘ ahead. Drinkers who settle behind the wheel after one glass or two may be running the risk of causing a tragedy through their impairing perception, which is not so rare a case, again. Unfortunately, it is much simpler to introduce the necessary alterations in the traffic system that change the behavioural patterns of drivers. There are voices that more severe disciplinary resolutions ought to put into practice if the vehicle users are to benefit from greater security on the road. The idea of producing safe road users through preschool parental instruction or through incorporating the safety regulations for the school curriculum has been widely acclaimed in many communities and are expected to yield the required results as the First step in bettering the qualifications of the future drivers and acquaint them with the potential hazards that may arise en route.

0. was → is ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________

V. OPEN CLOZE TEST * Fill in each of the following blanks with ONE suitable word. We all now that life on earth can be depressing at times, But if it‘s really (1) ________ you down, why not think about the possibility of moving to a different environment. It‘s assumed that by the year 2050 technological solutions will enable people to settle on other planets with a perfect potential for generating their own energy out of local (2) ________. However, there are plenty of (3) ________ to overcome until the first successful settlement on Mars, for example, is viable. Outer space is known to be a hostile environment with no oxygen to breathe and extremely low temperatures approaching absolute zero. The solar and cosmic (4) ________ can also prove to be lethal for fragile earthly organisms. Although we take our elementary life support system for (5) ________ here on earth, there is no saying what might happen if we set out on a trek in space without the protection of the earthly atmosphere. Happily, the contemporary space (6) ________ have been thoroughly planned to defend our astronauts against the immensely adverse (7) ________ of the inhospitable surroundings of space. Therefore, they are located in hermetic and sealed cabins with a fresh (8) ________ of air and conditions simulating those on earth. The first step towards (9) ________ colonization is still to be made. The (10) ________ are that the pioneers will only be provided with the most necessary equipment and that their advancement will be carefully examined by the experts in a variety of fields including astronomy, medicine, physics and biology. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Rewrite the sentences with the given words at the beginning or in the brackets in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. As there are no more questions, I think we can end the meeting. →There __________________________________________________________________ 2. Has anybody been hurt in the road collision? →Has anybody come ________________________________________________________ 3. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation. →The statement boils _______________________________________________________ 4. Jack isn‘t so much interested in Lisa as in her parents‘ big fortune. →Lisa ____________________________________________________________________ 5. The community spoke enthusiastically about the recently elected mayor, (sang) →The community ___________________________________________________ praises. 6. I wanted to make sure that all my good work wasn‘t wasted in that way. (waste) →I wanted to prevent________________________________________________________ 7. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticized by the press, (scorn) →The press _______________________________________________________________ 8. Joan was not sure if it was a good idea to employ such young staff, (misgivings) → _______________________________________________________________________ 9. In my opinion, it was an absolute miracle that they survived the accident, (short) →The fact that _____________________________________________________________

10. By leaving Mary alone, I‘m sure she‘ll finish the project on time, (devices) →If Mary __________________________, I‘m sure she‘ll finish the project on time.

PRACTICE TEST 28 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (60MS) I. PHONOLOGY (Pronunciation and stress pattern) (10ms) A. Pronunciation: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. a. character b. apathetic c. caress d. asset 2. a. considerate b. abrogate c. mandate d. duplicate 3. a. sacred b. alcohol c. ancient d. sachet 4. a. chronicle b. christen c. orchard d. orchid 5. a. geriatrics b. gaiety c. margarine d. gesture B. Stress: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. 6. a. biomass b. wholesaler c. etiquette d. dioxide 7. a. spectator b. decathlon c. consensus d. lucrative 8. a, monopoly b. preferential c. trigonometry d. agricultural 9. a. geneticist b. expertise c. presentiment d. triathlon 10. a. ethanol b. comparable c, celibacy d. repentant II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES (20ms) 1. The manager told his assistant to ________ the mistake immediately. a. rectify b. maltreat c. sanction d. banish 2. A person who has drunk too much alcohol would ________. a. stagger b. swagger c. tramp d. prowl 3. Peter gave up smoking ________ dint of a lot of determination and willpower. a. at b. in c. on d. by 4. The pointed ________ of the church could be seen from miles away. a. dome b. summit c. peak d. steeple 5. The house possesses extensive ________ with gardens, tennis courts, and an orchard. a. grounds b. property c. fields d. surroundings 6. No one knows precisely how much he earns a month, but $2,500 can‘t be ________ of the mark. a. far b. wide c. broad d. distant 7. Good restaurants serving traditional English food are very hard to ________. a. come into b. get in c. come by d. go through 8. I was woken up by the sound of sheep ________ in the meadows. a. neighing b. crowing c. bleating d. Croaking 9. He discovered that his home had been ________ by burglars. a. annihilated b. exterminated c. ransacked d. eliminated 10. I was pretty ________ then; I had a lot to learn. a. white b. green c. blue d. black 11. The wind blew so strongly that the windows ________ in their frames. a. shocked b. flapped c. slapped d. rattled 12. From my viewpoint, the changes to the education system have been to good ________. a. effect b. influence c. outcome d. upshot 13. As you are non-resident in this country, I am afraid that you are ________ to vote. a. inequitable b. illegible c. illegal d. ineligible 14. The new regulations have ________ up a number of problems for the company. a. come b. thrown c. got d. moved 15. Ian Mills won the election ________ all the odds. a. despite b. without c. against d. below 16. It‘ll take me 25 years to pay off the ________.Then the house will be mine. a. debit b. dividend c. mortgage d. overdraft 17. Jim‘s a tough character and certainly won‘t let anyone push him ________. a. up b. around c. off d. through

18. Nobody wanted to tell Richard he wasn‘t invited, but I drew the short ________ so I had to do it. a. straw b. stick c. pole d. rod 19. We‘re saving for our holiday, so we‘re ________ back on luxuries this month. a. dropping b. giving c. moving d. cutting 20. Scientists are predicting that the volcano might erupt so people have been ________ from the area. a. escaped b. emigrated c. exported d. evacuated III. READING COMPREHENSION (20ms) A. Reading 1 Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played ―base ball‖ in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York Knickerbockers‘ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikes-you‘re-out, 5 batter out on a caught ball, three outs per inning, a nine man team. The ―New York Game‖ spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban-industrial society. At its inception it was played by and for wealthy gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two captains who would choose 10 teams from among the members. Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening‘s entertainment for the winners. During the 1850-70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing commercialism (charging admission), under-the- table payments to exceptional players, 15 and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first-nine, and their ―muffins‖ (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game) Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati‘s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870-1890 period saw the complete professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of 20 Professional Baseball Players in 1871. The National League of Professional Base Ball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business- minded investors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball‘s ―Golden Age‖. Profits soared, player‘s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132. a weekly periodical ―The Sporting News‖ came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck 25 stands replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed itself the American League. 1. What is the passage mainly about? A. the origins of baseball B. the commercialization of baseball C. the influence of the ―New York Game‖ on baseball D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century 2. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with others or become a ―muffin‖ B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and commercialism that developed in baseball C. the ―New York Game‖ spread rapidly because it was better formalized D. business-minded investors were only interested in profits 3. The word ―inception‖ in line 9 is closest in meaning to A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules 4. The word ―lavish‖ in line 13 is closest in meaning to A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive 5. Which of the following is true of the way the game was played by wealthy gentlemen at its inception A. a team might consist of 40 members B. the president would choose teams from among the members C. they didn‘t play on weekends D. they might be called ―duffers‖ if they didn‘t make the first nine 6. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true EXCEPT A. commercialism became more prosperous B. the clubs are smaller

C. outstanding players got extra income D. people gamed on the outcome of games 7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s ―Golden Age‖? A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields B. a weekly periodical commenced C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed D. profits soared 8. The word ―somewhat‖ in line 25 is closest in meaning to A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent C. to not the same extent D. to some extent 9. The word ―itself‘ in line 28 refers to A. the Western League B. growing cities C. the Midwest D. the American League 10. Where in the passage does the author first mention payments to players A. lines 5-9 B. lines 10-14 C. lines 15-19 D. lines 20-25 B. Reading 2 During the late Middle Ages, oil paint took hold as the artistic medium of choice because it was effective, flexible, and resilient relative to the wax-based, watercolor, fresco, or tempera paints prevalent at the time. Although contemporary commercially prepared paints contain a mixture of pigments and linseed oil, poppy oil paints are also available to connoisseurs. The original recipes developed in medieval European monasteries relied on fast-drying bases derived from various organic oils predominantly valued for their medicinal qualities. The pigments are insoluble, lightproof, and chemically inert powders ground in the base. Occasionally, varnish can be added to increase the paste‘s ability to reflect light and to cover pictures with a protective seal. The resulting stiff, resinous compounds are often packaged in flexible metal or plastic tubes. Historically, yellow pigments have been added to the oil, and then the paste was layered over tin foil to imitate the appearance of gold leaf Despite the numerous experiments to accelerate the drying process, oil paints dry comparatively slowly with little color alteration. An important advantage of color stability is that tones and undertones are easy to blend, match, transpose, and grade, and mistakes and smudges are simple to correct. Due to the creamy consistency of most mixtures, artists can exploit their viscosity in thick applications, sprays, thin trickles, and three-dimensional blobs. The purification by boiling and filtering and bleaching of oils can impart varied hues to powdered pigments, while drying time can be reduced by adding metallic oxides. Professional painters who mix their own medium usually have their own trademark methods of mixing materials that art experts recognize as a part of an artist‘s creative work. The thickness of the paste also plays an important role in defining the stages of painting a picture. After the basic design is sketched in pencil or charcoal, the broad background or foreground areas of the canvas are covered with thin, diluted paint on top of the primer. A thicker paint, often with added varnish, is subsequently used to refine and outline the foundation. The width of the brush depends on the type of paint the artist chooses to use, and stiff bristles are usually found in narrow brushes for making sharp lines, while softer brushes of animal hair can be employed in broad strokes. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The evolution and history of oil paintings and media B. The technology and development of drying oils C. The recipes and ingredients for producing oil paints D. The composition and techniques for mixing oil paints 2. It can be inferred from the passage that oil paintings A. supplanted the use of tempera and fresco B.took hold of the artistic choices in the Middle Ages C. promoted artistic talent since the early times D. supported the usefulness of applying paints 3. In lines 4, the word ―connoisseurs ―is closest in meaning to A. explorers B. experts C. exporters D. experimenters 4. According to the passage, medieval monks extracted oil A. from minerals B. in conjunction with pigments C. from plants D. in combination with medicines 5. In line 6, the phrase ―the base‖ is closest in meaning to A. paint B. Oil C. chemicals D. pestle 6. The purpose of paragraph 2 is to illustrate A. the laboriousness of making oil paints B. the durability of oil colors C. the complexity of oil purification D. the superiority of oil paints 7. In line 13, the word ―viscosity‖ is closest in meaning to A. stiffness B. elasticity C. stickiness D. eloquence 8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as components of oil paints? A. accelerants B. retarders C. sealants D. glosses 9. In line 16, the word ―trademark‖ is closest in meaning to

A. signature B. selection C. significanceD. secret 10. The author of the passage implies that an oil painting A. requires professional painters to mix their own paint B. contains a layer of canvas and charcoal C. thickens as the oil continues to dry in stages D. requires multiple layers of brushwork IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10ms) The quality of life these days is something most of us take for (1) ________. It takes some radically different experience to (2) ________ this fact home to people. In my (3) ________, it was spending three weeks aboard a yacht with twelve other people, competing in a major sailing race. (4) ________ I was officially a guest, it was (5) ________ clear to me from the start that there was to be no room for passengers, and that I‘d have to (6) ________ my weight. For the first few nights, none of us was able to sleep for more than a couple of hours at a (7) ________ before being rudely awoken by an aggressive command. Then we‘d do physically exhausting work in total darkness. Every few minutes we‘d be completely soaked to the (8) ________ by a large wave we couldn‘t see coming. I shared sleeping (9) ________. With six other women, with barely enough room to stretch my legs. Soon I found myself (10) ________ for my comfortable sheets back home, a hot chocolate and a warm bath. 1. A. given B. accepted C. granted D. read 2. A. bring B. push C. sweep D. carry 3. A. example B. instance C. case D. experience 4. A. Although B. However C. But D. Therefore 5. A. done B. taken C. made D. announced 6. A. offer B. move C. use D. pull 7. A. piece B. time C. period D. moment 8. A. flesh B. skin C. bones D. tones 9. A. quarters B. premises C. dormitories D. digs 10. A. desiring B. yearning C. dreaming D. craving B. WRITTEN TEST (70MS) I. VERB TENSES / FORMS (10ms) 1. All the best things (go) ________ if we don‘t get to the sale soon. 2. He‘s planning (complete) ________ all his coursework by next week. 3. It‘s six o‘clock: Imagine they (head for) ________ the airport by now. 4. - John really ought to lose some weight. You‘re right; he (breathe) ________ very heavily during the walk yesterday. 5. - Tina is still looking for a decent flat. - How long (she/look) ________? 6. Did you know that Oscar Wilde (live) ________ in Paris during his final years? 7. I loved Christmas as a child. - So did I. Every Christmas all the family (decorate) ________ the tree together. 8. Sue (recover) ________ from a severe bound of flu at the time. 9. - Why didn‘t Madeline show up at the party last night? - When I called her at 11.00 she (study) ________. 10. Her clothes were soaked because she (walk) ________ in the rain. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10ms) 1. The Smiths aren‘t at home. They‘re ________ at the shops, I think. 2. The train went ________ a long tunnel before it stopped in the station. 3. You have to stand the fridge at least 20 cm ________ from the wall. 4. Helen has left the country and gone to live ________. 5. Angela walked ________ me without saying a word. 6. The boxes fell off the ship and were later washed ________ 200 km away. 7. ________ those present at the ceremony was the local MP, Claire Sims. 8. The car started slipping ________ down the hill. 9. The cat jumped ________ the wall and landed in next door‘s pond. 10. I walked ________ the security check without noticing it was there. III. WORD FORMS (10ms): Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given in the box. Colony advantage access evolve settle establish

plant

sufficient

wild

isolate

The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies was the slow 1) ________ of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as 2) ________ communities and developedto mature urbanism in little more than a century. In the early 3) ________ days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported. Merchandising 4) ________ were, accordingly, 5) ________ located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior 6) ________. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance. This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as 7) ________, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local 8) ________ and the economic 9) ________ of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf 10) ________ to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10ms) There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. Unlike many other species of turtle, the red-ear terrapin is not rare. In fact, four to five million hatchings are exported annually from American farms. About 200,000 are sold in the United Kingdom. It is ranked that as many as 90 per cent of the young terrapins die in their first year because of the poor conditions in which they are kept. Those which survive may live for 20 years and arrive the size of a dinner plate. At this staging they require a large tank with heat and specialized lightning. Terrapins carry salmonella bacteria which can poison people. This is why the sale of terrapins was banished in the United States in 1975.They are still, however, exported to the United Kingdom. Modem turtles come from a very antique group of animals that lived over 200 million years ago. At this time dinosaurs were just beginning to establish them. Different types of turtles have interesting features : some box turtles are known to have lived for over 100 years, since other species of turtles can remain underwater for more than 24 hours. And the green turtle is the most prolific of all reptiles, lying as many as 28,000 eggs each year. If unwanted pet turtles are unleased into the wild, many will die and those which survive will threaten the lives of native plants and animal. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10ms) If you were to stop people in the street and ask them to name the ship that had been 1) ________, it is likely that nearly all of them would say the Titanic. For the sinking of the Titanic was, if not the most 2) ________, certainly the most famous sea 3) ________ in the history of ocean travel. The Titanic was 4) ________ as a luxury liner, intended to be the fastest in the world, and a great deal of publicity had 5) ________ it. The last point probably explains why so. many important people from all 6) ________ of life were on the boat when it went down. The Titanic was on its 7) ________ voyage to America in 1912 when it struck an 8) ________ and sank. Of it 2,300 passengers, more than two thirds were 9) ________. Because the Titanic was thought to be virtually unsinkable, no one was prepared for the tragedy. There was total panic as very few of the passengers had bothered to learn the necessary drill in the event of trouble. There was severe 10) ________ of lifeboats and those that were launched were still half empty. The one point of calm was to be found in the ballroom where the band carried on playing right to the very end. VL SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20ms) 1. The play is so popular that the theatre is likely to be full every night. Such _____________________________________________________________________ 2. I‘m always inviting him for a weekend with us but he‘s always too busy. No matter _________________________________________________________________ 3. ‗Hurrah! I‘ve passed the first exam!‘ he exclaimed. ‗Congratulations!‘ I said, ‗and good luck with the second.‘ He exclaimed ______________________________________________________________ 4. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.

Had it ____________________________________________________________________ 5. She explained her behaviour to me implausibly. She gave __________________________________________________________________ 6. I had no problems at all during my trip to France. (PLAN) Everythingmy trip to France __________________________________________________ 7. You have said exactly the right thing. (NAIL) _________________________________________________________________________ 8. He maintained his position against his adversary. (GROUND) _________________________________________________________________________ 9. The house was dirty because no one bothered to keep it clean. (TROUBLE) _________________________________________________________________________ 10. Something told me to say exactly what I thought but I didn‘t. (SORELY) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 29 PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS QUESTION 1: PHONOLOGY (10 pts) A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. 1. A. scene B. seed C. peak D. list 2. A. savory B. change C. graphics D. danger 3. A. charade B. charity C. champagne D. chandelier 4. A. suit B. build C. guilt D. king 5. A. difference B. history C. literature D. detergent B. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the rest. 1. A. invalid B. eggplant C. expertise D. dominant 2. A. nuclear B. province C. construct D. complex 3. A. mausoleum B. conservative C. disqualify D. magnificent 4. A. literacy B. contingency C. ceremony D. sanctuary 5. A. predict B. pretax C. pretend D. preface QUESTION 2: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE (20 pts) * Choose the best answer. 1. She ________ till the early hours listening to pop music. A. help me up B. caught me up C. kept me up D. took me up 2. Isobel has all the right ________ to become a successful manager. A. education B. qualifications C. experiences D. applications 3. ________ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all ages. A. Having exercised B. Those who exercise C. Exercising D. For exercising 4. Jack: I‘d rather stay at home. Gina: ________ A. Would you? B. Wouldn‘t you? C. Had you? D. Hadn‘t you? 5. We got in the car and made ________ Chicago as fast as we could. A. to B. at C. towards D. for 6. You can imagine how upset I was after the closure of the magazine. Since the first day on its staff I ________ it as my best job ever. A. have considered B. considered C. had considered D. was considered 7. Thousands of people ________ against the new budget. A. opposed B. demonstrated C. grumbled D. objected 8. The fans were arrested for causing ________ in the street. A. a nuisance B. a disturbance C. an irritation D. a trouble 9. In the seventeenth century, North America was vast and unconquered, ________ only at great cost. A. it promised riches but yielded its bounty B. promising riches but yielding its bounty C. by promising riches but by yielding its bounty D. its riches were promised but its bounty yielded 10. The actor gave one million dollars to a worthy ________.

A. cause B. service C. welfare D. fund 11. They should ________ corporal punishment at school, if you ask me. A. get back B. carry over C. keep up D. bring back 12. I don‘t think it would be wise to try to make Max change his mind about divorcing Barbara. Well, in his place I ________ her at all. A. would never have married B. needn‘t have married C. would never marry D. must never have married 13. I don‘t usually allow students to leave early, but in your case I‘ll make ________. A. an arrangement B. an effort C. a difference D. an exception 14. Talented athletes often need a lot of individual ________ from their coaches to help them improve. A. perspective B. approach C. thought D. attention 15. Their home is ________ designed to suit their needs. A. prestigiously B. respectfully C. ideally D. valuably 16. Stories which spread by word of ________ are not always true. A. talk B. mouth C. tongue D. speech 17. Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so much interest and that over two hundred people ________ away. A. would have turned B would turn C. had been turned D. would have to be turned 18. When I advised you to change jobs, I had your best ________ at heart. A. feelings B. interests C. thoughts D. aspects 19. Police were on the ________ of the crime within minutes of it occurring. A. venue B. spot C. scene D. position 20. ________ business managers plan the tasks that their employees are to carry out. A. It is the organizing process B. They process the organizing C. While the organizing process D. Through the organizing process QUESTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION (20 pts) A. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species‘ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species. The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life.‘ Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately 95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction. One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth‘s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A species‘ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events. 1. The underlined word ―ultimately‖ is closest in meaning to A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. eventually D. unfortunately 2. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth‘s history? A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms. B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes. C. They have caused rapid change in the environment. D. They are no longer in existence. 3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change? A. Temperature changes B. Availability of food resources

C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species 4. The underlined word ―demise‖ is closest in meaning to A. change B. recovery C. help D. death 5. Why is ―plankton‖ mentioned in the second paragraph? A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction C. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct 6. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth‘s history. B. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive. C. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth‘s history. D. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed. 7. The underlined word ―finding‖ is closest in meaning to A. published information. B. research method. C. ongoing experiment. D. scientific discovery. 8. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction metioned in paragraph 3? A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it. B. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found. C. The theory is no longer seriously considered. D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate. 9. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species‘ survival? A. It reflects the interrelationship of may species. B. It may depend on chance events. C. It does not vary greatly from species to species. D. It is associated with astronomical conditions. 10. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occurred A. 26 million years ago B. 65 million years ago C. 225 million years ago D. 250 million years ago B. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more heat than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and move, heat is transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this heat is moved by winds and some by ocean currents, and some gets stored in the atmosphere in the form of latent heat. The term ―latent heat‖ refers to the energy that has to be used to convert liquid water to water vapor. We know that if we warm a pan of water on a stove, it will evaporate, or turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. We also know that if we hang wet clothes outside in the summertime they will dry faster than in winter, when temperatures are colder. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water vapor is supplied by heat - supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter case. This energy is not lost. It is stored in water vapor in the atmosphere as latent heat. Eventually, the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and the energy will be released to the atmosphere. In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun‘s incoming energy is used to evaporate water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to quantify this proportion of the Sun‘s energy. By analyzing temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe, they have estimated the quantity to be about 90 watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent of the Sun‘s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the atmosphere, it can be transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large-scale winds. Or it can be transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent storms, which then release the energy back to the atmosphere. 1. The passage mainly discusses how heat A. is transformed and transported in the Earth‘s atmosphere. B. is transported by ocean currents. C. can be measured and analyzed by scientists. D. moves about the Earth‘s equator. 2. The passage mentions that the tropics differ from the Earth‘s polar regions in which of the following ways? A. The height of cloud formation in the atmosphere B. The amount of heat they receive from the Sun C. The strength of their large scale winds

D. The strength of their oceanic currents 3. The underlined word ―convert‖ is closest in meaning to A. mix B. change C. adapt D. reduce 4. Why does the author mention ―the stove‖ in line 10? A. To describe the heat of the Sun B. To illustrate how water vapor is stored C. To show how energy is stored D. To give an example of a heat source 5. According to the passage, most ocean water evaporation occurs especially A. around the higher latitudes. B. in the tropics. C. because of large-scale winds. D. because of strong ocean currents. 6. According to the passage, 30 percent of the Sun‘s incoming energy A. is stored in clouds in the lower latitudes B. is transported by ocean currents. C. never leaves the upper atmosphere D. gets stored as latent heat. 7. The underlined word ―it‖ refers to A. square meter. B. the Sun‘s energy C. latent heat D. the atmosphere. 8. The underlined word ―primarily‖ is closest in meaning to A. chiefly B. originally C. basically D. clearly 9. The word underlined ―prevailing‖ is closest in meaning to A. essential. B. dominant C. circular D. closest 10. All of the following words are defined in the passage EXCEPT A. low latitudes (line 1) B. latent heat (line 5) C. evaporate (line 7) D. atmosphere (line 14) QUESTION 4: GUILDED CLOZE TEST (10 pts) * Read the passage below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each space. Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (1) ________ of options open to today‘s youngster - or even ―oldster‖ for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant visit. No longer is it (2) ________ sufficient to invite your friends round, buy some food and get a baker to produce a cake. No, today‘s birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary, ranging from the (3) ________ expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is unusual and impressive. Top of this year‘s popular (4) ________ are as follows: taking some friends rally driving, helicopter lessons, plane trip and parachuting and hot air ballooning. Then, there is always group bungee jumping or taking your buddies on a stomach-churning, white water rafting (5) ________ down rapids. The desire for adventurous celebration is not restricted to the (6) ________. I recently met an octogenarian who celebrated (7) ________ the milestone of eighty by having a flying lesson. Of course, if you have the money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a (8) ________ relation. Undoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to (9) ________ the less extravagant or less adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. I can (10) ________ dream. Perhaps by the time I‘m eighty I‘ll be able to afford it. 1. A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance 2. A. hoped B. Decided C. marked D. considered 3. A. perfectly B. dearly C. outrageously D. explicitly 4. A. experiments B. extravagances C. exposures D. expenses 5. A. ride B.travel C. voyage D. crossing 6. A. adolescents B. teenagers C. youth D. young 7. A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting 8. A. distant B. remote C. faraway D. slight 9. A. pacify B. satisfy C. distract D. obsorb 10. A. however B. but C. nevertheless D. anyway PART 2: WRITTEN TEST QUESTION 1: VERB TENSES / FORMS (10 pts) * Give the correct form of the verb in parentheses. 1. There was no sign indicating that the cottage (break) ________ into. 2. Without their valuable assistance we (never, gather) ________ enough money for our son‘s operation. 3. You say George and Stacy. I remember, it (be) ________ love at first sight. 4. It‘s been expected that the government (receive) ________ a definite answer to their request for financial

support from the European Union. 5. Things (begin) to improve now that we have received the aid. 6. We don‘t have any exact data, but on average, we (serve) ________ a hundred customers a day. 7. I (not say) ________ these two statues (make) ________ by the same sculptor. In fact, there is little resemblance between them. 8. It has been decided that the two boys (expel) ________ from school for playing nasty tricks on the teachers and the other pupils. 9. I wouldn‘t assume that he (help) ________ you in case of trouble. He isn‘t so reliable a person as you may think him to be. QUESTION 2: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10 pts) * Fill in each space with a correct preposition. UP AT OUT FOR AWAY IN OFF ON 1. Despite his strong craving ________ a cigarette, John managed to avoid smoking until he got out of the habit completely. 2. I can assure you I took a course ________ housekeeping and I do the maintenance job. 3. Mary isn‘t very wasteful with her income, she prefers to put ________ some money for her studies in Oxford. 4. At the age of seventeen, Ronald was called ________ and stationed in Texas. 5. I got up at six, started my work half an hour later and stayed there until five p.m with no free time ________ between. 6. We are hoping the campaign will go ________ or else we‘ll lose our trading partners. 7. We could only try and guess who was ________ fault even though the facts indicated Jim‘s guilt. 8. I‘m going to have those tables set ________ in a horseshoe shape. 9. Another twenty well trained engineers have been taken ________ to accelerate the design work in the assembly department. 10. I‘m sorry to have crumpled your magazine. I didn‘t do it ________ purpose. QUESTION 3: WORD FORMS (10 pts) * Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits the space in the same line. 1. The ________ gave a speech which made the delegates trust him again. GOVERN 2. There is still a lot of ________ despite my assurances. SCEPTIC 3. Young children are very ________ and shouldn‘t be IMPRESSION allowed to watch violent movies. 4. The running of the company is absolutely ________. CHAOS Nobody seems to know what their responsibilities are. 5. The company has a ________ obligation to give you sick leave. CONTRACT 6. Jane has succeeded in making herself ________ to DISPENSE Mr. Parker. She does everything for him. 7. The successful candidate will have superb ________ skills. LEAD 8. The ________ of the land has been affected by the use of intensive FERTILE farming methods. 9. Workers have voted for a two-hour ________ in protest over wage cuts. STOP 10. The road is said to be ________ due to flooding. PASS QUESTION 4; ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 pts) * The extract below has ten mistakes. Find them and correct them. RECENT DEVELOPMENTS In the last twenty years, the country has made great technological progress, culminating in our entering the space age earlier that year with the launch of our first telecommunication satellite. From a health perspective, there has been a major modern programme in public hospitals. This has involved the purchase of the latest scanning and diagnosis equipment, as well as the refurbishment of major operating theatres with state-of-the-art surgical equipment. As far as the superstructure of the country is concerned, several major projects are on progress, included the construction of three major motorways, a hydroelectric power station and a new international airport. All of these public works are being carried out using the latest technology. THE FUTURE With the increasing use of computer technology, the future of our country looks very bright indeed. It anticipates that, in the very near future, all government offices will be computered and networked to central mainframe computers in the capital. In terms of economical development, it seems probable that... QUESTION 5: ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 pts)

*

Read this text and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. If you have never practised yoga before and happen to visit a yoga class, you would be excused for thinking that it (1) ________ involves a series of stretching exercises. On further examination, however, you will quickly notice that stretching is, in fact only one small part of the (2) ________ process. These days, when we hear that someone is off to their yoga class, we never quite know whether the focus is going to be (3) ________ meditation, breathing techniques or actual physical exercise. It might seem rather confusing to some. The key difference, however, is (4) ________ the aspects of focus and awareness. Basically, yoga involves physical exercise that strengthens and cleanses the body. It also (5) ________ in developing mental focus, helping to clear the mind of stress. The main aim of yoga, (6) ________, is to develop a greater awareness of certain physical and psychological aspects of the human (7) ________. When someone (8) ________ starts practicing yoga, they automatically become absorbed in the quality of the stretching, while at a later stage they tend to become increasingly aware of (9) ________ beneficial qualities involved in the act of stretching. They begin to sense influences on movement as well as improvements in (10) ________ physical and mental states. This is the state of mindfulness which comes from the practice of yoga. QUESTION 6: SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 pts) A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. I‘m not cetain, but there may be about twenty applications for the job. At a ______________________________________________________________________ 2. The best way to make them work hard is to promise them a reward. Promise __________________________________________________________________ 3. Ann paints her landscapes with great pleasure. Ann takes _________________________________________________________________ 4. It doesn‘t matter how much you offer to pay, he‘ll never sell the family memorabilia. However __________________________________________________________________ 5. Julia realized her boss was in a bad mood when he snapped at her before she had even said ―good morning‖. Julia realized her boss got out _________________________________________________ B. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. 1. Since she met that boy, she‘s been thinking only about him. WRAPPED _________________________________________________________________________ 2. My husband will be angry when I tell him. ROOF _________________________________________________________________________ 3. One of my guests left the room very quickly. EXIT _________________________________________________________________________ 4. I can recommend you to the manager; I‘m a friend of his. WORD _________________________________________________________________________ 5. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticized by the press. SCORN _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 30 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY (10ms) A. Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three in each question. 1. A. exhaust B. luxury C. luxurious D. anxiety 2. A. heir B. hollow C. hero D. heat 3. A. evade B. many C. essay D. equation 4. A. creative B. creature C. creamy D. crease 5. A. shore B. proficient C. assure D. eventually B. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 6. A. consulate B. evaporate C. contemplate D. co-ordinate 7. A. dialect B. dynasty C. diagonal D. diamond 8. A. epoch B. equivalent C. epic D. episode

9. A. oblivious B. ferocious C. scandalous D. victorious 10. A. identify B. insecticide C. intoxicate D. indoctrinate II. VOCABULARY & STRUCTURE (20ms) * From, the four words of phrases A, B, C, or D, choose the one that best completes the sentences. 1. Geometry is the branch of mathematics ________ the properties of lines, curves, shapes, and surfaces. A. that concerned with B. it is concerned with C. its concerns are D. concerned with 2. ________, such as banking and travel, computers are not a convenience : they are necessity. A. Where some industries B. There are some industries C. In some industries D. Some industries 3. Not until the seventeenth century ________ to measure the speed of light A. anyone did even attempt B. did anyone even attempt C. even did anyone attempt C. did even attempt anyone 4. Copper is the favored metal for electricians‘ wire because of ________. A. its excellent conductivity B. it is an excellent conductor C. excellent conductivity of it D. so conductive is it 5. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next millennium, and ________ the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered as a technological hero. A. what the discovery of B. the discovery ofC. whoever discovers D. whose discovery of 6. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located ________ town A. a small Midwestern B. in small Midwestern C. small Midwestern D. in a small Midwestern 7. ________ is lubricated can affect the longevity of the moving parts that rub together A. How often a machine B. A machine often C. Often a machine D. How often machines 8. ________, an author probably most famous for his tales of terror, also dabbled in some science fiction A. Edgar Allen Poe B. To Edgar Allen Poe C. Edgar Allen Poe was D. For Edgar Allen Poe to be 9. Should ________ early injections against diseases, they might have a lower rock of infection in late preschool and early school age A. receive B. children‘s reception C. be receiving D. children receive 10. The period table contains all the elements, ________, has a particular atomic weight and atomic number A. which of each B. which each C. each of which D. each 11. His answer was so confused that I could hardly make any ________ of it at all. A. interpretation B. sense C. intelligibility D. meaning 12. He often about his expensive car. A. boasts B. shows C. praises D. prides 13. Conditions today didn‘t suit this jockey, but the course tomorrow should be much more to his ________. A. liking B. approval C. talent D. benefit 14. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to ________ a story. A. managed B. combine C. invent D. lie 15. The accused was given a short sentence as he had committed only a ________ offence. A. subordinate B. minor C. secondary D. minimal 16. After the theft of his car he put in an insurance ________ for $3.000. A. account B. invoice C. assessment D. claim 17. The Director‘s personality was undoubtedly a ________ in the company‘s success. A. feature B. cause C. factor D. characteristic 18. The train ________ the bay and then turned inland for twenty miles. A. skirted B. coasted C. edged D. sided 19. I heard the sound of the blind man ________ with his stick. A. creaking B. tapping C. patting D. ticking 20. This man is so arrogant that he is completely ________ to all criticism. A. unconscious B. unaware C. regardless D. impervious III. READ THE PASSAGE AND THE QUESTIONS OR UNFINISHED SENTENCES. THEN CHOOSE THE ANSWER - A, B, C, OR D - THAT YOU THINK FITS BEST.

Reading 1 The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quarter of extraordinarily talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold records. They inspired a frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally Lennon and five others formed a group called the Quarrymen in 1956, with McCartney joining them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and Paul McCartney, together with Stuart Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drums, performed together in several bands for a few years, until they finally settled on the Silver Beatles in 1960. American rock musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon‘s and McCartney‘s music, whose first hits consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, ―Love Me Do‖ and ―Please, Please Me‖. The Beatles‘ U.S. tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies Hard Day‘s Night and Help!, filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of the United States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles charts, followed by the release of the first film. During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to grow as the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in ―Nowhere man‖ and ―Eleanor Rigby‖. Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads ―Michelle‖ and ―Yesterday‖, which fully displayed the group‘s professional development and sophistication. Lennon‘s sardonic music with lyrics written in the first person, and McCartney‘s songs that created scenarios with off beat individuals, contributed to the character of the music produced by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles set a social trend that popularized long hair, Indian music, and mod dress. For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place in San Francisco in 1966. The newspaper and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits, and the much idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold those of any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form new groups, alone, none could achieve the recognition and success that they had been able to win together. 1. What does the passages mainly discuss? A. The history and music of the Beatles B. The history and milestones of rock music C. The fashion and music popular in the 1960s D. The creation and history of a music group 2. According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in 1956? A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven 3. According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent? A. John Lennon and Paul McCartney B. George Harrison and John Lennon C. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best D. John Lennon, Paul McCartney and George Harrison 4. According to the passage, the Beatles‘ fame grew as a result of A. competed with American musicians B. wrote their music as a group C. became polular relatively quickly D. were active in social movements 5. The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the Beatles A. became more complex than at the beginning of their career B. declined in quality and political significance C. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle D. made them the riches musicians in the world 6. The word ―acquired‖ in the line 20 is closest in meaning to A. imparted B. attached C. imprinted D. attained 7. According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success? A. In the late 1950s B. After their break-up in 1870 C. During the early and mid-1960s D. Throughout their lifetime 8. The word ―scenarios‖ in the line 28 is closest in meaning to A. sceneries B. situations C. life stories D. love themes 9. According to the passage, how did Lennon John and Paul McCartney enhance the music of the group? A. They struggled to reach stardom in the United States B. The composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads. C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles‘ repertoire D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular. 10. When did the much idolized group finally disband? A. in 1960 B. in 1966 C. in 1970 D. in 1975 Reading 2: In 776 B.C, the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greek‘s chief

God, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite military could participate at first, but later the game were open to all free Greek male who had no criminal record. The Greek emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contest is running, jumping, discus and javelling throwing, boxing and horse and chariot racing were held individual cities, and .the winner competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winner were greatly honoured by having olive wreaths placed on the heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Original these contests were held as games of friendship, and any war in progress were halted to allow the game to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented. The Greeks attached so much importance to the Games that they calculated time in four-year cycles called ―Olympiads‖ dating from 776 B.C. The contests coincided with religious festivities and constituded an all-out effort on the part of the participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but also to the cities they represented. 1. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads B. The games were held in Greece every four years. C. Battle were interrupted to participate in the games. D. Poems glorified the winner in song. 2. In line 5, the word ‗‗lite‖ is closest in meaning to A. aristocracy B. brave C. intellectuals D. muscular 3. Why were the Olympics held? A. To stop way. B. To honour Zeus. C. To crown the best athletes D. To sing songs about athletes. 4. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate? A. 800 years. B. 1,200 years. C. 2,300 years. D. 2,800 years. 5. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greek? A. They are pacifists B. They believed athletic events were important. C. They were very simple D. They couldn‘t count, so they used ―Olympiads‖ for the dates. 6. What is the main idea of this passage? A. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war when the games were over. B. The Greeks severely punished those who did not participate in physical fitness programs. C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games. D. Physical fitness was an integral part of the. lives of the ancient Greeks. 7. In line 13, the word ―deeds‖ is closest in meaning to A. accomplishments B. ancestors C. documents D. property 8. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the Olympics? A. They must have completed military service. B. They had to attend special training sessions. C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record. D. They had to be religious. 9. In line 14, the word ―halted‖ means most nearly the same as A. encouraged B. started C. curtailed D. fixed 10. What is an ―Olympiad‖? A. The time it took to finish the game B. The time between games. C. The time it took to finish a war D. The time it took the athletes to train. IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10ms) Sydney is an important commerical, industria; and tourist centre on the south-east (1) ________ of Australia. It is Australia‘s larhest city, with the population of more than three million. It now (2) ________ about 350 square miles. The city has many famous (3) ________. The harbour is one of the largest and most beautiful places in the world, and Sydney Harbour Bridge or ―The Coat Hanger‖ as the people of Sydney (4) ________ it - has been a great (5) ________ attraction for many years. However, the most famous sight here nowadays is the Opera House. Some people think it is one of the most beautiful modern buildings in the world. Sydney is a very modern city, but it also has many places of historical (6) ________. In the areas called the Rock and Paddington, for example, you can still see some of the first houses that were (7) ________ built here. For (8) ________, there is a lot to enjoy in Sydney. The city has many restaurants, theaters, cinemas and

nightclubs. There is also a zoo and a Koala Bear Oark. Some of the best beaches in Australia are here, too. Surfing is the most popular (9) ________ in Sydney. In fact, there are so many surfers in the city that you have to register surfboards here (10) ________ you have to register motor cars. 1. A. beach B. shore C. coast D. edge 2. A. occupies B. takes C. requires D. covers 3. A. views B. scenes C. sceneries D. sights 4. A. know B. call C. name D. descibe 5. A. tour B. traveller C. tourism D. tourist 6. A. importance B. attention C. interesting D. meaning 7. A. being B. ever C. yet D. already 8. A. entertainment B. amusement C. fun D. recreation 9. A. event B. sport C. activity D. pastime 10. A. just as B. like C. so D. as long as B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES / FORMS (10MS) 1. Where do you think Mai is today? I don‘t know. She (sleep) ________ late. 2. Her (get) ________ sick was not expected. . 3. She took a risk investing money with them. I‘d rather she (not do) ________ it. 4. The boy‘s eyes were red because he (cry) ________. 5. Is it oblligatory that the voyage (cancel) ________? 6. On the first of next month, he (be) ________ in prison for five years. 7. Tom was pleased (admit) ________ to the college. 8. It is important that he (try) ________ to get some sleep. 9. He (go) ________ to the last meeting, but he didn‘t. 10. If there aren‘t any tickets left when we reach the front of the queue, we (wait) ________ all the time for nothing. II. FILL IN EACH OF THE BLANKS WITH AN APPROPRIATE PREPOSITION OR PARTICLE. 1. I didn‘t know what to say. I was ________ a loss for words. 2. I think you should turn ________ early tonight, you look really tired. 3. It looks as if the rain has set ________ for the rent of the day. 4. We have to go by car. We can‘t take the bus ________ account ________ the strike. 5. Have you missed those twins? Curiously enough, they look poles ________. 6. I‘m just not prepares to put ________ your inefficiency any longer. 7. My mother never gives anyone a tip ________ principle. 8. Tom‘s leaving. Why don‘t you put ________ for his job? 9. ________ my astonishment, I was the only person in the bar. 10. Stop wasting time! Get to my office ________ the double. III. WORD FORMS 1. David would never ________ hurt his friend‘s feelings. (KNOW) 2. Deafness and blindness are examples of a physical ________. (ABLE) 3. The incident left him with feelings of anger and ________. (BITTER) 4. They are very ________ people, so the bad language in that film is unlikely to offend them. (MIND) 5. He must be drunk. He is making ________ remarks. (NONSENSE) 6. There was a donation of $100,000 made by an anonymous ________. (BENEFIT) 7. We trust his design ________. (IMPLY) 8. Human beings are the worst ________ on earth. (POLLUTE) 9. I was given some morphine to ________ the pain. (DIE) 10. They‘re definiely ________. I know how you can get them for half the price down the road. (PRICE) IV. FROM THE FOUR UNDERLINE WORDS OF PHRASES A, B, C OF D, IDENTIFY THE ONE THAT IS NOT CORRECT. (10MS) 1. A fossil skull estimated to be over nine million years old was unearthed (A) in the fall of 1989 (B) and thought to be earliest known example (C) of a hominid (D). 2. Chicago‘s Sear Tower, now (A) the taller (B) building in the world, rises (C) 1.522 feet from the ground to the top of (D) its antenna 3. Vitamin E, which is found (A) in nutritious (B) foods such as green vegetables and the whole grains,

action (C) as an antioxidant in cell membranes (D). 4. James Dickey‘s first poem was published (A) during (B) he was still (C) a senior in (D) college. 5. The world‘s rain (A) forests are being (B) cut down at the rate on (C) 3,000 acres per hour (D). 6. Many (A) environmentalists fear (B) that the earth will run out essential (C) natural resources before (D) the end of the twentieth century. 7. The discovered (A) of gold in (B) California in 1848 led to (C) the Gold Rush of (D) 1849 8. In reality (A), all biological reproductive (B) begins (C) at the cellular (D) level 9. In just (A) three months H.G Wells wrote (B) the famous (C) classic The Time Machine for what (D) he won a Newberry Caldecot award. 10. Psychology Today is interesting (A), informative (B), and it is (C) easy to read (D). V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10ms) * Choose the correct word or phrase for each space from the list below. Agriculture is the world‘s most important industry. It provides us with ________ (1) all our food. It also ________ (2) materials for two other basic human needs - clothing and shelter ________ (3), agriculture provides materials ________ (4) in making many industrial products, such as paints and medicines. About haft the world‘s workers are employed in agriculture-far more than in ________ (5) industry. Agriculture is one of the world‘s oldest industries. It began about 10,000 years ago in the Middle East ________ (6) that time, certain Middle Eastern tribes had discovered how to grow plants form seeds and how to raise animals in captivity. Having mastered these skills, they could begin to practice agriculture. Before the development of agriculture, people got all their food by gathering wild plants, hunting, and fishing. They had to search for food continually, ________ (7) left them little time for other activities. But as agriculture developed and farm ________ (8) increased, fewer people were needed to produce food. The non-farmers could then develop the arts, crafts, trades, and other activities of civilized-life. Agriculture ________ (9) not only greatly ________ (10) food supply but also made civilization possible. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20ms) 1. The collision didn‘t damage my car much. Not a great ________________________________________________________________ . 2. What has this experience taught you? What conclusions ___________________________________________________________ . 3. To pass the time, I looked through some magazines. I whiled __________________________________________________________________ . 4. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh. The very __________________________________________________________________ . 5. That young man used to be a drug addict. (MONKEY) _________________________________________________________________________ . 6. That guy was a secret enemy. (SNAKE) _________________________________________________________________________ . 7. He‘s got a hoarse voice. (FROG) _________________________________________________________________________ . 8. The new science building should soon be finished, (way) _________________________________________________________________________ . 9. The new musical has delight theatre audiences throughout the country, (storm) _________________________________________________________________________ . 10. It is rather early for us to make any definite plans, (stage) _________________________________________________________________________ .

PRACTICE TEST 31 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY * Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. 1. A. analyst B. attraction C. sandal D. sample 2. A. emperor B. imperial C. event D. festival 3. A. smooth B. good C. tooth D. food 4. A. possessed B. opposed C. pleased D. closed 5. A. yards B. youths C. months D. mouths * Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the others in each group.

6. A. photography B. rectangular C. politician D. significance 7. A. atmosphere B. engineer C. volunteer D. chimpanzee 8. A. historic B. electric C. dynamic D. politic 9. A. indoors B. backwards C. forwards D. sideways 10. A. prerequisite B. academy C. respiration D. advertisement II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE * Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences 1. Now that she is trained, she hopes to earn her living as a ________ in an office. A. typewriter B. personnel C. clerk D. staff 2. If you are going to Italy next week, could you please ________ this present to my family? A. fetch B. bear C. bring D. take 3. His laziness at work made him ________ with his workmates. A. improper B. disliked C. unpopular D. unappealing 4. The taxi drew ________ at the gate promptly at six o‘clock. A. up B. along C. outside D. over 5. When she looked in her purse she found she had been ________. A. broken B. thieved C. stolen D. robbed 6. My sister is an expert on wildlife and its ________. A. conserve B. preserve C. reservation D. conservation 7. After his father‘s death, he ________ from Australia to France to find work. A. transited B. emigrated C. migrated D. went 8. ________ cars usually have special and unique things that the owners wish to have. They are certainly more expensive. A. Man-made B. Custom-made C. Well-kept D. Well-dressed 9. Hardly had the van turned round the corner when one of the back wheels ________. A. broke away B. turned out C. came off D. rolled down 10. No one can visit her because she has a very ________ disease. A. intoxicating B. contagious C. corporal D. exasperating 11. In Michigan, ________ over 600 feet deep. A. salt deposits B. where salt deposits are C. having salt deposits D. there are salt deposits 12. ________ invisible to the unaided eye, ultraviolet light can be detected in a number of ways. A. Although is B. Despite C. Even though it D. Although 13. ________ was caused by breathing impure air was once a common belief. A. Malaria B. That malaria C. Why malaria D. Because malaria 14. Roger Williams was a clergyman, ________ he colony of Rhode Island, and an outspoken advocate of religious and political freedom. A. founded B. the founder of C. was the founder of D. he founded 15. Aerodynamics is the study of the forces ________ on an object as it moves through the atmosphere. A. acting B. act C. are acting D. acted 16. ________ at home requires only three types of chemicals, several pieces of simple equipment, and running water. A. For the development of film B. To develop film C. When film is developed D. In developing film 17. The bark of a tree thickens ________. A. with age B. it gets older C. as older D. by age 18. Not until the seventeenth century ________ to measure the speed of light. A. did anyone even attempt B. anyone did even attempt C. did anyone attempt even D. did even attempt anyone 19. Paint is ________ used to protect wood. A. not only the substance B. the substance which is not only C. not only a substance which is D. not the only substance 20. Widely reproduced in magazines and books, ________. A. Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness in his photographs B. the Western wilderness was depicted in the photographs of Ansel Adams C. Ansel Adams‘ photographs depicted the Western wilderness D. it was through his photographs that Ansel Adams depicted the Western wilderness

III. READING COMPREHENSION * Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions. THE RIVERS OF THE AMAZON There are three different types of rivers associated with the Amazon rainforest. Of course, these types exist elsewhere in the world, yet, in the Amazon, they are most distinct. They are classified as whitewater, clearwater, and blackwater rivers, and each displays elements that make it ecologically distinct from the others. Clearly, one of the main reasons they have been named as such is due to the qualities of their appearance, but there are also fundamental differences in everything from their water consistency to abundance or lack of organisms within each type of river. While whitewater and blackwater rivers occupy areas on the floor of the forest at minimal elevations, clearwater rivers tend to be present at higher elevations in mountainous regions. Still, each contributes in its own way to one of the most diverse ecosystems on the planet, the Amazon. The clearwater rivers of the Amazon region, also called bluewater rivers, are noted for their crystal-clear water and are typically found flowing through the rocks of the highlands and at upper elevations. One of the main reasons why the waters are so clear is that the rocks they flow through and over are extremely old, making erosion by the river waters difficult. This lack of erosion lends to a lack of sediment in the water and its more transparent nature. Clearwater rivers are also much swifter than whitewater or blackwater rivers due to their abrupt changes in gradients. Overall, clearwater rivers have a very high mineral content, which allows plant life as well as algae to proliferate. Because of the abundance of algae, many other types of species of fish are able to thrive as well. A second major type of river found in the Amazon is the whitewater river. The formidable Amazon River itself is in this class. Ironically, whitewater rivers are usually light-chocolate colored and have extremely low visibility because they contain heavy loads of sediment. Two of the main causes of their high sediment content are the natural erosion of the river basin itself as well as the deforestation of the rainforest. As deforestation continues, soil is no longer anchored by the roots of vegetation and trees and is instead washed into the river during the heavy rains that frequent the rainforest. Still, whitewater rivers are inherently rich in nutrients and therefore support numerous types of aquatic organisms. In contrast to clearwater rivers, whitewater rivers such as the Amazon tend to flow much more slowly because of the low gradients involved. For example, the Amazon itself experiences only a 107-meter change in elevation from Peru to its mouth, a distance that covers over about 3,219 kilometers. The final major type of river in the Amazon is known as a blackwater river, of which the Rio Negro in Brazil is a prime example and also the largest in the world. Blackwater rivers are the most common type in the Amazon. They exhibit a deep, dark brown color due to the decomposition of leaves and vegetation in the waters. Most vegetation contains the chemical tannin, which is released into blackwater rivers as it begins to decompose. Blackwater rivers have excellent water clarity due to their highly acidic nature, which also benefits the river in a couple of other ways. A high acid content is an excellent trait for a river to have because it keeps the river clean and, in many ways, more sanitary than others. The acid kills parasites and bacteria which can threaten fish populations, as well as insect larvae such as that of mosquitoes, reducing the spread of dangerous diseases such as malaria. While the Amazon is a highly diverse ecosystem, one of the reasons this is so is due to the different types of river systems within it. The Amazon is the main vein, and most blackwater and clearwater rivers are estuaries or branches of it until they finally link at certain points along the Amazon‘s main route. For example, the Amazon and the Rio Negro finally meet at Manaus, Brazil, and, once they do, their distinct ecosystems are combined to form an even more complex river system of life and water quality until it eventually empties into the ocean. 1. In paragraph 1, the author‘s description of the major types of Amazon rivers mentions which of the following? A. They are classified by what is able to exist in them. B. They are determined by their length and breadth. C. They are unique only to the area of the Amazon. D. They are all located at altitudes at or beneath sea level. 2. The word ―transparent‖ in the 2nd passage is closest in meaning to A. veneered B. refreshing C. glassy D. beneficial 3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about clearwater rivers? A. Their water is not really as clear as their name implies. B. They flow at a slower pace than blackwater rivers. C. There is not much algae present in clearwater rivers. D. They do not exist on more level areas in the Amazon.

4. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true of clearwater rivers? A. They eventually connect with the Amazon River itself. B. They have very high levels of nutrients and minerals. C. They have enough sediment for algae to multiply. D. They often occur where ancient stones or boulders are present. 5. The author discusses ―natural erosion‖ in paragraph 3 in order to A. indicate the types of threats the Amazon region faces B. relate why whitewater rivers are not as clear as some others C. show how deforestation contributes little to whitewater rivers D. suggest that sediment is not the main cause of the color of rivers 6. According to paragraph 3, deforestation is a negative factor in the Amazon because A. too many trees are cut down, never to grow back B. valuable soil is washed away into the rivers C. other species of animals will not have a natural habitat D. rivers become more erosive without strong boundaries 7. The word ―inherently‖ in the passage is closest in meaning to A. partially B. subsequently C. naturally D. externally 8. According to paragraph 4, blackwater rivers are named so because A. they lack the necessary nutrients needed to produce life B. they are in direct contrast to the two other types of river C. they are colored by the decomposition of vegetation D. they are the most common type of river in the Amazon 9. The word it in the passage refers to A. vegetation B. chemical C. tannin D. rivers 10. The word vein in the passage is closest in meaning to A. clasp B. diversion C. appendage D. thread * Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions. Of all the deserts in North America, the Sonorant desert is the largest, covering an area of 120,000 square miles of strange and remarkable beauty. Part of the desert stretched over southwest Arizona, part over southeast California and the rest over northwest Mexico. Somewhat surprisingly, 80% of Arizona‘s population lives in the desert area, in towns such as Tucson and Phoenix, although this unique area only accounts for 20% of Arizona‘s total territory. Temperatures in summer rarely fall below 100 Fahrenheit, while the winters are never really cold. The desert area has a very low annual rainfall in comparison to other parts of Arizona, where there might be three or four times as much rain in a year. Water, therefore, has to be taken from the ground or from several rivers that cross the desert. The region was inhabited by Native American groups for hundreds of years before the Spaniards came in the 15‘n century and colonized a large part of the desert area. Now you can see the remains of one early Native American civilization, the Hokokam tribe, who created permanent villages and a fairly advanced system of canals to carry water for their crops. The desert area is remarkable for its cacti, the main form of vegetation that can exist in such inhospitable conditions. There is also an amazing variety of wildflowers which seem to come up overnight after the winter rains, only to disappear in the first heat of spring. Animals that live in the desert include lizards, the desert tortoises, rattlesnakes and small mammals such as mice, squirrels, rabbits, coyotes and mountain lions. So come and join us for a true wilderness experience in the Sonorant desert-an unforgettable adventure! There is nothing quite like the desert sky full of stars to remind you of that whole universe out there. 11. Where does this passage mostly come from? A. A book about North American history B. A travel guide book C. A brochure advertising unusual holidays D. An introduction to Native American civilizations 12. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A desert with severe weather conditions B. Living conditions in a desert C. An invitation to a beautiful place D. The appeal of a place despite its terrible climatic situation 13. In the first paragraph, why does the author say ―surprisingly‖? A. Because so many people live in the desert area of Arizona B. Because the desert takes up 80% of Arizona C. Because Arizona only has two main towns D. Because Arizona‘s population is so small

14. In the first paragraph, what is the meaning of ―territory‖? A. rivers B. land area C. soil D. mountains 15. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a source of water on the desert nowadays? A. Natural rain B. Ground water C. Natural rivers D. Canals 16. In the history of the Sonorant desert, ________. A. Native American always moved around in the area B. the Spaniards created fixed settlements in the area C. the Hokokam people were only present after the 15th century D. a Native American group used a special system for watering the plants 17. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ―inhospitable in paragraph 3? A. impossible B. unhappy C. harsh‘ D. having no hospitals 18. It can be inferred from the passage that, ________. A. lizards are the main species that live in the desert B. rattlesnakes have very strong living instincts C. mice cannot give birth to babies D. coyotes feed their babies with grass or meat 19. What is the main impression that the author gives of the desert area? A. There isn‘t much to do apart from studying the animals B. It‘s a fascinating place. C. It‘s only interesting because of the towns that are there. D. It‘s a good place to do scientific research. 20. What sort of people would probably like to visit the Sonorant desert? A. Shy and reserved B. Careful and economical C. Generous and friendly D. Active and adventurous IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST * Choose the word that best completes each of the blanks in the following passage. LEARNING AT A DISTANCE The idea of distance learning has been in (1) ________ for a long time. In recent years, due to the rapid advances in computer technology, an extremely adapt able method of study has evolved around this idea. Distance learning is becoming increasingly popular with students, and the (2) ________ of today‘s university population is changing as a result. For students whose chosen university is beyond daily travelling distance, studying online using what is known as e-learning is an attractive (3) ________ because it enables them to complete a degree without the expense of paying for accommodation in the (4) ________ of their place of study. Similarly, parents at home bringing up young children can take advantage of this flexible method of study because web-based support materials can (5) ________ with any individual time schedule. Initially, as e-learning grew in popularity, there was a certain amount of (6) ________ amongst university tutors, who feared that students studying in the isolation of their own home might be (7) ________ of daily contact with their fellow students, something they regarded as an important aspect of a university education. It soon became (8) ________, however, that e-learning can actually improve communication, through the creation of so-called ―discussion boards‖, where the students submit their questions online, making them readily (9) ________ to all. This system encourages a lively exchange of opinions between students, and it also means that the tutor‘s response to each query is immediately available to a wide (10) ________. Nevertheless, it is recognised that human support is still a key factor in the learning experience, and on most distance-learning courses, students are provided with face-to-face contact at some point. 1. A. actually B. continuity C. existence D. duration 2. A. proportion B. composition C. arrangement D. alignment 3. A. favourite B. selection C. preference D. option 4. A. whereabouts B. situation C. vicinity D. precincts 5. A. fit in B. put in C. stay in D. go in 6. A. concern B. trouble C. worry D. attention 7. A. deducted B. deprived C. denied D. deleted 8. A. distinct B. conspicuous C. evident D. straightforward 9. A. allowable B. applicable C. achievable D. accessible 10. A. audience B. assembly C. reception D. following B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES / FORMS * Supply the correct tense or form of the verb in brackets.

1. Father (1-pay) ________ a deposit on the car, but then he (2-tell) ________ that already (3-promise) ________ to someone else. 2. It (4-not be) ________ for the helmet, more motorcyclists (5-kill) ________. 3. (6-tell) ________ about the dangers of mountain-climbing, the boys prepared themselves for the worst. 4. He complained of (7-order) ________ to stay behind. 5. It was clever of you (8-think) ________ up such a plan. 6. She (9-know) ________, she (10-not/provoke) ________ them. II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS * Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. 1. I have already told Joe that I won‘t go to Spain with him, but he‘s still trying to talk me ________. 2. ________ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria. 3. Grandfather must be tired. He‘s nodding ________ in his chair. 4. Children should not talk ________ to their parents. 5. I saw Reto‘s mom lay ________ him when he came home late last night. 6. His name was Benjamin, but he was called Ben ________ short. 7. The applause died ________ after 5 minutes. 8. A shortage of money has forced them to scale ________ the project. 9. Feel free to jump ________ at any moment while we are talking. 10. He accepted my advice ________ reservation. III. WORD FORM * Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the words in brackets. 1. The audience was rather (warm) ________ about the play. 2. Tonight‘s programme is a(n) (deep) ________ look at the long-term effects of unemployment. 3. To a(n) (side) ________, it may appear to be a glamorous job. 4. Early colonists (slave) ________ and oppressed the natives. 5. Her style (example) ________ modern Italian cooking at its best. 6. The article gives us a few interesting (side) ________ on life in Japan in general. 7. You should make a list of all the jobs you have to do and (prior) ________ them. 8. He behaves badly to his wife; he is a (boil) ________. 9. She reacted angrily to my (intend) ________ remarks. 10. Pluto is said to be the (out) planet of the solar system. IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * There are ten errors in the passage. Find and correct them. The first one has done as an example. Example: amazed → THE SAHARA MARATHON amazing One of the most amazed marathon races in the world is the Marathon of _______________ the Sands. It takes places every April in the Sahara Desert in the south of _______________ Morocco, a part of the world when temperatures can reach fifty degrees _______________ centigrade. The standard length of the marathon is 42.5 kilometres but this _______________ one is 240 kilometres long and spends seven days to complete. It began in _______________ 1986 and now attracts about two hundred runners, the majority of their _______________ ages range from seventeen to forty-seven. About half of them come from _______________ France and the rest to all over the world. From Britain it costs £2,500 to _______________ enter, this includes return air fares. The race is rapidly getting more and _______________ more popular despite, and perhaps because of, the harsh conditions that _______________ runners must endure. They have to carry food and something else they need _______________ for seven days in a rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In _______________ addition to this, they are given a litre and a half of water every ten _______________ kilometres. Incredibly, near all the runners finish the course. One man, _______________ Ibrahim El Joual, took part in every race from 1986 to 2004. Runners do _______________ suffer terrible physical hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin _______________ peels on their foot. However, doctors are always on hand to deal with _______________ minor injuries and to make sure that runners do not push themselves too _______________ far. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST * Fill each gap in the passage with ONE suitable word.

ANIMAL IMPRINTING Imprinting is a learning mechanism (1) ________ occurs early in the life of certain animal. It is (2) ________ this process that they develop a positive (3) ________ to members of their own species. No sooner do young birds hatch than they must learn to recognize their mother in (4) ________ to be able to follow and keep close to her for their safety. Should this process go (5) ________ newly-hatched chicks face the risk of becoming lost, and may come to harm. Given that they possess a high level of (6) ________ it would be difficult for the mother to keep the chicks together (7) ________ the assistance of imprinting. The process can take really a (8) ________ of minutes. The first large moving object the chicks see will automatically become ―mother‖. In normal (9) ________ of course, she really is their mother, but under the experimental conditions, it can be almost anything. For instance, if the moving object happens to be an orange balloon on a piece of string, then the balloon becomes ―mother‖. So powerful is this imprinting process that even after a few days, and (10) ________ the presence of their real mother, the chicks will choose the balloon. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. 1. Most of the problems arose because there was no leadership on the committee. It was the _________________________________________________________________ 2. You have to be very patient to work as a primary school teacher these days. Working as a primary school teacher calls _______________________________________________________________ 3. If you want to save your eyesight, we must operate immediately. Only by___________________________________________________________________ 4. For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above ____________address. Further information can ______________________________________________________ 5. Pauline isn‘t one of the people who knows the secret. Pauline hasn‘t been let in _____________________________________________________ * Rewrite each of the following sentences with the word given. Do not change the word given. 6. Sam was really anxious, waiting to see if he had got a place in the cricket team. (TENTERHOOKS) _________________________________________________________________________ 7. We want to breathe new life into this project. (REJUVENATE) _________________________________________________________________________ 8. I think people who help the old, sick and homeless are very honest people. (SALT) _________________________________________________________________________ 9. If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you‘ve got skill in gardening. (FINGERS) _________________________________________________________________________ 10. There is a considerable number of choices on offer in this brochure. (ARRAY) _________________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 32 PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY: (10 ms) A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. ragged B. blessed C. sacred D. harassed 2. A. prayer B. player C. layer D. mayor 3. A. liberty B. liberation C. brilliant D. primary 4. A. upon B. unless C. until D. undone 5. A. bovine B. sew C. project D. only B. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other words in the group. 1. A. commence B. email C. conquer D. creature 2. A. internet B. ignorant C. chameleon D. momentary 3. A. peninsula B. relativism C. legitimacy D. perpetuate 4. A. metropolis B. sanitary C. interview D. architecture 5. A. bigoted B. descendant C. nutritious D. artistic II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE 1. I was ________ by his lack of intelligence. I couldn‘t believe anyone could be so stupid. A. shattered B. staggered C. speechless D. startled 2. After much debate, he reached a ________. A. manifestation B. consensus C. precision D. cohesion 3. ________ orangutans live alone.

A. Near all B. Almost all C. The all D. The most 4. We asked him to go back, but he insisted on watching the sun coming down at ________. A. sunrise B. dawn C. dusk D. twilight 5. I don‘t suppose you like pineapple, ________? A. do I B. do you C. don‘t I D. don‘t you 6. Many children who get into trouble in their early teens go on to become ________ offenders. A. consistent B. insistent C. persistent D. resistant 7. Broadly ________, learning a foreign language is interesting, but not easy. A. spoken B. speaking C. to speak D. being spoken 8. Written to be performed on a ________, Thornton Wilder‘s play ―Our Town‖ depicts life in a small New England community. A. stage scenery of bare B. scenery bare of stage C. stage bare of scenery D. bare of stage scenery 9. When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of ________. A. comparison B. Relativity C. proportion D. introspection 10. Not until Kentucky‘s Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ________. A. when was its full extent realized B. the realization of its full extent C. was its full extent realized D. that its full extent was realized 11. The food was so delicious that I had a second ________. A. plate B. serving C. helping D. time 12. He dropped ________ and the coffee spilt all over the carpet. A. a coffee cup B. a cup of coffee C. a coffee‘s cup D. a cup‘s coffee 13. Primitive people lived very healthily. They drank ________ water and breathed fresh air. A. fresh B. pure C. clear D. boiled 14. Napoleon III eventually landed in England ________. A. not only as a dethroned exile B. but only as a dethroned exile. C. but a dethroned exile D. but being only a dethroned exile 15. No matter how angry he was, he would never ________ to violence. A. resort B. recourse C. exert D. resolve 16. The complaints he received were like water off a duck‘s ________. A. back B. wings C. feather D. head 17. My mother often ________ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for even the slightest one. A. passes B. neglects C. avoids D. overlooks 18. Jim ________ care of himself. He left home when he was 16 and has been on his own since then. A. used to take B. is used to take C. is used to taking D. used to be taken 19. The change in timetable will ________ many students having to catch an earlier bus. A. mean B. lead C. result D. cause 20. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else‘s point of view. He is very ________. A. open-minded B. kind-hearted C. narrow-minded D. absent-minded III. READING COMPREHENSION‟: (20 MS) A. Reading 1 (10 ms) Archaeological records-paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the use of hands-indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is depicted as the dominant one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were righthanded. Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro- Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers. Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in toolmaking: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a righthanded toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker). Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users‘ teeth. Scratches made with a left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-

handers). Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo Sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are. 1. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools. B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use. C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million years. D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modem humans. 2. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands? A. Some are not very old B. It is unusual to see such paintings. C. Many were made by children D. The artists were mostly right-handed 3. The word ―depicted‖ in line 3 is closest in meaning to . A. written B. portrayed C. referred D. mentioned 4. When compared with implements ―flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation‖ (line 14), it can be inferred that ―implements flaked with a clockwise motion‖ (lines 13) are ________. A. more common B. larger C. more sophisticated D. older 5. The word ―cranial morphology‖ in line 18 is closest in meaning to ―________‖. A. the form of crane B. the form of body C. the study of physical bodies D. the study of skulls 6. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because ________. A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by modern knives D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools 7. The word ―hemispheres‖ in line 20 is closest in meaning to A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies 8. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Homo habilis in line 22? A. To contrast them with modern humans. B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools. C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right-handed. D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large. 9. All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT ________. A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones 10. Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial morphology (line 18)? A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently. B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain‘s hemispheres. C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals. D. Variation between the brain‘s hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Homo erectus and Homo habilis. B. Reading 2 (10 ms) In the late eighteenth century, battles raged in almost every corner of Europe, as well as in the Middle East, South Africa, the West Indies, and Latin America. In reality, however, there was only one major war during this time, the war between Britain and France. All other battles were ancillary to this larger conflict, and were often at least partially related to its antagonists‟ goals and strategies. France sought total domination of Europe. This goal was obstructed by British independence and Britain‘s efforts throughout the continent to thwart Napoleon; through treaties, Britain built coalitions (not dissimilar in concept to today‘s NATO) guaranteeing British participation in all major European conflicts. These two antagonists were poorly matched, insofar as they had very unequal strengths: France was predominant on land, Britain at sea. The French knew that, short of defeating the British navy, their only hope of victory was to close all the ports of Europe to British ships. Accordingly, France set out to overcome Britain by extending its military domination from Moscow to Lisbon, from Jutland to Calabria. All of this entailed tremendous risk, because France did not have the military resources to control this much territory

and still protect itself and maintain order at home. French strategists calculated that a navy of 150 ships would provide the force necessary to defeat the British navy. Such a force would give France a three-to-two advantage over Britain. This advantage was deemed necessary because of Britain‘s superior sea skills and technology, and also because Britain would be fighting a defensive war, allowing it to win with fewer forces. Napoleon never lost sight of his goal, because Britain represented the last substantial impediment to his control of Europe. As his force neared that goal, Napoleon grew increasingly impatient and began planning an immediate attack. However, Britain anticipated Napoleon‘s imminent invasion and decided that its only hope was to take the offensive immediately. ―Napoleon,‖ the British general Wellington once observed,‖ never in his life had the patience for a defensive war.‖ Indeed, in all ventures Napoleon tried to take the offensive on all fronts, and at all costs. Had he earlier postponed the Russian expedition, for example, he might not only have conquered Russia, but might also have conserved enough power to command the continent. In the end, the British gambit succeeded, and Britain‘s sea power overwhelmed Napoleon‘s forces. 1. The main purpose of this passage is to ________. A. summarize the prelude to the naval conflict between France and England B. prove that Britain‘s superior‘ naval power was effective in conquering Europe C. demonstrate the futility of a land power trying to block ports effectively D. trace the history of social relations between England and France 2. The word ―ancillary‖ in line 3 is closest in meaning to ________. A. secondary B. central C. subsequent D. harmful 3. The word ―antagonists‖ in line 4 is closest in meaning to ―________‖. A. people B. enemies C. navies D. kings 4. According to the passage, France‘s ultimate goal during the wars was to ________. A. secure its borders, which were contested by neighbors B. protect Europe from British domination C. develop a stronger navy D. take control of the entire continent 5. According to the passage, the British army fought France ________. A. only at sea B. in almost all of France‘s European offensives C. only when Britain‘s borders were attacked D. in the West Indies and South Africa, but nowhere else 6. It can be inferred that France‘s efforts to close the continent‘s ports ________. A. guaranteed its later victory over Britain B. was entirely unattainable C. increased the chances of a successful rebellion at home D. required it to conquer South Africa as well 7. The word ―impediment‖ in line 20 is closest in meaning to A. comment B. Residue C. dismemberment D. obstacle 8. According to the passage, France believed a large advantage was necessary to defeat the British navy for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: ________. A. The British navy had superior sailors. B. The British were engaged in several other wars at the time. C. The British would be fighting defensively. D. The British possessed better ships and weaponry than did the French. 9. It can be inferred from the passage the British general Wellington ________. A. had no respect for Napoleon‘s skills as a general B. enjoyed gambling C. expected to gain an advantage by forcing Napoleon to fight defensively D. opposed Britain‘s participation in defense treaties with other European countries 10. The word ―gambit‖ in line 25 is closest in meaning to ―________‖. A. calculated risk B. virtual reality C. refreshing change D. dubious victory IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST: (10 MS) Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) ________ as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) ________ and tone of voice are obvious ways, of showing our reaction (3) ________ something, and it may well be that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (4) ________ lies in picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting (5) ________ they are not

embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact reluctant to answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate‘s character traits, and (6) ________ stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of (7) ________ such tests actually produce reliable results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an objectionable intrusion (8) ________ their private lives. After all, a prospective employer would hardly ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (9) ________ medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is (10) ________ to be a conscientious employee or a values colleague? Question 1: A. reckon B. rely C. trust D. estimate Question 2: A. expressiveness B. expressed C. expression D. expressive Question 3: A. for B. on C. with D. to Question 4: A. successful B. humble C. good at D. tactful Question 5: A. so that B. so C. as D. as if Question 6: A. psychological B. physical C. similar D. relevant Question 7: A. those B. whether C. that D. these Question 8: A. at B. in C. into D. on Question 9: A. confidential B. secretive C. reticent D. classified Question 10: A. bound B. eligible C. capable D. likely Part B: WRITTEN TEST I. SUPPLY THE SUITABLE TENSE OR FORM OF THE VERBS IN BRACKETS. (10 MS) 1. I proposed that the project ________ (complete) within a year. 2. She dedicated her life to ________ (work) for peace. 3. They wrote ________ (thank) us for the present. 4. The woodwork ________ (recently give) a fresh coat of paint. 5. Within minutes of ________ (introduce) they were chatting away like old friends. 6. He ________ (be) on the computer all morning, chatting with his friends. 7. Everyone is being very secretive-there‘s something ________ (cook). 8. It was an opportunity ________ (not miss) 9. Her head felt as if it ________ (burst). 10. I ________ (panic) when I saw smoke coming out of the engine II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS. (10 MS) 1. The concert was so popular that people who had not bought tickets in advance was turned ________. 2. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted came ________ a good answer. 3. I agree with most of what you said, but I can‘t go ________ your idea of letting children leave school at 14. 4. What chemical is this? It‘s giving ________ a horrible smell. 5. Learning English isn‘t so difficult once you get ________ it. 6. Venomous snakes have modified teeth connected ________ poison glands in which the venom is secreted and stored. 7. The effects of the anaesthetic wore ________ after a couple of hours. 8. The secretary was reduced ________ tears by the manager‘s behavior. 9. Owing to circumstances ________ our control, the flight to Rome has been cancelled. 10. The boss hasn‘t told me anything yet, but I think it‘s only the lull ________ storm. III. COMPLETE THE SENTENCES WITH THE CORRECT FORMS OF THE GIVEN WORDS. 1. ________ plays an important part in determining a person‘s character. (bring) 2. Age and experience will be ________ factors in our choice of candidate. (determine) 3. There has been a further small ________ against the dollar. (value) 4. Parents‘ natural desire to protect their children should be ________ by the child‘s need for independence. (balance) 5. Marv‘s death is listed as ―Death by ________‖ which means he was not where he was supposed to be. (adventure) 6. The whistle was ________ to the human ear. (audio) 7. ________ musicians or sports players are paid for what they do, but do not do it as their main job. (profession)

8. He and fell into the water. (balance) 9. A ________ is a flag which has three bands of different colours, especially the French and Irish national flags. (color) 10. I have just seen a ________ with her newly-born cubs. (wolf) IV. FIND TEN MISTAKES AND CORRECT THEM: (10 MS) Edwin Hubble was an American astronomer who research led to discoveries about galaxies and the nature of the universe. He settled a long debate by demonstrating that the Andromeda nebula located outside our galaxy, establishing the islands universe theory, which states that galaxies exist outside of our own. His study of the distribution of galaxies resulted from Hubble‘s Constant, a standard relationship between a galaxy distance from the earth and its speed of recession. In 1925, Hubble had devised a classification system for the structure of galaxies and provided conclusively observational evidence for the expansion of the universe. His work pushed the one-hundredinch Mount Wilson telescope beyond its capability and provided strong impetus for the construction of an instrument twice of its size at Mount Palomar, which Hubble used during her last years of research. The telescope that bears his name was launched on a space shuttle in 1990 and orbits the earth, collecting datum about the size of the universe. 1. _________→_________ 2. _________→_________ 3. _________→_________ 4. _________→_________ 5. _________→_________ 6. _________→_________ 7. _________→_________ 8. _________→_________ 9. _________→_________ 10. _________→_________ V. OPEN CLOZE TEST: (10 MS) In Canada in addition (1) ________ calls for a more diverse student body and faculty, many educators and students advocate a more diverse undergraduate curriculum at colleges and universities. Arguing that traditional college curriculums (2) ________ too much on the history and culture of white males, they (3) ________ a more multicultural curriculum that does not ignore women and minority cultures. (4) ________ contend that advocates of a multicultural curriculum are constrained by their own narrow ideological perspectives, and (5) ________ they have disdain for traditional moral, intellectual, andaesthetic judgment. These traditionalists argue (6) ________ an undergraduate curriculum that emphasizes a core of knowledge that lies within the Western (7) ________ tradition. Most colleges and (8) ________ in the United States and Canada offer some courses (9) ________ focus on traditional Western culture in addition to others that (10) ________ multicultural themes. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION: (20 MS) 1. I ________ beg you, in a sincere way, to spare his life. (heart) →I beg you, from___________________________________________ , to spare his life. 2. The banking world was changing minute by minute. (wind) → _________________________________ was blowing through the banking world. 3. The climber nearly died when they found him →The climber was on _______________________________________________________ 4. It seems some students are absent today. →We seem to______________________________________________________________ 5. We will punish the culprit of the crime. →Those responsible_________________________________________________________ 6. I‘m not a fool to believe that. →I‘m not so _______________________________________________________________ 7. She has to run away for fear that he may one day kill her. →In case _________________________________________________________________ 8. She had the impression that someone was dogging her steps, →She was ________________________________________________________________ 9. The government must be seen to be completely honest and morally good. (white) →The government must be seen _______________________________________________ 10. Even now, I still don‘t understand why he did it. (day) → ____________________________________ I still don‘t understand why he did it.

PRACTICE TEST 33 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS I. PHONOLOGY (10 points) * Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. (5 points) 1. A. modal B. model C. modest D. modern 2. A. beard B. cheer C. heard D. weird 3. A. cue B. hue C. queue D. suede 4. A. brooch B. mould C. proud D. shoulder 5. A. issue B. passion C. tissue D. vessel * Choose the word which has the stressed syllable in different position from the others.(5points) 1. A. diagram B. diagonal C. diaper D. diamond 2. A. citizen B. circular C. citadel D. civilian 3. A. confident B. continue C. contention D. contain 4. A. resentment B. recompense C. reconcile D. recognize 5. A. appreciate B. arbitrary C. appetite D. arable II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE: CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE WHICH BEST COMPLETES EACH SENTENCE 1. A person who has drunk too much alcohol would ________. A. stagger B. swagger C. tramp D. prowl 2. It takes roughly 4,000 pounds of petals to make a single pound of rose oil. A. as much as B. amazingly C. more or less D. relatively 3. Six novels a year, you say? He‘s certainly a ________ writer. A. fruitful B. fertile C. virile D. prolific 4. The party‘s election ________ proved to be successful. A. campaign B. movement C. struggle D. fight 5. No one appreciated his work during his lifetime, but ________ it is clear that he is a great artist. A. in the aftermath B. by the time C. in retrospect D. in this eventuality 6. Who would take the Hippocratic oath? A. a barrister B. a priest C. a doctor D. a soldier 7. Nations that live in concord are nations that live together in peace. A. war B. harmony C. conformity D. happiness 8. ________ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria. A. on B. In C. With D. By 9. My passport ________ last month, so I will have to get a new one. A. elapsed B. expired C. ended D. terminated 10. I am never free on Tuesday evening as I have a ________ arrangement to go to the cinema with a friend. A. long - standing B. long lived C. long-range D. long - lasting 11. This school has the highest ________ standards in the area. A. learning B. intelligence C. academic D. study 12. They are ________ to be married next year. A. planned B. prepared C. intended D. engaged 13. The general was always ________ about his campaigns. A. praising B. congratulating C. complimenting D. boasting 14. The room was ________ of strangers. A. full B. complete C. replete D. filled 15. Prices are very ________ these days. A. big B. expensive C. increased D. high 16. In Britain the ________ on a letter is now twelve pence. A. postage B. posting C. post D. postal 17. The town stands on the south side of the ________ road to London. A. top B. main C. quick D. leading 18. The Minister listened to arguments for and ________ the planned airport.

A. from B. away from C. down D. against 19. After the ________ of the climbers, the police were thanked for their work. A. rescue B. freedom C. help D. safety 20. In some countries, more and more young people now need ________ teeth. A. false B. spare C. untrue D. unnatural III. READING COMPREHENSION * Reading 1: Read the passage and choose the best answer. AMERICA ONLINE America online is one of the big names on the internet, and unlike many other digital companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which its rivals call the ‗Cyber-cockroach‘ was launched only in 1992. Before that it was a small firm called Control Video games. Then Steve Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing executive arrived and took the company online. Innovative, fast moving and user-friendly, America Online appeals to people who want to surf the internet, but who more do not have a lot of experience. For the same reason, techies, people who think they are more expert with computers, look down on America Online and its users. Recently, America Online or (AOL, as it calls itself) joined with Time Warner- a multi-million dollar movie and magazine company - to create a multimedia giant. Now, AOL has begun to expand aboard. In many European countries, including the United Kingdom, it is hard to buy a company magazine that does not have a free AOL introductory offer. The company also puts advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out its free introductory disks at places like train stations. As the internet gets faster AOL is changing. With many homes getting high-speed connection through fiber optic cables or the new ADSL technology, the ‗Cyber-cockroach‘ will have to show that, like real cockroach, it can survive in almost any environment 1. What is the passage about A. A computer company B. A Software company C. An internet company D.A video company 2. Who does Steve Case work for A. AOL B. Pizza Hut C. Control Video Corporation D. None of these 3. How do ‗techies‘ feel about America Online A. They think it is a ‗Cyber-cockroach‘ B. They think it is for experts. C. They think it is a movie and a magazine company. D. They feel superior to its users. 4. People who use America Online are probably A. Video game players B. Techies C. Movie fans D. People new to the internet. 5. America Online is an unusual digital company because A. It is used to make video games. B. It is innovative. C. It makes money D. It has joined another company. 6. Which marketing idea is not mentioned? A. Advertisements on the internet. B. Advertisements on TV C. Free disks in journals D. People giving disks away. 7. What does the article say about AOL‘s future? A. It will do well B. It will do badly C. It will face challenge D. The article doesn‘t say 8. The passage is about A. Technology B. A history of the Internet C. Computer user D. A successful business 9. ‗Cyber-cockroach‘ is A. America Online B. its rival C. the internet D. All is wrong 10. The word optic means A. light B. eye C. communication D. thread * Reading 2: Read the passage and choose the best answer (10 points) There is a growing concern that mankind is heading toward self-destruction. What are some of the causes of this fear - the following article describes a coal-mining technique that has proven dangerous to the environment. The federal Surface Mining Act was passed in 1977 for the laudable purpose of protecting the environment from the ravages of strip-mining of coal, for many years environmentalists had fought to get the bill passed. Strip-mining menaces the habitat of wildlife and causes incalculable damage to the environment. The law is explicit on such matters as where strip-mining is prohibited, the disposal of toxic waste, the placement of power lines, and the rights to the public to take part in the control of strip-mining. However, the secretary of the Interior has recently incurred the wrath of environmentalists by advocating numerous

proposals that repudiate the existing law. According to the law, strip-mining is prohibited in national forests, national wildlife refuges, public parks, historic places, and within a specified number of feet from roads, cemeteries, parks, houses and schools. The exception to this prohibition is stated in the words valid existing rights, referring to those miners who had rights in protected lands before the law was passed. By redefining ―valid existing rights‖, the Secretary now intends to infringe upon the law by opening over a million acres of national forest and wildlife refuges to strip -mining. Naturally, the National Wildlife Federation is appalled. This new proposal does not augur well for wildlife, which will be destroyed by such latent killers as power lines and tainted ponds near strip-mines. Why is the Secretary attempting to jettison the regulations to tempestuously gained only a few years ago? He claims that mining companies are losing money and that the new proposals would make mining more lucrative. Irate ecologists repudiate that theory on the basis of a study made by the department of Energy that estimates that the savings to mining companies would be less than five cents per ton of coal. It doesn‘t require a sage to foresee the wrangle that is forthcoming between proponents of conservation and the Interior Department. The consensus among environmentalists is that unless they obstruct the Secretary‘s new regulations, this land will be ravaged and our wildlife severely maimed by strip-mining companies for the sake of a few pennies‘s profit. 1. From the context of the article, the meaning of strip-mining is A. the mining of coal on public lands B. surface mining C. shaft mining D. illegal mining 2. The Federal Surface Mining Act A. limits coal production B. prohibits strip-mining. C. restricts strip-mining to specific locations D. menaces wildlife. 3. The Secretary of the Interior has A. rescinded the law. B. angered the environmentalists. C. been in office for five years. D. destroyed wildlife. 4. The Secretary of the Interior plans to A. fight the environmentalists B. break the law. C. open up public lands to strip-mining D. protect the environment. 5. The expression valid existing rights refers to A. mining rights in existence before 1977 B. miners‘ rights that can‘t be violated. C. the right to mine coal any place in the USA D. the right to mine on protected land. 6. Wildlife is endangered by A. coal mining B. the Secretary of the Inferior. C. toxic waste in bodies of water. D. migration paths 7. The proposed new regulations will A. curtail the rights of environmentalists B. increase the area of strip-mining, C. help clean up the environment D. cost miners a lot of money. 8. The purpose of the new regulations is to A. create a ravaged land. B. kill wildlife. C. increase coal miners‘ profits. D. anger environmentalists. 9. Without the present regulations on strip-mining, profits would increase A. tremendously B. a little bit C. not at all D. by leaps and bounds 10. The main idea of the article is that A. changes in the present law would be detrimental to the environment. B. a powerful government official can change laws. C. environmentalists protect our land. D. laws are made to be broken. IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 POINTS) Clean freshwater resources are essential for drinking, bathing, cooking, irrigation, industry, and for plant and animal (1) ________. Unfortunately, the global supply of freshwater is (2) ________ unevenly. Chronic water shortages (3) ________ in most of Africa and drought is common over much of the globe. The (4) ________ of most freshwater supplies - groundwater (water located below the soil surface), reservoirs, and rivers - are under severe and (5) ________ environmental stress because of overuse, water pollution, and ecosystem degradation. Over 95 percent of urban sewage in (6) ________ countries is (7) ________ untreated into surface waters such as rivers and harbors. About 65 percent of the global freshwater supply is used in (8) ________ and 25 percent is used in industry. Freshwater (9) ________ therefore requires a reduction in wasteful practices like (10) ________

irrigation, reforms in agriculture and industry, and strict pollution controls worldwide. 1. A. survive B. survived C. surviving D. survival 2. A. delivered B. distributed C. provided D. given 3. A. exist B. lie C. show D. stay 4. A. resources B. springs C. sources D. starting 5. A. increasing B. growing C. climbing D. ascending 6. A. growing B. miserable C. poverty D. developing 7. A. recharged B. discharged C. charged D. discharging 8. A. farming B. planting C. agriculture D. growing 9. A. reservation B. conservation C. preservation D. retention 10. A. ineffective B. illogical C. irrational D. inefficient WRITTEN TEST I. USE THE CORRECT TENSE / FORM OF THE VERBS IN BRACKETS. (10 POINTS) 1. Scarcely they (move) into the new house when their friends came in. 2. I feel as if my head (be) on fire now, doctor. 3. I wish I (see) more of him before the war. 4. You (not lock) the front door. Here is the key. 5. It‘s high time that you (get) down to more serious work. 6. Only by operating immediately we (save) your eyesight. 7. The police caught him (climb) over the garden wall. 8. This is the first time that his authority (challenge). 9. I object to people (criticize) me unfairly. . 10. But for my father‘s money, we (not get) over that problem. II. PUT IN SUITABLE PREPOSITIONS OR ADVERB PARTICLES. 1. If you think I‘m wrong, check in the encyclopedia. I‘m sure it will bear me ________. 2. Because of pressure of work, he had to put ________ his summer holidays until October. 3. We want to give younger players a chance in the team. That‘s why we‘ve decided to leave you ________ of next Saturday‘s match. 4. They‘re very two - faced. They‘re very nice to her. when she‘s there, but they run her ________ behind her back. 5. I‘d like to put ________ a proposal. I suggest we start production in May. 6. The government intend to take very serious measures against this interference in their country‘s affairs. They do not rule ________ the possibility of military action. 7. ―The drinks are ________ the house!‖ said the smiling landlord to his customers on Christmas morning. 8. Mr. Wilson‘s ________ the high jump. He has been caught fiddling the accounts. 9. This is a very important decision. All our lives are ________ stake. 10. It always pays to buy high quality goods ________ the long run it‘s cheaper. III. USE THE CORRECT WORD FORM OF THE WORD IN BRACKETS TO COMPLETE THE SENTENCES. 1. She gave a solemn ________ to respect their decision.(take) 2. The Stock Exchange is, ________ to likely political changes. (sense) 3. The situation is so ________ in some cities now that it is difficult to see any solution. (chaos) 4. I think it‘s sheer ________ to get married in church if you don‘t believe in God. (hypocrite) 5. The new ________ has certainly made things a lot easier in the town center since it has taken away all the through traffic. (pass) 6. The book is full of scientific ________. (technique) 7. Burning coal is an ________ way of heating a house. Gas is much cheaper. (economy) 8. Chinese writers published articles claiming that their own people were ________ incapable of operation machines, let alone inventing new ones. (inherent) 9. British universities are ________ good, but the pool of top scientific talent trickling from them amounts to 0.01% of the working population. (deny) 10. The meeting has been ________ arranged for 3.00 p. m next Friday. (provide) IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION. (10 POINTS) 1. According to (A) a team of scientists (B), there are (C) evidence that Mount Everest is still rising (D). 2. The colour (A) of a star depends (B) on the heat, and how much energy (C) it produces (D). 3. There are (A) more potatoes cultivated (B) than any the other (C) vegetable crop worldwide (D).

4. If one doesn‘t (A) have respect for himself, you (B) can‘t expect others (C) to respect him (D). 5. The governor, with his (A) wife and children, are (B) at home watching (C) the election returns (D) on television. 6. After studying (A) all the new (B) materials, the student was able (C) to rise his test score by twenty-five points. 7. The (A) staff worked (B) throughout night (C) to meet the client‘s (D) deadline. 8. World hunger it is (A) one of the most (B) urgent prolems (C) that we face (D) today. 9. Because it was unsafe (A) and too (B) expensive to repair (C), the 70-years-old (D) building had to be demolished. 10. Hardly he had (A) enter the office (B) when he realized (C) that he had forgotten (D) his wallet. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST. (10 POINTS) * Find a suitable word to fill in the blank. ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERNS Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1) ________ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world carries on consuming two-thirds of the world‘s resources while half of the world‘s population do so (2) ________ to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the resource we have by (3) ________ all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (4) ________ built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (5) ________. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (6) ________ the planet‘s ability to support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (7) ________ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth‘s (8) ________ resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) ________ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will (10) ________ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 POINTS) * Rewrite these sentences, using exactly the words provided. 1. My bank manager and I get on together very well, (terms) - I 2. People‘s race, creed, or color is not taken into account when they apply for job with us. (irrespective) Anyone 3. The directors of the company consulted one another to formulate a new scheme, (heads) - The 4. All his schemes came to nothing (smoke) - All 5. The police adopted every possible method of search to trace the culprits (stone) 6. I treated him in the same way as he had treated me (paid) 7. You have said exactly the right thing (nail) 8. Steady work is sure to be rewarded eventually. (run) 9. This reminds me of an amusing incident (puts) 10. He maintained his position against his adversary. (ground)

PRACTICE TEST 34 A. I. * 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. * 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. II. 1.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS PHONOLOGY Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the same line. A. sovereign B. fountain C. determine D. routine A. Venus B. plus C. minus D. interest A. Thames B. thyme C. theory D. Thomas A. coverage B. beverage C. rouge D. gauge A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term Choose the word in each line that has the stressed syllable different from the rest. A. absurdity B. particular C. polyphony D. politician A. substantial B. stalactite C. alkali D. opportune A. evidence B. persuasively C. interval D. custody A. advocate B. regime C. adverbial D. apostle A. mediocre B. academic C. environment D. opportunist GRAMMAR-VOCABULARY I only speak English ________ a little Spainish. A. nor B. so C. and D. but 2. She said she would be punctual for the opening speech, ________ she were late? A. but what if B. how about C. and what about D. so if 3. This monument ________ solders who died in the war A. celebrates B. remembers C. remends D. commemorates 4. With the end of childhood, and the ________ of adolescence, young peole tend to experience profound emotional changes A. onset B. foregone C. outlook D. off-peak 5. By using all the latest technology, the yatchman managed to cross the Atlantic in ________ time A. quickest B. lightning C. top D. record 6. When you are learning a language at home, you can work at your own ________. A. speed B. pace C. way D. mind 7. He comes from the small fishing town of Nyree, which is 550 kilometers ________ Leeds A. northeast B. Northeastof C. the northeast D. the northeast of 8. I won‘t have a whisky, thank you. It‘s not that I don‘t drink, ________ that I don‘t drink and drive A. but also B. but rather C. except D. so 9. There are very few writers who have ________ much material success in their own lifetimes A. realized B. owned C. enjoyed D. possessed 10. I‘m afraid Tim doesn‘t take much care over his homework. He usually does it ________. A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come 11. ―Did Jane pass her exam?‖ ―Yes, but only just. It was ________ The pass mark was forty-five percent and she got forty - six‖ A. a narrow escape B. a tight spot C. a clear cut D. a close thing 12. I didn‘t get wet, having remembered ________ my umbrella A. taking B. to take C. having taken D. to be taking 13. ―There is no further treatment we can give‖ said Dr. Jekyll.‖ ―We must let the disease takes its ________‖ A. course B. end C. term D. way 14. What a mad thing to do! You could all have been killed! It was ________ folly! A. merely B. only C. sheer D. wild 15.I am ________ aware of the need to obey the rules of the competition A. far B. much C. well D. greatly 16. It ________ able to finish it in an hour A. couldn‘t be too hard if you are B. couldn‘t be too hard if you had been C. can‘t have been too hard if you had been D. can‘t have been too hard if you were 17. I feel terrible. I didn‘t sleep ________ last night A. an eye B. a wink C. a jot D. an inch 18. I was so exhaushted that I went out like ________. A. a light B. a baby C. a candle D. a log 19. He gave me a good ________ He told me to take her some flowers

A. tip B. advice C. hint D. clue 20. Don‘t worry about making a noise. The children are wide ________ A. waking B. awake C. woken D. awoke III. READING COMPREHENSION * Reading 1 There is one kind of pain for which nobody has yet found a cure - the pain that comes from the ending of a relationship. The relationship could be a marriage, a love affair or a deep friendship, in fact, any strong emotional tie between people. Such a relationship may come to an abrupt but premeditated end: or it may simply fade away slowly as people and circumstances change. You may be the one to ―break it off‖, with a short note or a brief phone call. Or you may be on the receiving end, like the soldier who dreads getting a ―Dear John‖ letter from a girl friend who has got tired of waiting. But however it ended and whoever decided to end it, the pain is equally hard to bear. It is a sort of death, and it requires the same period of mourning, the same time for grief. Although there is no cure for grief, we cannot help looking for one, to ease the pain and to make us forget our tears. We seek refuge in other relationships, we keep ourselves busy with work, we try to immerse ourselves in our hobbies. Perhaps we start to drink more than we should to drown our sorrows or we follow the conventional advice and join a club or society. But these things only relieve the symtoms of the illness: they can not cure it. Moreover, we are always in a hurry to get rid of our grief. It is as if we were ashamed of it. We feel that we should be able to ―pull ourselves together‖. We try to convince ourselves, as we bite on the pillow, that we are much too old to be crying. Some peole bury their grief deep inside themselves, so that nobody will guess what they are going through. Others seek relief by pouring their hearts out to their friends, or to anyone else who can offer a sympathetic shoulder to cry on. But after a while, even our friends start to show their impatience, and suggest with their reproachful glances that it is about time we stopped crying. They, too, are in a hurry for the thing to be over. It is not easy too explain why we adopt this attitude to emotional pain, when we would never expect anyone to overcome physical pain simply by an effort of will power. Part of the answer must lie in the nature of grief itself. When the love affair dies, you cannot believe that you will ever find another person to replace the one who has gone so completely out of your life. Even after many, many months, when you think that you have begun to learn to live without your lost love, something- a familiar place, a snatch of music, a whiff of perfume - will suddenly bring the bitter - sweet memories flooding back. You choke back the tears and the desperate, almost angry, feeling that you are no better now than the day the affair ended. And yet, grief is like an illness that must run its course. Memories do fade eventually, a healing skin does start to grow over the wound, the intervals between sudden glimpses of the love you have lost do get longer. Bit by bit, life resumes the normal flow. Such is the complexity of human nature that we can even start to feel guilty as these things start to happen, as if it were an insult to our lost love that we can begin to forget at all. The important thing to admit about grief, then, is that it will take its time. By trying to convince ourselves that it ought to be over sooner, we create an additional tension which can only make things worse. People who have gone through the agony of a broken relationship - and there are few who have not - agree that time is the ―greater healer‖. How much time is needed will vary from person to person, but psychiatrists have ―a rule of thumb‖ : grief will last as long as the original relationship lasted. The sad thing is that, when the breakdown occurs, we can only stumble over the stories beneath our feet. It is dark ahead, and you will feel painfully many times before we begin to see the light at the end of the tunnel. 1. Relationships often come to an end because ________ A. the feeling of the people were not very deep B. people do not realize the pain they can cause C. people do not always stay the same D. very few people really know how to love 2. One way to get over a broken relationship is to ________ A. write a ―Dear John‘s letter B. form new relationships C. make a brief phone call D. try to forget the other person 3. If you seek advice on what to do about a broken relationship, you will probably be told to ________ A. pull yourself together (use your will power) B. keep busy at work C. find someone else D. join a club 4. Often we are ashamed when we cry because ________ A. we think it is a childish thing to do B. we do not expect our unhappiness to last so long C. we are worried about what others will think of us D. only children and babies cry 5. You tell your friends about your unhappiness because ________ A. you hope it will make you feel better B. you want them to hear the story from you C. you feel sure that they have had similar experiences D. you want them to feel sorry for you

6. When your friends get tired of listening to you they will ________ A. tell you to pull yourself together B. try to ad void your company C. show by their expressions that they have had enough D. help you to get over your grief 7. We are upset by reminders of our lost love because they come so ________ A. unexpectedly B. Rapidly C. frequently D. rarely 8. Memories continue to upset you, and this makes you feel that you ________ A. will never get over your grief B. have no will power C. are utterly alone D. have made no progress at all 9. If we try to recover too quickly from grief we shall make ourselves ________ A. nervous B. tense C. ill D. unpopular 10. Psychiatrist tell you that grief will last as long as the original relationship. This calculation is ________ A. the result of scientific research B. no more than a hopeful guess C. generally true but with many exceptions D. based on a deep understanding of human nature * Reading 2 Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perfrom a task or reach a jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group organization and attitudes. In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains nearly all of each individual‘s life. The reward of the group‘s work are shared with each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group, and task performed. Means and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued. While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterate societies, secondary cooperation is characteristic of many mordern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyaty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperstion in the form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are example of secondary cooperation. In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation. Latent conflict underlies the shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic; the organization is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goal; it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship. 1. What is the author‘s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage? A. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict B. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes C. To offer a brief definition of cooperation D. To urge readers to cooperate more often 2. The word cherished in line 2 is closet in meaning to A. prized B. agreed on C. defined D. set up 3. The word fuse in line 4 is closet in meaning to A. react B. unite C. evolve D. explore 4. Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage? A. It was confined to prehistoric times B. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate C. it is an ideal that can never be achieved D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills 5. According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation A. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation B. To get rewards for themselves C. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds D. To defeat a common enemy 6. Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth paragraph A. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades B. A new business attemps to take customers away from an established company C. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party D. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow 7. Which of the following is not given as a name for the third type of cooperation A. Tertiary cooperation B. Accommodation C. Latent conflict D. Antagonistic cooperation

8. The word fragile in line 17 is closet in meaning to A. inefficent B. easily broken C. poorly planned D. involuntary 9. As used throughout the passage, the term common is closet in meaning to which of the following? A. Ordinary B. Shared C. Vulgar D. popular 10. Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage? A. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relation C. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST People‘s personalities ________ (1) considerable from one another as there are no two alike. Our ________ (2) characteristics which determine the patterns of our behaviour, our reactions and temperaments are unparalled ________ (3) our personality in the earliest stages of human. Some ________ (4) of character may to some extent be hereditary simulating the ________ (5) that identify our parents. Others may ________ (6) from the conditions experienced during pragnancy and infancy. Consequently, the environmental factor play a ________ (7) role in strenthening or eliminating certain behavioural systems. Undoubtedly, human personality ________ (8) the most profound and irreversible formation during the first period of its development, yet, certain characteristics may still be ________ (9) to considerable changes ________ (10) by different circumstances and situations. 1. A. distinguish B. differentiate C. vary D. change 2. A. insole B. ingrained C. in-depth D. in-acted 3. A. in the event of B. as token of C. on account of D. by means of 4. A. aspects B. items C. traits D. factors 5. A. issues B. circumstances C. foundations D. attributes 6. A. depart B. change C. rise D. stem 7. A. crucial B. fatal C. distinguished D. lasting 8. A. faces B. suffers C. undergoes D. remains 9. A. open B. sure C. obliged D. subject 10. A. negotiated B. conditioned C. made D. earned B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB FORMS AND TENSES 1. Henry has studied very hard. He ________ (know) all the answers. 2. Don‘t worry that Linda is late. She ________ (miss) the bus. 3. Why didn‘t you drink it? - I didn‘t like ________ (drink) it because I didn‘t know what it was. 4. No decision ________ (make) about any future appointment until all suitable candidates ________ (interview). 5. I can‘t get my car ________ (start) on cold mornings. - Have you tried ________ (fill) the radiator with hot water? That sometimes helps. 6. Comrade Lee was found ________ (work) at great attention in the library. 7. When some money was ________ (miss) everyone in the bank was under suspicion. 8. It‘s a pity you didn‘t ask because I ________ (go) with you to the hospital. II. PHRASAL VERBS * Fill in each blank with a suitable particle or preposition. 1. What a mess! Sam‘s toys haven‘t been put ________ 2. I must warn you that if you have anything to say, it‘ll be taken ______ and may be used in evidence against you. 3. Cheques should be made ________ to Wellington 4. I‘m in no hurry. I‘ll hang here until you‘re ready. 5. The little boy‘s ears stuck ________ from under his school cap. 6. I am Polish ________ birth, but I have French nationality. 7. Your plan doesn‘t allow ________ changes in the weather. 8. How are you ________ for work? 9. He muttered a few words and ________ that he left. 10. ________ its new conductor, the orchestra has established an international reputation. III. WORD FORMATION

1. He is the third ________ caught by the guards today intruding into the no-entry territory (PASS) 2. Now that you have finished your studies, you can feel absolutely ________ being under no pressure any longer (CARE) 3. In some societies, most female employees still have the feeling that they are ________ (PAY) 4. Many family ________ are due in part to our modern lifestyles (BREAK) 5. This discovery makes a ________ of previous theories (SENSE) 6. Though nearly twenty, he was barely ________ (LITERACY) 7. I think this generator has ________ its usefulness and shoul be sold (LIVE) 8. It‘s a mistake to ________ the price of something with its true value (EQUAL) 9. ________ fruit juice contains no extra sugar (SWEET) 10. She‘s got a very ________ mind (PERCEIVE) IV. OPEN CLOZE TEST * Fill in each of the numbered blank in the following passage with one suitable one. Conversation are such common, everyday events that we easily take them for granted and assume that they require no special skills. Yet at some time or ________ (1) most of us have problems talking with other people. You may ________ (2) yourself unable to get a ________ (3) in edgways, and feel foolish and inadequate. Sometimes you have to interrupt rudely, and are ________ (4) feeling that, to other people, you must seem unpleasantly aggressive. Or having been desperate to speak, you do not know how to stop and risk ________ (5) considered boring. Everyone sometimes find it difficult to strike ________ (6) conversations. The importance of being able to start conversation is clear. To have relationships, you have to meet people and get to know them. To get to know them, you have to talk to them. At some point, ________ (7) has to be an opening line, but how do you know what to say? Conversations often begin when one person remarks, ―Beautiful weather, isn‘t it?‖ or asks some other cliched question. Conversation openers are ________ (8) original - the anxiety of making the first approach is not conducive to creative thought - but this does not matter. What does matter is that these openers are recognized ________ (9) what they are - attempts at starting a conversation. The words are unimportant, the fact that they have been ________ (10) is. V. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * Identify 10 errors in the following passage. Before I went for my interview for the job with the Cramer and Blake Services, I talk to a few people and found out some informations about the company. This strategy worked very effectively as it gave the impression that I was keen and committed and I was offered the job by the personal manager on the spot. I was absolutely delighted at first, but soon I discovered that my new boss, Tom, worked totally hard, spending all his time in the office and never leaving before 8 p.m. He expected the same level of commitment from his employers - the workload he expected each one of us to carry was deeply unreasonable. He accused anyone who didn‘t work overtime regularly of not making their fair share and letting the team down. I decided to put up to the situation without complaining for a while but finally I felt I had to confront Tom. I told Tom I wasn‘t prepared to work so hard for such a low salary. Tom said that I had great potential and could easily get to the top If I was prepared to have an effort. However, he absolutely refused to reduce my workload and so I decided to hand out my resignation. Just a week later, I got another job with Cramer and Blake‘s main competitors. Now I‘m earning twice as high as my old boss, and my job‘s twice as interesting. I work equally long hours - but I‘m glad I moved. I haven‘t got to the top yet - but I‘m well on the way. VI. SENTENCE REWRITING 1. My brother doesn‘t know whether he should move to live in the country (MIND) _________________________________________________________________________ 2. She never stops finding faults with those she does not like (LIMIT) _________________________________________________________________________ 3. He liked the new job straight away (EASE) _________________________________________________________________________ 4. Don‘t the hinges need to be greased? (TIME) _________________________________________________________________________ 5. His colleague will do anything to avoid confrontation (LENGTHS) _________________________________________________________________________ б. He wouldn‘t have been upset if you hadn‘t lied about your training background It ________________________________________________________________________ 7. We expect everything to be all right at tomorrow‘s conference. Nothing __________________________________________________________________

8. It‘s common knowledge that shower are better for you than baths. Showers __________________________________________________________________ 9. We aren‘t responsible for the construction projects in Southampton any longer. No longer ____________________________________________________________ control. 10. The hijackers haven‘t let any of the hostages go. The hijackers __________________________________________________________ free.

PRACTICE TEST 35 I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS A. Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three in each question. 1. A. swear B. spear C. wear D. bear 2. A. fought B. bought C. drought D. nought 3. A. modern B. loath C. mode D. loan 4. A. nervous B. birthday C. third D. worry 5. A. what B. where C. why D. who B. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. 1. A. millennium B. lecture C. different D. grocery 2. A. energy B. applicable C. household D. appliance 3. A. control B. constant C. contour D. contrary 4. A. ignorant B. descendant C. immigrant D. tolerant 5. A. prosperous B. obvious C. oblivious D. vigorous II. CHOOSE THE WORD OR PHRASE THAT BEST COMPLETES THE SENTENCE. 1. He turned to a life of crime ________ he had had a normal, happy childhood. A. as long as B. despite C. even though D. provided that 2. How much longer do we have to wait? This is starting to get on my ________ A. mind B. nerves C. head D. nose 3. Let‘s ________ together after work and thrash this out between us. A. come B. gather C. get D. meet 4. Supposing I ________ to tell you how much I admired you, what would you say? A. am B. could C. were D. would 5. The reason why he gets into trouble so often is that he has a ________ temper. A. fast B. rapid C. speedy D. quick 6. ‗No way will you beat him. You don‘t ________ a chance. He‘s a hundred times better than you are. A. hold B. run C. possess D. stand 7. Of all the entries received, his was ________ out for special praise. A. isolated B. brought C. opted D. singled 8. The kitchen is flooded. One of the water pipes must have ________ A. ripped B. burst C. torn D. parted 9. She‘s even broken the door! Look, the handle has ________ off. A. come B. parted C. gone D. split 10. I could see the lantern ________ in the dark. A. gleaming B. glowing C. glistening D. glimmering 11. It was a daring robbery, which took place in ________ daylight. A. broad B. total C. wide D. absolute 12. Of course you‘ll pass. You write well and you have an excellent ________ of the subject. A. grip B. seizure C. embrace D. grasp 13. Chris was ________ between buying a new house and going on a round-the- world cruise. A. pulled B. torn C. moving D. leaning 14. We had to pay for our food but not for the drinks. They were on the ________ A. house B. cafe C. compliment D. consumption 15. The builders say they will have finished the roof ________ A. by Tuesday B. as soon as they can C.. at the end of last year D. without any more delays

16. As well as ________ Spanish, I also speak French and some Russian. A. speak B. to speak C. to speaking D. speaking 17. The driver asked ________ the town center. A. that I wanted B. if I wanted C. I wanted D. I would want 18. The event had been well organised and everything ran ________ A. properly B. quickly C. smoothly D. easily 19. ―Were you late for the lecture?‖ ―Yes ________ I got there, it was nearly over.‖ A. Until B. As soon C. Whenever D. By the time 20. In the airport you are ________ to keep your bags with you at all times. A. suggested B. demanded C. appealed D. required III. READING 1 * For questions 1-10, read the article and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. AROUND THE WORLD IN 94 DAYS In February 2001, at the age of 24, Ellen MacArthur became the youngest and fastest ever woman to sail round the world. After 94 days alone on board her yacht Kingfisher, she finished second to Michel Desjoyaux of France in the single-handed Vende Globe event. In sport, like life, the winner is usually fted, and runners-up quickly forgotten. This time the roles were reversed and it was Ellen, weighing just 50 kilos and barely lm60 tall, that really captured people‘s imaginations and emotions. One newspaper in France, where she was and is a real heroine, summed up the national mood there with the headline ‗Well done, Michel, brave Ellen‘. As with many spectacular achievers, the signs were there from an early age, even in the unpromising nautical terrain of landlocked Derbyshire. Her great-grandparents were sailing people and a great-uncle was a merchant seaman, but any real link with the sea is tenuous. There was, however, an Auntie Thea who lived on the east coast of England and had a 26-foot sailing boat called Cabaret. It took just one trip on the open sea with her aunt to spark off Ellen‘s lifelong passion. She was eight years old. After that she began saving her pocket money and spent all her spare time reading sailing books in the library, absorbing information like a sponge. With her savings and the help of her grandmother she bought an 8-foot fibreglass dinghy, and from that moment on there was no keeping her away from the water. Sailing round Britain single-handed at the age of 18 was just the start; Ellen had long since set her sights on the Vende. But finding the money to undertake round-the-world voyages is no easy feat. She wrote 2,000 letters requesting sponsorship and received just two replies, from the Kingfisher company who were looking to expand into France. And in terms of race preparation, if thoroughness was the key to success, Ellen could certainly be considered one of the favourites. In the eight months leading up to the start of the race, she sailed no fewer than 60,000 miles at the helm of her 60-foot Kingfisher, far more than the rest of the fleet put together in the same period. During her three months at sea MacArthur negotiated deadly icebergs, gigantic waves and gale-force winds. She endured the freezing cold of the Antarctic and suffered the blistering heat of the windless doldrums. Racing conditions meant sleeping in 10-minute bursts, a survival suit that stayed on for weeks at a time and hands and wrists covered in sores and cuts. Food was dried or frozen. Water came from a desalinator, which passes sea water through a membrane. ‗You don‘t really wash in the icy waters of the southern ocean,‘ she laughs. ‗Anyway, there‘s no one to tell you that you smell.‘ As Kingfisher crossed the finishing line Ellen was surrounded by hundreds of spectator boats and a cheering crowd of 200,000 lined the shore. Stepping off her yacht she looked remarkably composed and seemed to take the change from solitude to public adulation very much in her stride. Her thoughts, she later confessed, were on the realization that she had fulfilled the ambition that had dominated her life for the previous four or five years. ‗Throughout that time my sole focus had been crossing the finishing line, and in the fastest possible time.‘ Now she could savour that moment. But despite MacArthur‘s belief that everyone who finishes the Vende is a winner, she still feels a sense of disappointment that, having taken the lead from the eventual winner Michel Desjoyaux 10 days from the finish, she did not quite have the energy or good fortune to turn her advantage into victory. ‗You have to believe you can win from the start,‘ she asserts. ‗Deep down you‘re a competitor, you don‘t climb the mast and come back black and blue just for a cruise. You do it because it‘s a race.‘ The public will now be hoping to see a suitable encore, some new feat of endurance to justify her celebrity status. For Ellen can no longer claim, as she did in her post-race press conference, to be the simple Derbyshire girl with ‗no mobile, no credit cards, no money, no nothing‘; she is a heroine and an inspiration to others of her generation. As if to reinforce this, and despite her reluctance to take on this role, she later commented: ‗If there‘s one thing I‘ve learned in this past year, it‘s that deep down in your heart, if you have

a dream, then you can and must it happen.‘ 1. The word fte in the second paragraph means A. to make somebody pleasant. B. to praise somebody. C. to make somebody happy. D. to give somebody a reward. 2. At the time of her achievement we learn that Ellen A. enjoyed only short-lived success. B. was more famous in France than anywhere else. C. attracted more attention than Michel Desjoyaux. D. became popular because of her size. 3. The word landlocked in the third paragraph means A. having no seaport B. having no fresh water C. having no land D. having no sea coast 4. Where did Ellen‘s initial interest in sailing come from? A. She came from a family of sailing enthusiasts B. She went to see one of her relatives C. She read widely on the subject D. She lived near the sea 5. The word single-handed in the fourth paragraph means A. without any help from anyone else. B. using only one of one‘s hands to row! C. on a boat with only one paddle. D. on a boat with only one sail. 6. What do we learn about Ellen at the start of the race? A. People thought she had a very good chance of winning. B. She was a more experienced sailor than the other racers. C. She had been waiting for this moment since she was 18. D. She had gone to great lengths to achieve her ambition. 7. The writer suggests that one cause of discomfort for Ellen at sea was A. the shortage of water. B. her failure to sleep. C. extremes of temperature. D. a lack of cooking facilities. 8. According to the writer, when Ellen finished the race, she was A. overwhelmed by her new-found fame. B. surprised by the number of people who came to greet her. C. able to reflect on her achievement. D. delighted to be amongst people again. 9. According to the writer, Ellen A. thinks she deserved to win the race. B. has mixed feelings about the outcome of the race. C. knew she would win the race. D. thinks Michel Desjoyaux was lucky to beat her. 10. Which of the following views does the writer express in the last paragraph? A. She has the power to motivate. B. She has no right to fame yet. C. Her comments lack depth. D. She needs to change her lifestyle. * READING 2 For gaps 1-10, read the following text and then choose from the list A-M the best phrase given below it to fill each of the spaces. There is one phrase that you do not need to use. ASTEROID ATTACK It was just very recently that astronomers warned that a large asteroid, known as 1997 XF11, might hit Earth in the year 2028 (1) ________. So, just how concerned should we be about this? First of all we need to understand (2). ________. The asteroid belt, which lies between Mars and Jupiter, consists of lumps of rock and ice which scientists used to think came into being after a planet exploded. Today most scientists believe that the asteroids are fragments left over from material (3) ________ when the other planets in the solar system were being formed. NASA estimates that 1,000 to 4,000 asteroids larger than half a mile in diameter cross the Earth‘s orbit. Of these, scientists have identified 108 PHOs (Potentially Hazardous Objects) (4) ________. The danger actually arises from the kinetic energy released when one of these asteroids, (5) ________, enters the Earth‘s atmosphere. In fact, it is believed that around 140 large asteroids have hit the Earth (6) ________. For example, in 1908, a fragment of ice weighing around 100,000 tons exploded above the sparsely inhabited Lake Tunguska region in Siberia, releasing a fireball (7) ________. This resulted in an area of 1,000 square kilometers being flattened. In 1994, a meteor skimming through the Earth‘s atmosphere was spotted by US spy satellites (8) ________. According to NASA scientists, the chances of being killed directly or indirectly by an asteroid are greater than the chances of being killed by wild animals, fireworks, terrorist bombs and airline hijackings. In fact Dr Victor Clube, an astrophysicist at Oxford University, says that civilizations have a good chance (9) ________. In theory, however, a potentially dangerous asteroid millions of miles away would only need a small nudge (10) ________. Scientists believe, for example, that a nuclear warhead detonated just off the surface of the asteroid could divert it into a different orbit.

A with 2,000 times the force of the Hiroshima bomb B and it takes four years to circle the sun C of being devastated every 3,000 to 4,000 years D exactly what asteroids are E that failed to fuse together millions of years ago F to be shunted into a safer orbit G travelling at speeds of around 45,000 miles per hour H and cause a global catastrophe I since it was formed J and mistakenly identified as a possible nuclear missile. K which may pose a threat to mankind IV. For questions 1-10, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). LONDON - THE STUDENT‟S CAPITAL? London is the city which seems to (0).___draw___ people like a magnet from across the country every year, not to (1) ________ from around the world. London is cool, fashionable and multi-cultural. For the budding student, it is the most incredible arts, academic and entertainment Mecca. London is one of the few real student capitals of the world. Despite the grime, the (2) ________ costs, the troublesome transport system, and the (3) ________ sensation of living with eight million people, students (4) ________ to the city‘s universities. However, rents are steep, with students paying around £75 a week for a room in a (5) ________ house. Halls of residence are a little over the price – but of course include meals and (6) ________. Work is plentiful at the moment though, so a part-time job should be easy to (7) ________ across, and there are all sorts of graduate opportunities with the best (8) ________ of pay in the country. The London institutions try to play (9) ________ the cost of living so as not to (10) off future students, but there is no doubt about it, London costs money and you will be looking at a sizeable debt on graduating. 0. A. catch B. bring C. draw D. grasp 1. A. say B. include C. utter D. mention 2. A. peak B. high C. money D. extreme 3. A. overestimated B. overawed C. overwhelming D. overloaded 4. A. stem B. wave C. pounce D. flock 5. A. divided B. parted C. shared D. separated 6. A. invoices B. bills C. costs D. receipts 7. A. put B. get C. do D. come 8. A. rates B. terms C. conditions D. means 9. A. up B. at C. out D. down 10. A. set B. run C. write D. put B. WRITTEN TEST I. Supply the correct tense or form of the verb in brackets. 1. ―It‘s been snowing all night!‖ ―I hope our flight (not cancel) ________ ‖ 2. Mrs. Brown (always / forget) ________ her pupils‘ names, which embarrasses her. 3. ―Has the plane landed?‖ ―No. It (ought to / arrive) ________ by now, but it‘s been delayed.‖ 4. Paul (annoy) ________ us because he wouldn‘t do the washing up although he had time. 5. We opened the door and out jumped two big frogs who (swim) ________ in through the open window. 6. (eat) ________ a lot of junk food is definitely bad for your health. 7. Having defeated the champion in the opening match, she went on (win) ________ the tournament. 8. There was no point in promising to help if you don‘t like (get) ________ your hands dirty! 9. The shark (attack) ________ in the shallows swam away losing a lot of blood. 10. The dog ran madly along the pavement, (cause) ________ panic among the pedestrians. II. Complete the following sentences with a suitable word from the box below. Some words can be used twice. By down in off out through to up 1. Don‘t forget to tune ________ tomorrow at 8.15 to find out who killed Lady Redfern in the last episode of our Radio Murder Mystery series. 2. When packing, I always make a checklist so I can check things ________ as I put them in the suitcase.

3. I think it would be best if you put ________ your complaints in a letter addressed to the manager. 4. My karate instructor always singles ________ Robert to, demonstrate techniques as he‘s the best in the class. 5. Jane has always stood ________ her brother even when he was accused of theft and everyone else refused to speak to him. 6. I‘ve got to drive, so I think I‘d better stick ________ orange juice, thanks all the same. 7. Are all animals‘ bodies made ________ of cells? 8. I enjoy looking ________ the encyclopedia from time to time. 9. There was so much snow that our village was completely cut ________ and food had to be brought in by helicopter. 10. They were on holiday there when the civil war broke ________ III. Read the article and use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the space on the same line, there is an example at the beginning. IT‟S ONLY SKIN DEEP We are the only animal that chooses what it will look like. True, the chameleon changes color - but not (0) ____willingly____ Unlike us, it WILL doesn‘t get up in the morning and ask itself, ‗What shall I look like today?‘, but we can and do. Indeed, the (1) ________ of body decoration points to the conclusion that it is a key factor in our development as the (2) ________ ANTIQUE life-form on our planet. No human society has ever been found where some DOMINATE form of body decoration is not the norm. By (3) ________ their physical appearance, our ancestors distanced themselves from the rest of the animal (4) ________ Within each tribe this CUSTOM helped them to mark out differences of role, status and (5) ________ Our KING ancestors developed (6) ________ techniques of body decoration for (7) KIN ________ reasons. How to show where one tribe ends and another begins? ORDINARY How to memorably underline the (8) ________ of that moment when an PRACTICE individual becomes an adult member of society? (9) ________, without the SIGNIFY expressive capabilities of such ‗body language‘ we would have been (10) ARGUE ________ less successful as a species. FINITE IV. For questions 1-15, read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick ^by the number. If a line has a word which should NOT be there, write the word on the left. There are two examples at the beginning (0 and 00). 0 ____ I love school sports day. It‘s a day when we don‘t have to have any 00 ______ lessons and we take a part in all kinds of sport. At my school, each class puts 1. ______ together different teams and we compete against each the other. My favorite 2. ______ sport is the high jump and I have represented on my class for three years now. 3. ______ When I took up the high jump, I wasn‘t sure I could do it up at first. The other 4. ______ kids seemed very tall and I didn‘t think I would ever be able to jump as high 5. ______ as they could. I joined up a club after school, though, and I soon grew a bit. 6. ______ The training involved building on strength in my legs and learning how to 7. ______ take off properly. When sports day finally came across, I was ready. I still 8. ______ wasn‘t as tall as some of the older competitors, but I made up for it by being 9. ______ able to jump well. To my surprise, I took over first place and I fell in love 10. ______ with the sport. Since then, I‘ve worked up hard to improve my technique. 11. ______ Sports day is next week and I hope it that I‘ll be able to do in my best. Of 12. ______ course, now all my friends expect me to win so there‘s more pressure on me 13. ______ to do well. 14. ______ 15. ______ V. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). TESTING... TESTING... TESTING...

Is the nation‘s obsession with examining (0) ___its___ pupils placing a continuous burden of toil and stress on teachers, parents and children? At Clapham Manor primary school in south London on Thursday, 24 children, all 10 or 11 years old, sit in silence completing, along with (1) ________ estimated 599,976 children in classrooms around the country, a key stage 2 English writing test. Some fidget, some look around the room, but most (2) ________ diligently. They have to deliver one piece of writing from four choices. Their teacher has read through the paper with them. They have had 15 minutes (3) ________ plan and 45 minutes to write. They are in their normal classroom, but some parts of their walls have (4) ________ to be covered -aides-to-learning like ―explanation‖ words. When the exam finishes there is no heavy sighing, (5) ________ hint of tears. They just sit while their teacher gathers their papers, and wait (6) ________ the next thing, which happens to be The Guardians asking them (7) ________ it went. Four thought it was hard. Fourteen thought it was easy. Twelve (8) ________ nervous before. Sixteen enjoyed it. Four thought their parents were worried about how they would (9) ________. ―You don‘t have to look for things to write - it‘s just your imagination,‖ said Ali. ―We have done (10) ________ many practice tests before this that it was easy,‖ said Rachel. VI. A. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first. 1. He thinks that all nurses are women, but he‘s wrong. Contrary _________________________________________ not all nurses are women. 2. I don‘t like it when people I don‘t respect tell me what to do. I ____________________________________________ do by people I don‘t respect. 3. As it gets hotter, I drink more water. The ________________________________________________________________drink. 4. We are very different indeed. We have __________________________________________________________ another. 5. It took a long time for the patient to recover completely from his illness. Only ___________________________________________ completely from his illness. B. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. 1. There is no need to make such a fuss about it. (song) There is no need ____________________________________________________ about it. 2. He loves his tomato plants. (pride) His tomato plants _________________________________________________________ 3. I‘m sure young children will love this new film. (appeal) I‘m sure ___________________________________________________ young children. 4. The final version of the report was very different from the initial draft. (resemblance) The final version of the report ______________________________________ initial draft. 5. I found her explanation very difficult to believe. (implausible) She __________________________________________________________ explanation.

PRACTICE TEST 36 I. PHONOLOGY * Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. boast B. goal C. load D. oar 2. A. how B. show C. tower D. towel 3. A. banner B. change C. plane D. sales 4. A. appealed B. denied C. hoped D. trained 5. A. computers B. documents C. trees D. Woods * Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest. 1. A. abound B. retire C. roommate 2. A. compete B. domain C. reply 3. A. abandon B. decision C. president 4. A. domestic B. excellent C. foolhardy 5. A. consolation B. enthusiasm C. photography

D. repulse D. rooster D. solution D. physical D. telepathy

II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE * Choose the correct answer. 1. Did you really understand all ________ he said? A. that B. what C. when D. which 2. When the teacher asked Mary what the chemical formula was, her mind was a total ________. A. void B. empty C. Nothing D. blank 3. I had a strong ________ that a disaster would occur, and it did. A. premonition B. prediction C. Forethought D. anticipation 4. No offence intended ________ I think you haven‘t understood the problem correctly. A. if B. when C. As D. but 5. ________ with.being so busy both at work and at home, she became increasingly tired and bad-tempered. A. How B. What C. Which D. Where 6. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained A. otherwise B. Therefore C. Immediately D. nevertheless 7. Thank you very much. I haven‘t been to ________ party for ages. A. a so enjoyable B. the so enjoyable C. so enjoyable a D. so enjoyable 8. Capital punishment was done in Britain ________ nearly half a century ago. A. out for B. off by C. away with D. over from 9. If you can win his attention ________ for you. A. the so much better B. the better so much C. so much the better D. so the much better 10. Try as I ________, I couldn‘t turn the key. A. could B. Might C. Should D. would 11. He escaped by ________. A. a hair‘s breadth B. the hair‘s breadth C. the breadth of a hair D. a breadth of a hair 12. He crept in ________ his parents should wake up. A. unless B. lest C. Otherwise D. whereby 13. In such a plight that we had no choice but to radio for help. A. we found ourselves B. we ourselves found C. did we find ourselves D. did we ourselves find 14. ________, I still was able to get to the top of the mountain. A. Unfit as I was B. Even though unfit C. Much as I‘m unfit D. while ever out of condition 15. It ________ to me whether we meet them or not. A. makes no difference B. is not a difference C. is indifferent makes D. not a difference 16.I can meet you at Central Station. Will ________? A. convenient for you B. that convenient C. that be convenient D. you be convenient 17. He hurt his leg ________ in order to miss the exam. A. at purpose B. for purpose C. in purpose D. on purpose 18. ________ the hotel rooms are reserved throughout peak season. A. Almost B. Almost of C. Almost all of D. Most of all 19. ________ I like to do something completely spontaneous.

A. every so often B. every often so C. very so often D. very often so 20. For my ________ of mind, promise you‘ll wear a life jacket in the boat. A. satisfaction B. contentment C. peace D. calmness III. READING COMPREHENSION * Read the passage and the questions or unfinished sentences. Then choose the answer that you think fits best. Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth‘s history called the Mesozoic Era, which is also known as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more them 200 million years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land with their huge size and strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to re-emerge. The word ―dinosaurs‖ come from two Greek words meaning ―terrible lizard‖. Dinosaurs were not lizards, but their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equaled the size of most modern-day whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaur and tyrannosaurus rex, reach 80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however; some were actually not larger than a chicken. Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaurs to disappear. One theory involves a change in the earth‘s climate. It is believed that temperatures dropped significantly towards the end of the Cretaceous Period. Too large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for protection, it is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to survive. 1. What is the best title for this passage? A. The History of Earth B. Earth‘s Largest Reptiles C. The Metabolism of Dinosaurs D. The Domination of the Land 2. It can be inferred form the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about A. 135 million years B. 200 million years C. 80 million years D. 65 million years 3. In line 5, the author use the phrase ―never to re-emerge‖ to indicate that the dinosaurs A. went into hiding B. became extinct C. lost their way D. never died out 4. According to the passage, what is true about the size of dinosaurs? A. It was rather uniform B. It guaranteed their survival C. it made them the largest creature ever on earth D. It varied quite greatly 5. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses A. the ability of mammals to survive B. other changes in the climate C. another theory about the disappearance of dinosaurs D. the protection of other species * Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space. EXAM ADVICE In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a (1) ________ task which usually (2) ________ about 3 minutes. One possible task is ‗problem (3) ________ which means you have to look at some (4) ________ information and then (5) ________ the problem with your partner. You may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisements or computer graphics and it is (6) ________ that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by (7) ________ - asking the examiner to (8) ________ the instructions or make them clearer. While you doing the task, the examiner will probably say very (9) ________ and you should ask your partner questions and make (10) ________ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real difficulties the examiner may decide to step in and (11) ________. Normally, however, you will find plenty to say, which helps the (12) ________ to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the task by (13) ________ with your partner, which includes taking (14) ________ in giving opinions and replying appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to ‗agree to (15) ________. 1. A. single B. lonely C. unique D. once 2. A. exists B. lasts C. stays D. maintains 3. A. solving B. working C. making D. finding 4. A. optical B. obvious C. noticeable D. visual 5. A. argue B. discuss C. talk D. have 6. A. essential B. needed C. helpful D. successful 7. A. formally B. officially C. politely D. sincerely 8. A. insist B. copy C. tell D. repeat 9. A. little B. much C. few D. many 10. A. ideas B. statements C. speeches D. suggestions

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

A, complain A. judge A. competing A. changes A. contrast

B. help B. referee B. struggling B. sides B. disagree

C. suggest C. assessor C. opposing C. turns C. argue

D. fail D. observer D. co-operating D. sentences D. object

B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES/FORMS . 1. There was a problem with the cell phone, but I ________ it now. (fix) 2. There‘s nothing I like more than ________ for a brisk walk along the seashore, (go) 3. She ran, otherwise she ________ the train. (miss) 4. I‘d rather ________ to the party with my parents because there was-nothing interesting there. (not/invite) 5. If only it ________ differently! I had hoped to be acquitted. (conclude) 6. He wasn‘t responsible. He wasn‘t ________. (blame) 7. By the time Bernard daughter graduates, he ________. (retire) 8. I didn‘t answer the phone immediately, because I ________ to finish some work. (try) 9. He ________ coffee on his shirt! It makes me furious. (always/spill) 10. Police are reported illegal drugs in a secret hiding place in the star‘s home. (find) II. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS * Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. 1. You should always check the sell ________ date of things you buy in the supermarket. 2. I take great exception ________ the implication that I was not telling the truth, 3. He gave her a cheque ________ a lot of money. 4. Let‘s drive today. I think the bus drivers are ________ strike. 5. She was annoyed with Angela ________ ignoring their agreement. * Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable phrasal verb. 6. Politicians frequently ________ a lot of criticism. 7. We‘ll have to ________ the options before coming to a decision. 8. I think a couple of coffees will ________ the meal nicely. 9. Paloma will have to ________ her antiques, because she needs the money. 10. As darkness fell, there was nothing for it but to ________ the nearest village. III. WORD FORMS * Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the given words. 1. Craig‘s old jacket was so ________ that he had to buy a new one. (WEAR) 2. ‗This is not a good essay,‘ said the lecturer. ‗I find your arguments ________‘. (CONVINCE) 3. He felt very ________ when he saw he had failed the exam again. (COURAGE) 4. In winter it is important for farmers to provide food and ________ for their animals. (WARM) 5. ________ are doing their best to make people aware of the danger of air pollution. (ENVIRONMENT) 6. ________ is one of the qualities required of a social worker. (FLEXIBLE) 7. Leonardo Da Vince was a ________ story of an artist and scientist. (SUCCEED) 8. Freedom of ________ is one of the fundamental rights. (SPEAK) 9. Visitors said that the ________ of the people in Vietnam was most unforgettable. (HOSPITABLE) 10. How much does ________ of this club cost? (MEMBER) IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION * The following passage contains ten mistakes. Identify and correct them. For people who like to keep poultries, ducks offer certain advantages over hens. Ducks are immune with some common diseases found on hens and are more vulnerable to others. Some breeds of duck produce bigger eggs than hens. In addition, ducks lay eggs over a long season than hens do. Poultry keepers with gardens have less to worry about if they keep ducks other than hens because the former are less apt to dig up plants and destruct roots. While both hens or ducks benefit the garden by eating pests, hens are known to damage herb and grass beds. Ducks, on the one hand, will search for insects and snails more carefully. Only very delicate plants are at risk from the broad, wetted feet of ducks. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST * Complete the passage by putting one word in each space. (Do not use contractions - they count as two words.) THE CUCKOO ROLLER OF MADAGASCAR This bird is about the same size as the European roller, and has many features in common 1) ________

its near relatives. 2) ________ the European family, however, the cuckoo roller can reverse its outer toes, 3) ________ it to perch by gripping a branch with two toes forward and two back. Its eating habits are also quite different. 4) ________ nearly all other rollers take food on the wing or pluck reptiles or large insects from the ground, the cuckoo roller stays high up in the forest canopy, 5) ________ on caterpillars, stick insects and, most important of all, chameleons. Subtly blending its colours to the forest backcloth, and 6) ________ leaving the safety of the branches except to cross from one tree to another, the chameleon is an elusive prey. Even on open ground, 7) ________ myriad dangers it normally avoids, the chameleon‘s slow, swaying walk makes it difficult to see against the leaves. 8) ________ good is its camouflage that the cuckoo roller has to put up with long periods of watching and waiting, 9) ________ a tell-tale movement betrays its victim‘s presence. At least, experts assume this is what happens, because despite the fact that this bird is widespread throughout Madagascar, 10) ________ observer has yet seen it in the process of catching its prey. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. Despite Jack‘s strange clothes, everybody ignored him. Nobody took_______________________________________________________________ 2. He threatened the officers with violence. He made __________________________________________________________________ 3. You must not communicate in any way with anyone involved in this case. You must have _____________________________________________________________ 4. Many people were severely critical of the proposals for the new motorway. There was _________________________________________________________________ 5. Simon had not expected that he would feel so weak after the operation. The operation left ___________________________________________________________ 6. There‘s no need to be so upset about the result. Shed _____________________________________________________________________ 7. I‘d be grateful if you could have a look at these figures. Cast _____________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________ 8. Although he is young, there are several ministers even younger than him. Means ____________________________________________________________________ 9. The house is dirty because no one bothers to keep it clean. Trouble ___________________________________________________________________ 10. Jane is very likely to be promoted. Stands ____________________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 37 PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE I. PHONOLOGY A. Pronunciation: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (5 pts) 1. A. financial B. intellectual C. preferential D. potential 2. A. whistle B. little C. gentle D. battle 3. A. rather B. sacrifice C. hard D. farther 4. A. bathing B. method C. bathroom D. width 5. A. literacy B. marathon C. association D. announce B. Stress: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. (5 pts) 1. A. machine B. composer C. champion D. research 2. A. status B. worldwide C. belief D. equal 3. A. position B. believe C. consider D. European 4. A. recognition B. opportunity C. society D. sympathetic 5. A. marriage B. neglect C. without D. contact II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES (20pts) * Choose the best option for each blank.

1. The disappearance of one or several species may ________ the loss of biodiversity. A. result in B. result from C. result to D. result 2. I am ________ the habit of reading in bed. A. in B. on C. of D. from 3. Not only ________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again. A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused 4. To be ________ I couldn‘t understand what he was getting at. A. shy B. humble C. cowardly D. honest 5. ________ little we may like it, old age comes to most of us. A. Despite B. However C. So D. As 6. Arthur assured me that he was going to come, but he hasn‘t ________ yet. A. turned in B. turned up C. turned round D. turned on 7. Mario has now ________ to the point where his English is almost fluent. A. arrived B. approached C. advanced D. reached 8. You cannot see the doctor ________ you have made an appointment with him. A. even B. unless C. however D. without 9. George took ________ of the fine weather to a day‘s work in his garden. A. chance B. interest C. advantage D. charge 10. It was not until she arrived in class she had forgotten her book. A. and she realized B. when she realized C. did she realize D. that she realized 11. She should have been here but she‘s gone ________ flu. A. through with B. down with C. back on D. down by 12. He‘s a very difficult person to ________ with. A. deal B. do C. get D. treat 13. She‘s ________ kind a person that she can never say no to anyone. A. so B. quite C. very D. such 14. He‘s been teaching music for years, but he hasn‘t got any ________. A. examinations B. experience C. knowledge D. qualifications 15. “Can you explain it in another way?” she said. A. She asked him if he can explain it in another way B. She asked him to explain it in a different way. C. She asked him whether he could explain another way to it. D. She asked him could he explain it again. 16. Tom regrets to say that he has left the tickets at home. A. Tom regrets leaving the tickets at home. B. Tom was sorry that he has left the tickets at home. C. Tom wishes he hadn‘t left the tickets at home. D. Tom regrets to leave the tickets at home. 17. Larry’s brother used to let him drive his car at weekends. A. Larry‘s brother never let him drive his car at weekends. B. Larry is no longer allowed to use his brother‘s car at weekends. C. Larry is allowed to use his brother‘s car at weekends. D. Larry is used to driving his brother‘s car at weekends. 18. You should have persuaded him to change his mind. A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn‘t. B. You should persuade him to change his mind. C. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn‘t listen. D. You didn‘t persuade him to change because of his mind. 19. I wish I had studied harder last night. A. I wish to study harder last night B. I didn‘t study last night. C. I didn‘t study hard enough last night D. I had studied harder than I used to. 20. It would have been better if he had told us his new address. A. He might have told us his new address B. He should have told us his new address. C. He must have told us his new address D. It doesn‘t matter that he didn‘t tell us his new address. III. READING COMPREHENSION * Reading 1. (10 pts) The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend on a number of factors: the-physical location of the

restaurant (that is, rural or urban); the type of restaurant (that is, informal or formal); and certain standards that are more universal. In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly, while other standards apply almost everywhere. Learning the proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee shop, it is in appropriate to do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a rustic setting, it may be fine to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but is you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant, this behaviour would demonstrate a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable to indiscriminately throw your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of restaurants determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurants. 1. With what topic is this passage primarily concerned? A. Rules of etiquette B. Instruction in proper etiquette C. The importance of good manners D. Variable and universal standards of etiquette 2. According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette? A. Tucking a napkin in your shirt B. Not throwing food on the floor C. Reading a magazine at a coffee shop D. Eating in rustic settings 3. What does the word ‗it‘ in the passage refer to? A. Learning the proper etiquette B. Clear instruction C. Knowing the type of restaurant D. Sensitivity 4. Which of the following could best replace the word ‗luxurious‘ in the passage? A. lurid B. austere C. elegant D. romantic 5. Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of ‗rustic‘ in the passage? A. agricultural B. ancient C. unsophisticated D. urban 6. The word ‗sophisticated‘ in the passage could be best replaced by: A. expensive B. cultured C. famous D. exclusive 7. The word ‗manners‘ in the passage could best be replaced by: A. experience B. character C. ceremony D. tact 8. The writer uses the phrase ‗safe to say‘ in the passage in order to demonstrate that the idea is: A. somewhat innocent B. quite certain C. very clever D. commonly reported 9. The word ‗indiscriminately‘ in the passage could best be replaced by : A. randomly B. angrily C. noisily D. destructively 10. What is the writer‘s main purpose in this passage? A. To assist people in learning sophisticated manners B. To describe variations in restaurant manners. C. To simplify rules of restaurant etiquette D. To compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants. Reading 2. (10 pts) One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east, and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations. Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events- past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of the ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today? 1. What has research of the base revealed? A. There are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh‘s body. C. The lines represent important events. D. A superior race of people built it. 2. Extraterrestrial beings are ________. A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times. C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets. 3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages? A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.

B. To permit the high priests to pray at night. C. To enable the Pharaoh‘s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife. D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh. 4. The word feat in the first passage is closest in meaning to ________. A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure 5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize? A. Architects‘ plans for the hidden passages B. Pathways of the great solar bodies C. Astrological computations D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time 6. In the second passage, the word ‗prophesied‘ is closest in meaning to ________. A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold 7. What is the best title for the passage? A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid B. Problems with the construction of the Great Pyramid C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops 8. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations? A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology C. Advanced tools of measurement D. Knowledge of the earth‘s surface 9. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed? A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. As an engineering feat 10. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world? A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies. B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops C. It was built by a super race D. It is very old. IV. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 pts) I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an isolated village in Chad, about 500 kilometres from the capital N‘Djamena. Coming from a (1) ________ country, I got quite a shock, as conditions were much harder than I had (2) ________. But after a few days I soon got used to (3) ________ there. The people were very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how beautiful the countryside was. One of my jobs was to supply the village with water. The well was a long walk (4) ________, and the women used to spend a long time every day (5) ________ heavy pots backwards and forwards. So I contacted the organization and arranged to (6) ________ some pipes delivered. We built a simple pipeline and a pump, and it worked first time. It wasn‘t perfect there were a few (7) ________ but it made a great difference to the villagers, (8) ________ had never had running water before. And not (9) ________ did we have running water, but in the evenings it was hot, because the pipe had been (10) ________ in the sun all day. All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience. I would recommend it to anyone who was planning to work for a charity. 1. A. rich B. well-paid C. comfortable D. luxurious 2. A. felt B. planned C. found D. expected 3. A. live B. lived C. living D. lives 4. A. away B. from C. away from D. far 5. A. fetching B. wearing C. carrying D. holding 6. A. make B. let C. have D. allow 7. A. breaks B. leaks C. splits D. punctures 8. A. which B. that C. they D. who 9. A. hardly B. scarcely C. only D. also 10. A. lied B. lay C. laying D. lying PART B. WRITTEN TEST 1. VERB TENSES / FORMS (10 pts) 1. I‘ll return the book to Jim the next time I ________ (see) him. 2. By the time I go to bed tonight, I ________ (write) more than ten pages of the hovel. 3. But for their support we ________ (not, overcome) the problem. 4. The issue is going to ________ (decide) by the voters. 5 ________ I ________ (know) the truth, I‘d have told you.

6. She‘d rather you ________ (not postpone) the plan. 7. It ________ (recommend) that all luggage ________ (bear) a personal label. 8. I saw Lan ________ (enter) the hall at that time, and she seemed ________ (be) nervous. II. PREPOSITIONS / PHRASAL VERBS (10 pts) 1. The man complained ________ his boss ________ the old machines. 2. The volunteers helped the villagers ________ farming work during their stay. 3. ________ arriving at the camp site they looked really excited. 4. The parents used to blame the children‘s weaknesses ________ the school. 5. My uncle was given the award ________ recognition of his services to the factory. 6. His collection with a variety ________ stamps is housed in the museum. 7. The boy came across the toys ________ chance. 8. There was nothing to be said in answer ________ such big mistakes. 9. We often have two days ________ after the first term. III. WORD FORMS (10 pts) * Use the correct form of the word in capitals to fit each gap. Helen had always dreamed of becoming a (1) ________ woman, and 1. WEALTH imagined living in a (2) ________ mansion, and how her friends would 2. LUXURY praise her (3) ________ when she gave them expensive presents. In 3. GENEROUS reality, she was usually hard up. She had some (4) ________ and a small 4. SAVE life (5) ________, but her antique shop was not really very (6) ________ 5. INSURE Every time she took money out of the bank, the (7) ________ checked 6. PROFIT her account, and told her how little there was in it! Helen had taken out a 7. CASH (8) ________ a month before. How could she repay it? Then one day she 8. LEND noticed an old painting in her shop. She had thought it was (9) ________ 9. WORTH but as she brushed away the dust, she saw the (10) ________ at the 10. SIGN bottom. It said ‗Renoir‘! She was rich at last! IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 pts) * Choose the underlined part that needs correcting. 1. A football match (A) begins (B) with the ball (C) kicking forwards from a spot (D) in the centre of the field. 2. Liquids take (A) the shape of any container (B) where (C) they are (D) placed in. 3. Their (A) refuse (B) to helpus (C) to find the solution (D) to our job made us unhappy. 4. Not only (A) his parents but also his siter (B) advise him (C) to study harder (D) for the next exams. 5. They had a discussion (A) about (B) training not only the new employees but also (C) giving them (D) some challenges.‖? 6. It was the police (A) that (B) were questioned the man (C) a lot (D) about the cause of the fire yesterday.? 7. Jogging (A) neither require a lot of (B) practice nor (C) costs much, (D) is it.? 8. Sally complained (A) about (B) Ann‘s (C) borrowed her clothes without asking (D) her first. 9. Can you (A) tell us the place (B) to be staved (C) in the village (D) for our volunteer work? 10. (A) Give care and comfort (B) to (C) the poorand sick (D) is our happiness. V. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 pts) * Fill in the blank with one word. Perhaps the greatest value of biodiversity is yet unknown. Scientists have discovered and named only 1.75 million species-less than 20 percent of those (1) ________ to exist. And of those identified, only a (2) ________ have been examined for potential medicinal, agricultural, or (3) ________ value. Much of the Earth‘s great biodiversity is (4) ________ disappearing, even before we know what is missing. Most biologist agree that life on the earth is now(5) ________ with the most severe extinction episode since the event that drove the dinosaurs to (6) ________ 65 million years ago. Species of plants, animals, fungi, and microscopic organisms such as (7) ________ are being lost at alarming rates-so many, in fact, that bilogists estimate that three (8) ________ go extinct every hour. Scientists around the (9) ________ are cataloging and studying global biodiversity in hopes that they might (10) ________ understand it, or at least show the rate of loss. VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 pts) * Part 1: Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the one given, using the word given in brackets. Do not alter the word in any way. 1. I don‘t feel like going to the party. MOOD

_________________________________________________________________________ 2. With five children to look after, her aunt is extremely busy. HANDS _________________________________________________________________________ 3. The ships were hardly visible through the thick fog. MAKE _________________________________________________________________________ 4. The acrobats performed well at the circus. GAVE _________________________________________________________________________ 5. Ill health resulted in his inability to do the job. COPE _________________________________________________________________________ * Part 2. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 1. It was a mistake to come to Madrid in July. We should ________________________________________________________________ 2. The person called John wanted to talk to you on the phone this morning. The person who ____________________________________________________________ 3. The students found some mistakes in spelling in the essay. It was some _______________________________________________________________ 4. They solved the pollution problem in the region. Otherwise, there would have been a disaster. If ________________________________________________________________________ 5. Our son is looking forward to going to Disney world. Our son is excited at _________________________________________________________

PRACTICE TEST 38 MULTIPLE CHOICE I. PHONOLOGY * Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. launch B. digestion C. suggestion D. Greenwich 2. A. breathe B. thereafter C. therapy D. thus 3. A. delicate B. concentrate C. graduate D. accurate 4. A. sugar B. butcher C. stumble D. cushion 5. A. crooked B. cursed C. wicked D. joked * Choose the word whose primary stress is placed differently from that of the others. 1. A. descendant B. controversy C. uranium D. ornamental 2. A. obstacle B. memorial C. prejudice D. military 3. A. cinematographer B. parliamentary C. reliability D. Paleolithic 4. A. suffocating B. enthronement C. susceptible D. telepathy 5. A. dilemma B. westernize C. officialdom D. magnificent II. READING COMPREHENSION * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. The oceans‘ predators come in all shapes and sizes. For example, one of the less infamous ones is the colorful starfish, which feeds on plant life, coral, or other shellfish such as mussels for sustenance. A more bloodcurdling example, especially to human beings and most other species of fish, is the shark, though most scientists agree that only ten percent of the 450 plus species of sharks have been documented as actually attacking a human. Still, there is another predator lurking invisibly in the bodies of water of the world, one which poses one of the greatest threats to all species of ocean life - bacteria. Though many types of fish are continually stalking and evading one another for survival, they all band together in an attempt to keep bacteria levels at bay in order to allow their own existence to continue. Bacteria play a dual role in the ecosystems of the oceans. On the one hand, they are beneficial as they stimulate plant life through food decomposition, which releases the necessary chemicals for the growth of the plant life. This is called nutrient recycling and helps keep the oceans alive. But, on the other hand, bacteria are a major predator for all fish because they attack fragile, weaker individuals. If they are allowed to run rampant and not kept in check, they could virtually suffocate the oceans. In water, bacteria prove to be an even greater threat than on land because, as they proliferate, they reduce the oxygen levels necessary for

organisms in the oceans to live. Further, when fish populations become depleted due to factors like overfishing, microbes such as algae expand and threaten the fragile ecosystems of the ocean. Therefore, ocean predators play a critical role by thwarting bacteria growth and maintaining the oceans‘ equilibrium by reducing vulnerable links in the food chain. In many ways, the balance within the oceans‘ ecosystems mirrors the human body. That is, all of their components must work in harmony for them to stay healthy, efficient, and alive. If one of them is missing or deficient, an entire system can be placed in jeopardy. In both the human body and the ocean, bacteria play a vital role because, at manageable levels, they aid in protecting and cleaning each system of foreign agents that can be of harm. On the other hand, if bacteria levels increase and become out of control, they can take hold of a system, overrun it, and become debilitating. Therefore, both oceans and the human body have a kind of custodian that maintains bacteria levels. In the human body, it is called a phagocyte. Phagocytes eat up sick, old, or dying cells, which are more prone to bacterial invasion, and thus keep the body healthy. Like in the human body, bacteria can prove fatal to the living organisms in the ocean. Like phagocytes in the human body, ocean predators work as antibacterial custodians of the seas. In essence, they are the immune system and a vital link in the food chain because they remove small, injured, or sickly fish from the ocean environment before bacteria can become too comfortable and multiply. By ridding the ocean of weaker fish, predators allow the stronger ones to multiply, making their species stronger and more resident. Without their services and with their declining numbers, bacteria will blossom to levels that will eventually overpower and kill even the strongest species of fish because of the depletion of their number one source of life, all important oxygen. While the greatest battle in the ocean may seem on the surface to be the survival of the fittest fish, a closer look reveals something completely different: fish versus microorganism. Clearly, most living organisms in the oceans are hunters by nature, but this way of life does not merely provide a food source for a dominant species. It also maintains a healthy level of bacteria in an ocean‘s ecosystem, thus ensuring the continuation of all species of life within. Major predators are necessary, like the antibacterial cells of the human body, to keep this delicate balance in synch. If their numbers continue to decline and humans ignore their vital role in the ocean, dire consequences will definitely result. 11. The word lurking in the passage is closest in meaning to A. attacking B. increasing C. waiting D. approaching 12. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of ocean predators? A. The shark is the deadliest one for all other kinds of life in the oceans. B. One of the most threatening to all fish populations is bacteria. C. Starfish do little damage to the population of mussels and shellfish. D. Most of the killers that hide in the oceans are unknown to humans. 13. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 1 about bacteria? A. They can be extremely detrimental to fish if their numbers increase. B. They are able to feed off themselves when other food sources are limited. C. They stimulate plant life, which in turn releases oxygen into the water. D. They present themselves in numerous shapes and forms as well as colors. 14. The author discusses nutrient recycling in paragraph 2 in order to A. show how bacteria act similarly in the ocean and the human body B. explain the different roles of nutrients and oxygen for species of fish C. indicate that bacteria do have a positive impact in the oceans D. note how chemicals from bacteria are able to stimulate plant growth 15. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Evasion tactics help fish escape from the threats posed by an increasing number of bacteria. B. Various species of fish prey upon one another in order to lower bacteria levels in the ocean. C. High bacteria levels in the ocean help most species of fish to survive by providing them with food. D. Rivals or not, all fish help one another survive by preventing bacteria from proliferating 16. The word thwarting in the passage is closest in meaning to A. encouraging B. preventing C. slowing D. sustaining 17. According to paragraph 2, bacteria are dangerous to ocean life because A. they have the capability to attack both strong and weaker fish B. they could monopolize the critical breathable gas in the ocean C. they get rid of vulnerable links, like dying fish, in the food chain D. they blossom out of control when overfishing becomes dominant

18. The word debilitating in the passage is closest in meaning to A. stimulating B. hindering C. elevating B. weakening 19. The author‘s description of phagocytes mentions all of the following EXCEPT: A. They rid the human body of potentially dangerous organisms. B. They act in a similar manner as the predators of the ocean. C. They dispose of bacteria to make weakened cells revive. D. They are cleaning agents in humans to maintain bacteria levels. 20. The word it in the passage refers to A. nature B. way of life C. food source D. dominant species * Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. The United States government is currently taking a serious look at the moon and Mars as potential places for future human settlement for number of reasons. First, they could be a future source of natural resources desperately needed on Earth. Second, the moon could serve as a training ground or a kind of stepping stone for later journeys to Mars. Therefore, the moon is already on NASA‘s docket for further exploration within the next couple of decades, which, at least to some experts, is completely unnecessary mainly due to the needless risks involved. With Mars looming as the eventual long-term goal, serious questions exist as to whether the dangers and difficulties of a lunar settlement are too extreme and unnecessary. The moon‘s relatively harsh environment and the greater potential of natural resources on Mars are major reasons that make lunar settlements too great a liability and why the moon should be bypassed. One major reason a lunar settlement is too hazardous is the contrast between the environment of the moon and the red planet. Numerous scientists believe the moon is too difficult for human settlement as compared to Mars. The fact that the moon has no atmosphere poses the greatest threat to human beings. Atmosphere is crucial because it protects humans and all other life from continuous bombardment cosmic radiation caused by sources such as the sun. This radiation is especially dangerous to humans because it increases the risk of cancer and can negatively alter and mutate DNA. On the other hand, while Mars‘s atmosphere is significantly thinner than Earth‘s, at least it has one and would create some sort of protective barrier for humans. Another important characteristic necessary for sustainable human settlement is water, of which the moon is believed to have none. If lunar settlements are to be successful, water will be a key component and must be brought with the colonists and continually supplied by further expeditions from Earth, which means they will have a limited capacity of it. Conversely, Mars contains vast quantities of water ice, dry ice, and also snow. There is also ample evidence that water once existed at the surface of Mars and might return in the future if the planet warms. With increased technological advances in conversion capabilities, the potential for settlers to remain on Mars indefinitely by being increasingly self - sufficient makes Mars a much more attractive goal as a space colony than the moon. Future colonists will not only benefit from potential water sources on Mars; the planet is also rich in other basic elements vital to sustained life. These resources include nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen. Mars also contains many minerals that contain iron, silicon, and magnesium, which can be used in productive ways. For example, silicon can be used to make solar cells to store energy and create electricity. Hydrogen can be extracted from water sources and used as fuel. Moreover, it can be combined with nitrogen to form fertilizing materials necessary to a sustainable colony. Due to these factors, Mars would be a more successful candidate for exploration and settlement because it contains the basic resources necessary for humans to survive more independently of aid from Earth than they would on the moon. Clearly, any future settlements on Mars or the moon will be monumental efforts for the space agencies and astronauts involved. The expenses incurred will be extreme and are a further reason why plans and implementation should focus on the project, which has the greater potential of long-term success. While the moon may serve as a temporary training ground for Mars, it could end up becoming a major diversion from Mars and place humans in too great a risk with too little benefit. Because the environment of Mars is more similar to that of Earth and it contains important resources necessary to sustain life, it should be the one and only option for any kind of long-term human settlement. Furthermore, the moon has been eclipsed by mankind, and it is only natural that Mars be the next step for space exploration. Finally, the habitation of Mars would not only be a milestone in space but also an excellent opportunity for mankind to redeem itself from past exploits on Earth and preserve and make the best use of the natural resources Mars has to offer. 21. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true of space settlements? A. They should have already been instigated by NASA many years ago.

B. They must first incorporate the moon as a practice arena for Mars exploration. C. They could prove to be a last resort for gaining life-sustaining supplies. D. Their danger cannot be justified due to the risk to human life and high cost. 22. The word looming in the passage is closest in meaning to A. expanding B. competing C. waiting D. emerging. 23. The author discusses environment in paragraph 2 in order to A. justify why the moon is a more practical place than Mars for human settlement B. express the notion that Mars poses less life-threatening hazards than the moon C. propose that cosmic radiation would have little effect on the lunar colonists D. indicate that lunar settlements are futile because the moon has no atmosphere 24. The word it in the passage refers to A. atmosphere B. life C. bombardment D. radiation 25. According to paragraph 2, the atmosphere on Mars would A. change the genetic makeup of humans and cause their DNA to change and mutate B. protect humans completely from harmful cosmic radiation coming from space C. cause humans to be more openly exposed to potentially fatal illnesses D. give human colonists a safety shield against dangerous cosmic effects 26. The word sustainable in the passage is closest in meaning to A. verifiable B. endurable C. insatiable D. unexceptional 27. What can be inferred about water sources on Mars? A. They exist in liquid form below the surface and ice at the immediate surface. B. They are not present at the moment though they probably once were. C. They will be easily converted into liquid forms necessary for life. D. They are not known to be present in a fluid state above or below the surface. 28. According to paragraph 4, what is true about the mineral content of Mars? A. The planet lacks the fundamental elements of carbon and nitrogen, B. Most are in their rawest forms and cannot be utilized completely. C. Some will help future colonists create their own sources of energy, D. Their levels do not reach the magnitude of those found on the moon. 29. The word fertilizing in the passage is closest in meaning to A. nourishing B. exhausting C. suffocating D. saturating 30. The author of the passage implies that future space exploration A. will look past Mars and include other planets within its parameters B. needs to move ahead to new frontiers instead of going back to old ones C. is in its infancy and will require a fresh vision from scientists for it to succeed D. does not make sense if humans only wish to search for alien life forms III. GUIDED CLOZE * Read the following passage and choose the best option that best complete the blanks. The money that some professional sportsmen earn shouldn‘t impress anyone when you take into ________ (31) the fact that only a few of them manage to attain immortality and everlasting fame. And once they reach their ________ (32) and display their talent at their best, they are fully conscious that their brilliant careers won‘t last for ever. They live under a constant pressure of being ________ (33) and subsequently replaced by someone who is younger, faster and more accomplished. For that reason, objectives like retirement benefits and pensions are ________ (34) great concern to all professional athletes. Some of the retired competitors go as far as to organize strikes and rallies to voice their protest against any policy unresponsive to their demand ________ (35) the younger professionals seek more upgrading solutions to the problem as more and more of them attach a proper significance to ________ (36) a solid education, even at university level. Such an approach should help them find interesting and well-paid jobs ________ (37) their sports career is over. A completely new strategy has been devised by the schools priding themselves ________ (38) supporting their own teams. Their authorities insist that the sports clubs members achieve high academic standards or else they are debarred from partaking in certain sports events, which may lead to further disruption in their professional careers. By these practical and most effective ________ (39), combining education with sports activity, the ________ (40) of the professional athlete as being brainless and unintelligent may eventually be changing to the sportsmen‘s benefit. 31. A. reflection B. attention C. examination D. consideration

32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.

A. prime A. outcast A. with A. whereby A. mastering A. right away A. with A. grounds A. vision

B. shape B. outshone B. in B. whereas. B. learning B. promptly B. on B. results B. outlook

C. best C. outstayed C. at C. whereupon C. receiving C. barely C. for C. factors C. image

D. capacity D. outgrown D. of D. wherein D. attending D. once D. in D. means D. judgment

B. WRITTEN TEST I. VERB TENSES/ FORMS * Part 1: Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct verb tenses. 1. This time next month the snow (1. smelt) ________ and skiing will be over. 2. Where are you off to with that ladder? I (2. have) ________ a look at the roof; it‘s leaking and I think a tile has slipped. 3. Nobody has been in this house for a month. Nonsense! Here is last Monday‘s paper in the wastepaper basket; somebody (3. be) ________ here quite recently. 4. He set off alone a month ago and hasn‘t been heard of since. He (4. fall) ________ into the river and been eaten by crocodiles. 5. It‘s just struck midnight. It‘s high time we (5. leave) ________. 6. Can I take your best umbrella? I‘d rather you (6. take) ________ the other one. 7. If I continue with my diet I (7. lose) ________ 10 kilos by the end of the month. 8. The last time I went sailing with friends the boat ________ (8. sink) in a gale. Luckily I (9. not invite) ________ again since then. 9. According to yesterday‘s newspapers, astronomers in Australia (10. discover) ________ a planet in a galaxy close to our own. * Part 2: Read the paragraph and give the correct verb tenses and forms for the verbs in the brackets. The mummy of an Egyptian woman who died in 8oo B.C. (11. Just have) ________ an operation. The mummy is that of Shepenmut who (12. be) ________ once a singer in the Temple of Thebes. As there were strange marks on the X-ray plates taken care of the mummy, doctors (13. try) ________ to find out whether the woman died of rare disease. The only way (14. do) ________ this was to operate. The operation which (15. last) ________ for over four hours proved (16. be) ________ very difficult because of hard resin which covered the skin. The doctor removed a section of the mummy and sent it to a laboratory. They also found something which the X-ray plates (17. not show) ________: a small wax figure of the god Duamutef. This god which (18. have) ________ the head of a cow was normally placed inside a mummy. The doctors have not yet decided how the woman died. They feared that the mummy (19. fall) ________ to piece when they cut it open,, but fortunately this has not happened. The mummy successfully (20. survive) ________ the operation. II. PREPOSITIONS & PHRASAL VERBS Part 1: Fill in the blanks with proper prepositions or adverbial 1. Long skirts are ________ at the moment. 2. Stop harping ________ your past success. 3. Can you run ________ this picture for me? 4. They sold the house ________ in auction. 5. She really goes ________ reading intelligent books. 6. I met him at the party and he asked ________ you. 7. People‘s chances of getting jobs vary ________ whether they live in the North or the South. 8. John has grown ________ his habit of playing truant. 9. He rang ________ before I could ask his name. 10. Many soldiers are ________ attendance ________ him. * Part 2: Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. Here is a wonderful opportunity (11) ________ a moderate cost to visit the truly remarkable island (12)

________ Cuba. We have reserved rooms at some of the finest hotels (13) ________ periods of 7 and 14 nights. You may divide your time (14) ________ relaxing and exploring this beautiful country (15) ________ taking advantage of our extensive excursion programme. The diversity of such a small country is amazing and, as it is set (16) ________ the warm waters of the Caribbean, it is reputed to have one of the most pleasant climates in the world. Cuba, being so small, is not only an ideal country to tour, but is also a place where visitors can relax and unwind (17) ________ exotic surroundings. Not only has nature endowed Cuba (18) ________ a magnificent coast and some fine sandy beaches, but there are also extensive facilities near them. Most beaches are close to important sites such as the national parks (19) ________ their abundant wildlife, flora and fauna. Because the south of the island is blessed (20) ________ being the driest region in the country most hotels are situated here. Rain is however inevitable in the North from December to July. III. OPEN CLOZE TEST * PASSAGE 1 The Taj Mahal in India, one of the most beautiful buildings in the world, was built by Shah Jehan as a (1) ________ for his beloved wife over three hundred years ago. More than 20,000 men from all over Asia worked on the building and it took them 17 years to (2) ________ it. The building rests on a platform of red sandstone. Four slender white towers stand at the corners of the terrace. From the centre of the building rises a large dome, around which there are four (3) ________ domes. The building, which is (4) ________ of fine white marble with inlays of coloured marble, has eight sides and many open arches. Just inside the outer walls is an open corridor, from which visitors can look through carved marble screens to a central room, below which the bodies of Sha Jehan and his wife lie in a tomb. A beautiful garden (5) ________ the Taj Mahal with lots of green trees making the (6) ________ look even whiter. In front of the main entrance to the building, there is a long, narrow pool. If we look in this pool, we can see the beauty of the Taj Mahal in the (7) ________ from water. Many people say that it is most beautiful (8) ________ moonlight. When the moon is full, hundreds of people come to (9) ________ its soft silver radiance and spend the night beside the pool. When the morning comes and the Taj Mahal turns from silver to gold in the early (10) ________ they leave and will * PASSAGE 2 Since about the end of World War Two, technology has advanced rapidly. These advances in agriculture, transportation and industry have (11) ________ our way of life. Unfortunately, these advances have also (12) ________ our environment. The most (13) ________ example of a useful technological advance is, of course, the car. Cars have changed the way we live and added to our convenience and comfort. They do, (14) ________, pollute the atmosphere. Measures are finally being taken to (15) ________ the pollutants produced by car. Now lead is being (16) ________ from gasoline and catalytic converters are (17) ________ in modern cars to remove pollutants produced by the engines. Another example of a common product of modern technology that (18) ________ to environmental pollution is plastics. Plastics cause pollution when they are manufactured because a great deal of electricity is needed in their production. They are also a problem to (19) ________ because they will not biodegrade and they cannot be (20) ________ in the soil. IV. WORD FORMS * Part 1. The word in capitals at the end of each of the following sentences can be used to form a word that fits suitably in the blank space. Fill each blank in this way. 1. I don‘t think Tom‘s been getting too much sleep lately. His eyes are terribly ________ (BLOOD) 2. English is a ________ easy language for Swedes to learn, (COMPARE) 3. Now, don‘t tell anyone else what I‘ve just told you. Remember, it‘s ________ (CONFIDE) 4. I don‘t think their marriage will last long. They‘re ________ quarrelling. (CONTINUE) 5. If you think I‘m going to marry you, then I‘m afraid you‘re very much ________ (TAKE) 6. The man was found guilty of fraud and sentenced to three years ________ (PRISON) 7. Despite the star-studded cast, the film was only ________ successful. (PART) 8. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ________ when a medical check proved that he had been taking drugs. (QUALIFY) 9. The recent hurricane caused ________ damage. (WIDE) 10. I‘ve tried to advise my daughter against hitch-hiking around Europe alone, but she won‘t listen to me. She‘s so ________ (HEAD) * Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. OBSESSED WITH YOUR INBOX?

It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face (0) ________ (. INTERACT) and with counterparts and customers by phone or. letter. But the world of communication has (11) ________ (GO) a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. Email, while (12) ________ (DOUBT) a swift means of communication providing your server is fully (13) ________ (FUNCTION) and that the address you have contains no (14) ________ (ACCURATE) has had a (15) ________ (SIGNIFY) effect on certain people‘s behaviour, both at home and in business. For these people, the use of email has become (1) ________ (RESIST) addictive to the extent that it is (17) ________ (THREAT) their mental and physical health. Addicts spend their day (18) ________ (COMPULSION) checking for email and have a (19) ________ (TEND) to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and receiving messages the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative effect on (20) ________ (PRODUCE) is something employers are well aware of. V. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION * Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as the ones printed before them, using the words given. You must not change the words in any way. 1. All the people in Japan speak Japanese. (BUT) _________________________________________________________________________ 2. They‘ve been arguing about the motor-way extension for years. (BONE) _________________________________________________________________________ 3. Twenty years ago, this region produced twice as much coal as it does now. (HALVED) _________________________________________________________________________ 4. Every possible effort was made by the orphanage to find the boy‘s parents. (STONE) _________________________________________________________________________ 5. Scientists say forests are being destroyed by air pollution. (BLAME) _________________________________________________________________________ * Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that they mean almost the same as the ones printed before them. 6. She did not shed a tear when the story ended in tragedy. Not ______________________________________________________________________ 7. Those terrapins which survive their first year may live to be twenty. Should ___________________________________________________________________ 8. ―It‘s true‖ said Norman, ―I murdered Alan‖. Norman confessed to ________________________________________________________ 9. Both of the lifts were out of order. Neither ___________________________________________________________________ 10. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved. There was no question _______________________________________________________ VI. ERROR CORRECTION In most lines of the following text, there is one extra word which is incorrect for reasons either of grammar or meaning. There are 10 istakes altogether, write the extra word in the space on your answer sheet. The exercise begins with example (0). OPERA AND THE ENGLISH When I told an architect friend that I was writing a brief book on opera, he 0. of asked if it would tell him ‗what he was missing‘. The feeling of that he was (line 2) missing something was a step in the exactly right direction, but the fact that he 1 ______ had lived in England for 45 years without setting his foot in the theatre for an 2 ______ opera performance was a reflection on thee small part that opera plays in the 3 ______ lives of the majority of intelligent people in Britain. The basic appeal of opera is 4 ______ to the heart, if not the head, and the British find the outpouring of emotion and 5 ______ passionate melody feel a little embarrassing. Unlike for the Italians, the Germans 6 ______ and the French, the British have no native operatic tradition of long standing, and 7 ______ so this opera has remained a largely suspect foreign import, which indulged in by 8 ______ the rich, and condemned by intellectuals on the old premise that ‗anything too 9 ______ silly to be said, could be sung‘. Opera is not really something like that at all. 10 _____ The half of its origins may be aristocratic, but the other half are firmly rooted in the songs, stories and dances of such popular entertainment through the centuries.

PRACTICE TEST 39 PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR – 50 pts TASK 1 (20 pts) Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D to complete the sentences from 1 to 20. Question 1: Even in modern times, the ______ of early marriages is still common in Vietnam. A. practice B. habit C. institution D. tradition Question 2: Sue spent so much money during her holiday that her bank account is now $5000 ______. A. in the red B. out of the blue C. in the pink D. over the moon Question 3: A new computer has been produced, which will ______ all previous models. A. overdo B. supersede C. excel D. overwhelm Question 4: Most teenagers go through a rebellious ______ for a few years but they soon grow out of it. A. stint B. span C. duration D. phase Question 5: Nobody told Maria to get dinner ready. She did it of her own ______. A. desire B. accord C. idea D. will Question 6: After several hours on that road, they became ______ to the fact that they would never reach the hotel by nightfall. A. dejected B. resigned C. depressed D. disillusioned Question 7: He‘s a nice guy, always ready to do everybody a good ______. A. present B. play C. turn D. pleasure Question 8: The ______ of her family following the divorce was a great shock to the children. A. break-down B. break-in C. break-up D. break-out Question 9: I don‘t know if Julie is really sick, or she is just ______. She knows clearly that I am expecting her. A. pulling my leg B. calling it a day C. putting her back up D. lifting her finger Question 10: She went on and on about how she admired his work – laid it on a bit ______, if you ask me. A. sticky B. soft C. sick D. thick Question 11: Anna is a nervous child and she‘s very ______ of strangers. A. frightened B. petrified C. horrified D. terrified Question 12: I tried to ______ for my misunderstanding her by sending her a bunch of flowers. A. make do B. make amends C. make light D. make over Question 13: The snow-storm is really playing ______ with rush-hour traffic. A. along B. cat and mouse C. havoc D. trick Question 14: Only a generation ago, the computer was ______ unknown to most people. A. credibly B. considerably C. unmistakably D. virtually Question 15: Journalists received a ______ warning not to go anywhere near the battleship. A. strict B. firm C. stern D. hard Question 16: After hours of being questioned, he finally ______ to committing the crime. A. confided B. intimated C. confessed D. disclosed Question 17: A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ______, it will stop burning. A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However Question 18: ______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell. A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to Question 19: ______ the increasing depletion of the Earth resources, it‘s vital to recycle on a wider scale than we do at present. A. Given B. In spite of C. Irrespective of D. Providing Question 20: ______ the two sisters, Mary is ______. A. Of – the prettier B. Between – the prettiest C. Of – prettier D. Between – the prettier TASK 2 (10 pts) In the following passage, there are 10 words which need correction. Find and correct them in your answer sheet. Years ago, before any of you were born, a wise Frenchman said, ―If youth knew; if age could.‖ We all know what he meant: that when you are young, you have the power to do anything, but you don‘t know what to do. Then, when you have got old and experience and observation have taught you answers, you are tired, frightened; you don‘t care, you want to be left alone as far as you yourself are safe; you no longer have the capacity or the will to grieve over Line 5

Line 10

Line 15

Line 20

any wrongs but your own. So you young men and women in this room tonight, and in thousands of other rooms like this one about the earth today, have the power to change the world, rid it forever with war and injustice and suffering, provided you know how, know what to do. And so according to the old Frenchman, since you can‘t know what to do because you are young, then anyone stands here with a head full of white hair, should be capable to tell you. But maybe this one is not as old and wise as his white hairs pretend or claim. Because he can‘t give you a glib answer or pattern too. But he can tell you this, because he believes this. Which threatens us today is fear. Not the atom bomb, nor even the fear of it, because if the bomb fell on Oxford tonight, all it could do would be to kill us, that is nothing, since in doing this, it will have robbed itself of its only power over us: which is fear of it, the being afraid of it. Our danger is not that. Our danger is the forces in the world today which are trying to use man‘s fear to rob him of his individual, his soul, trying to reduce him to an unthinking mass by fear and bribery— giving him free food which he has not earned, easy and valueless money which he has not worked for; the economies or ideologies or political systems, socialist or democratic, whatever they wish to call them, the tyrants and the politicians, American or European or Asiatic, who would reduce man to one obedient mass for their own aggrandizement and power, or because they themselves are baffled and afraid, afraid of, or incapable of, believing in man‘s capacity for courage and enduring and sacrifice.

Line 25

ANSWER Line

Mistake

Correction

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 TASK 3 (10 pts) Fill in each blank with ONE suitable preposition or particle to complete the following sentences. Question 31: The old lady‘s savings were considerable as she had put ______ a little money each week. Question 32: Most of the delegates said they wanted to press ______ with the talks, though it sounded implausible. Question 33: The fighting which started in the night had petered ______ by morning. Question 34: I can‘t make anything ______ his writing – it‘s illegible. Question 35: It was such a sad film that we were all reduced ______ tears in the end. Question 36: The loud music brought ______ another one of his headaches. Question 37: It‘s high time Bill got a steady job and settled ______. He‘s over thirty now. Question 38: The prisoner is still ______ large, which caused the public great concern. Question 39: The couple broke ______, and it looked like they would never be the same again. Question 40: With the bus arriving late from time to time, I am ______ the impression that the company‘s service is very unprofessional. TASK 4 (10 pts) Fill in each gap with the correct form of the words given IN CAPITAL at the end of each line. Rubber bullets are designed to ______ people rather than kill them. Question 41: CAPACITY A lot of ______ children grow up to struggle in their own lives. Question 42: ADJUST In Vietnam, those invited to a meal are not ______ ones who pay for it. Question 43: CUSTOM The football fan club was supposedly ______, so when it joined the POLITICS Question 44: campaign to support the Republican candidate, its members went out in protest. Madame Curie was known for her ______ service to the development of SELF Question 45:

science. Today, demand for zinc - a lightweight, ______ metal favoured in the RUST car and construction industries - has remained steady. A self-confessed ______, Tony can't remember when he last had a WORK Question 47: holiday. The loan was controversial as some organizations felt the country had PLACE Question 48: ______ priorities. The investigation into the air crash would inevitably ______ blame to PORTION Question 49: certain members of the crew. Depression can make a new mother ______ to her baby. Question 50: RESPOND PART THREE: READING – 50 pts TASK 1 (10 pts) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that BEST fits the blank space in the following passage. (1) __________ popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has (2) __________ up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical (3) __________. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to (4) __________. To specify the job description of a webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software that the website will manage to run (5) __________. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally. Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create requiring (6) __________ knowledge of the latest computer applications. (7) __________, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high (8) __________. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a ―new media‘. The term ―new media‖ is difficult to define because it encompasses a (9) __________ growing set of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, (10) __________ reality, and computer artistry. Question 1: A. Apart from B. Contrary to C. Prior to D. In contrast to Question 2: A. taken B. sped C. set D. opened Question 3: A. expertise B. master C. efficiency D. excellency Question 4: A. conduct B. perform C. undergone D. overtake Question 5: A. on B. over C. in D. with Question 6: A. built-in B. up-market C. in-service D. in-depth Question 7: A. However B. Therefore C. Moreover D. Then Question 8: A. content B. demand C. reference D. requirement Question 9: A. constantly B. continually C. increasingly D. invariably Question 10: A. fancy B. imaginative C. illusive D. virtual TASK 2 (15 pts) Read the following passage and fill in each of the numbered blanks with ONE suitable word. You know those tales of lost youth that spring (11) __________ actors who are too successful too soon? You will probably not hear any about Daniel Radcliffe, who (12) __________ up his alter-ego Harry Potter for the fourth boy-wizard film saga, ―Harry Potter and the Goblet of Fire‖, opening Nov. 18 (after its premiere Saturday in New York City). ―If childhood is being surrounded by people who you love being around and being incredibly happy, then I absolutely have had that,‖ he says. ―It‘s (13) __________ a bizarre childhood - strange, but great.‖ Radcliffe, now an articulate 16-year-old, has not been arrested, has not warred with his parents over his millions now tucked away, or thrown hissy fits on the set. What in the name of Macaulay Culkin is going on? ―They all know exactly (14) __________ they‘re worth,‖ ―Goblet‖ director Mike Newell says of Radcliffe and co-stars Emma Watson and Rupert Grint, ―but they have not become impossible.‖ Radcliffe became a global icon as a 10-year-old when he won a worldwide casting call to (15) __________ life into the hero from J. K. Rowling‘s best-(16) __________ fantasy books. Despite endless adoration, he seems to be avoiding that notorious fraternity of thespian lads who turn rotten. Question 46:

In a one-to-one conversation at a London hotel, the 5-foot-7 Radcliffe, without those H.P. spectacles, emerges as very (17) __________ a boy, but with a showman‘s polish that no abracadabra could evoke when he first wielded a magic (18) __________. He makes small talk before the first question IS popped and, later, in a press conference, works the room like a professional comedian. He has never been stung by a bad (19) __________ or an unflattering portrait. That is because he has never read any of his press. His parents, Alan Radcliffe and Marcia Gresham, have provided a magic carpet ride into puberty by (20) __________ him from both the adulation and the evisceration. TASK 3 (10 pts) Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions followed. The following excerpt discusses the contributions of Susan B. Anthony (1820-1906), a political advocate for temperance, education reform, the abolition of slavery, and most famously women's civil rights When Susan B. Anthony, a tireless worker for temperance, was refused the right to speak at an 1853 Sons of Temperance convention because she was a woman, she left the meeting and Line 5 called her own. A lifetime of accumulated frustration at not being listened to simply because of her gender had come to a head. She and Elizabeth Cady Stanton founded the Women's State Temperance Association that year, and delivered a petition containing over 28,000 signatures to the New York State legislature in order to pass a law limiting the sale of alcohol. The legislature rejected it because most of the signatures were from women and children. Anthony knew that Line 10 women needed the power to vote in order for their views ever to be taken seriously by politicians. Anthony had been introduced in a significant way to the women's suffrage movement in 1851. She wrote pro-temperance articles for the nation's first woman-owned periodical, the Lily, and became acquainted with the paper's editor, Amelia Bloomer. Bloomer introduced her to Elizabeth Stanton, and the two women formed a friendship and political alliance that lasted the Line 15 rest of their lives. From this point on, Anthony and Stanton worked ceaselessly together in support of women's rights. Anthony lectured, traveled, and organized conventions on the topic, while Stanton wrote speeches and articles and generated ideas for the two of them to promote. They collected signatures for a petition to grant women the right to vote and own property, and in 1860 their work was rewarded in the New York legislature with the Married Women's Property Line 20 Act, which allowed some women to own property and enter into legal contracts. Throughout this work, Anthony became widely recognized as the face of the women's rights movement. She also began to receive unwelcome attention. Male columnists from antisuffrage papers mocked her cruelly. She was confronted by armed mobs and received threats of physical harm from those whose politics were threatened by her own. The prevailing tactic of her Line 25 opponents was to ridicule her unladylike attempts at insisting that the minds of women and men were no different. Political cartoons from the day put Anthony and Stanton side by side with George Washington, or showed members of the women's suffrage movement crossing the Delaware in grandiose fashion, in order to make fun of their supposed self-importance. (Ironically, of course, modern viewers looking at these cartoons can't figure out what the joke is. Line 30 In this century's perception, putting Susan B. Anthony next to a great figure like George Washington seems hardly inappropriate.) Despite all her enemies, though, Anthony had a fair complement of influential allies in civil rights circles and managed to win the respect and admiration of some, if not a majority, of the public. With the support of such like-minded folks as Stanton, Bloomer, and Frederick Douglass (an escaped slave who became a publisher and Line 35 campaigned vociferously and successfully for the abolition of slavery), Anthony managed to advocate for women's rights on a larger and larger scale. In 1868, the Fourteenth Amendment was adopted, which asserted that all people born in the United States were citizens and that no legal privileges could be denied to any citizen. Anthony claimed that since the language of the amendment did not specify gender, it meant that Line 40 women were citizens and could therefore legally vote. She registered to vote in New York in 1872. On Election Day, she and fifteen other women voted in the presidential election. Three weeks later, they were all arrested, and Anthony was brought to trial. The presiding judge opposed women's suffrage. He had written his decision before the trial began and, refusing to allow Anthony to testify, ordered the jury to find her guilty. She was fined $100 plus court fees. Line 45 When she refused to pay, though, the judge did not imprison her, thus denying her the opportunity to appeal and send the case to a higher court where it might have gotten more national attention. Before and during the Civil War, Anthony and most of the rest of the women's movement

Line 50

Line 55

Line 60

allied themselves with the abolitionist movement. "All rights for all!" the subtitle of Frederick Douglass's pro-abolitionist paper, became the unofficial motto of every facet of civil rights work. It was Anthony's hope that if she used the influence she had created in the women's movement to support black emancipation and suffrage, the Republican Party would support women's suffrage in return. She was surprised and disappointed when, in 1870, the Fifteenth Amendment was adopted to extend the vote specifically to black men only. It was the first time the word "male" had been written into the constitution, and Anthony felt abandoned and betrayed by the people she had worked so hard to support. This event spawned some regrettably racist commentary by Anthony, who bitterly wrote that educated white women would make better voters than "ignorant" black men. Despite her disillusionment and disappointment, she and Stanton continued to work for the female vote, this time without abolitionist support. Together they formed the National Woman Suffrage Association and later the National American Woman Suffrage Association (NAWSA). Though by the time of her death in 1906, she had not seen a federal amendment granting women the right to vote, her work was not in vain. In 1920, one hundred years after Susan B. Anthony's birth, the Nineteenth Amendment finally gave adult American women the right to vote.

Line 65

Question 21:

Question 22:

Question 23:

Question 24:

Question 25:

Question 26:

Question 27:

The passage provides the most information about Anthony's __________. A. enduring friendships B. racism C. ineffectiveness as a speaker D. advocacy for female suffrage E. work for temperance The passage suggests that the New York State legislature did not accept the petition to limit the sale of alcohol (paragraph 1) because __________. A. they did not think that women and children were wise enough to propose legislation B. it was too politically unpopular to restrict the sale of alcohol C. they were out of touch with their constituency D. the opinions of nonvoters were of less interest to elected officials E. petitions were generally ignored in state governments in those days The discussion of political cartoons featuring Susan B. Anthony (paragraph 3) suggests that Anthony __________. A. had a reputation equivalent to that of George Washington during her lifetime B. grew in importance in the public eye in the decades after her death C. knew George Washington personally D. was considered much more important when she was alive than she is today E. was a failure as a political activist In context, the word "complement" (line 38) most nearly means __________. A. praise B. assistance C. contribution D. dearth E. number In paragraph 3, the passage mainly suggests which of the following about Frederick Douglass? A. He was interested in more than one political cause. B. He had little in common with Anthony politically. C. He cared only about abolition. D. He thought that black men, but not women, should be allowed to vote. E. He was an advocate of temperance. The discussion of Anthony's refusal to pay her court fees (paragraph 4) suggests that Anthony was __________. A. a tightwad who wouldn't let go of money B. more committed to court reform than to women's rights C. supportive of civil disobedience as her most effective political tactic D. a political tactician who tried to attract as much notice to her cause as possible E. not very well-off financially Anthony probably believed that her support of the abolitionists would have the effect of __________. A. making the abolition movement much stronger

Question 28:

Question 29:

Question 30:

B. exposing her own hidden racism C. hurting the Republican Party D. making politicians pay attention to the views of women E. furthering the cause of women's suffrage In context, the phrase "in vain" (line 73) most nearly means __________. A. conceited B. relating to blood C. for nothing D. effective E. handy As presented in the passage, Susan B. Anthony's politics most closely coincided with those of __________. A. Frederick Douglass B. Amelia Bloomer C. George Washington D. the Sons of Temperance E. Elizabeth Cady Stanton According to the passage, Anthony most fervently supported __________. A. abolishing slavery B. temperance, or restricting the sale of alcohol C. the Republican Party D. giving the vote to all women born in the United States E. an end to female suffering in the United States

TASK 4 (15 pts) You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 31-40 which are based on Reading Passage below. THE PURSUIT OF HAPPINESS "New research uncovers some anti-intuitive insights into how many people are happy - and why." _____________________________ Compared with misery, happiness is relatively unexplored terrain for social scientists, Between 1967 and 1994, 46,380 articles indexed in Psychological Abstracts mentioned depression, 36,851 anxiety, and 5,099 anger. Only 2,389 spoke of happiness, 2,340 life satisfaction, and 405 joy. Recently we and other researchers have begun a systematic study of happiness. During the past two decades, dozens of investigators throughout the world have asked several hundred thousand Representative sampled people to reflect on their happiness and satisfaction with life or what psychologists call "subjective well-being". In the US the National Opinion Research Center at the University of Chicago has surveyed a representative sample of roughly 1,500 people a year since 1957; the Institute for Social Research at the University of Michigan has carried out similar studies on a less regular basis, as has the Gallup Organization. Government-funded efforts have also probed the moods of European countries. We have uncovered some surprising findings. People are happier than one might expect, and happiness does not appear to depend significantly on external circumstances. Although viewing life as a tragedy has a long and honorable history, the responses of random samples of people around the world about their happiness paints a much rosier picture. In the University of Chicago surveys, three in 10 Americans say they are very happy, for example. Only one in 10 chooses the most negative description "not too happy". The majority describe themselves as "pretty happy", ... How can social scientists measure something as hard to pin down as happiness? Most researchers simply ask people to report their feelings of happiness or unhappiness and to assess how satisfying their lives are. Such self-reported well-being is moderately consistent over years of retesting. Furthermore, those who say they are happy and satisfied seem happy to their close friends and family members and to a psychologistinterviewer. Their daily mood ratings reveal more positive emotions, and they smile more than those who call themselves unhappy. Self-reported happiness also predicts other indicators of well-being. Compared with the depressed, happy people are less self-focused, less hostile and abusive, and less susceptible to disease. We have found that the even distribution of happiness cuts across almost all demographic classifications of age, economic class, race and educational level. In addition, almost all strategies for assessing subjective well-being - including those that sample people's experience by polling them at random times with beepers - turn up similar findings. Interviews with representative samples of people of all ages, for example, reveal that no time of life is notably happier or unhappier. Similarly, men and women are equally likely to declare themselves "very happy" and "satisfied" with life, according to a statistical digest of 146 studies by Marilyn J, Haring, William Stock and Morris A, Okun, all then at Arizona State University. Wealth is also a poor predictor of happiness. People have not become happier over time as their cultures have become more affluent. Even though Americans earn twice as much in today's dollars as they did in 1957, the proportion of those telling surveyors from the National Opinion Research Center that they are "very happy" has declined from 35 to 29 percent.

Even very rich people - those surveyed among Forbes magazine's 100 wealthiest Americans - are only slightly happier than the average American. Those whose income has increased over a 10-year period are not happier than those whose income is stagnant. Indeed, in most nations the correlation between income and happiness is negligible - only in the poorest countries, such as Bangladesh and India, is income a good measure of emotional well-being. Are people in rich countries happier, by and large, than people in not so rich countries? It appears in general that they are, but the margin may be slim. In Portugal, for example, only one in 10 people reports being very happy, whereas in the much more prosperous Netherlands the proportion of very happy is four in 10. Yet there are curious reversals in this correlation between national wealth and well-being -the Irish during the 1980s consistently reported greater life satisfaction than the wealthier West Germans. Furthermore, other factors, such as civil rights, literacy and duration of democratic government, all of which also promote reported life satisfaction, tend to go hand in hand with national wealth, As a result, it is impossible to tell whether the happiness of people in wealthier nations is based on money or is a by-product of other felicities. Although happiness is not easy to predict from material circumstances, it seems consistent for those who have it, In one National Institute on Aging study of 5,000 adults, the happiest people in 1973 were still relatively happy a decade later, despite changes in work, residence and family status. Questions 31-34 According to the passage, which of the findings below (31-34) is quoted by which Investigative Body (AG)? NB There are more Investigative Bodies than findings, so you do not have to use all of them. Question 31: Happiness is not gender related. Question 32: Over fifty per cent of people consider themselves to be 'happy'. Question 33: Happiness levels are marginally higher for those in the top income brackets. Question 34: 'Happy' people remain happy throughout their lives. Investigative Bodies A The National Opinion Research Center, University of Chicago B Arizona State University С The Institute for Social Research, University of Michigan D Forbes Magazine E The National Institute on Aging F The Gallup Organization G The Government Questions 35-40 Complete the summary of Reading Passage below. Choose your answers from the box at the bottom of the page and write them in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet. NB There are more words than spaces so you will not use them all. You may use any of the words more than once. HOW HAPPY ARE WE? Example : Answer Our happiness levels are ......... by relatively few factors. affected For example, incomes in the States have (35) __________ over the past forty years but happiness levels have (36) __________ over the same period. In fact, people on average incomes are only slightly (37) __________ happy than extremely rich people and a gradual increase in prosperity makes (38) __________ difference to how happy we are. In terms of national wealth, populations of wealthy nations are (39) __________ happier than those who live in poorer countries. Although in some cases this trend is (40) __________ and it appears that other factors need to be considered. LIST OF WORDS stopped slightly too great doubled significant similar some stabilized remarkably reversed dropped no less much affected crept up slowed down more clearly PART FOUR: WRITING – 50 pts TASK 1 (10 pts) Rewrite the sentences, using the word given IN CAPITAL. You can‟t change the word under any

circumstances. Question 1: Everybody wants Pauline as an after-dinner speaker. DEMAND __________________________________________________________________ Question 2: My jewelry has been stolen! OFF __________________________________________________________________ Question 3: Tom‘s presence at parties adds to everyone‘s enjoyment. SOUL __________________________________________________________________ Question 4: He owed his rescue to a passer-by. INDEBTED __________________________________________________________________ Question 5: They have discovered some interesting new information. LIGHT __________________________________________________________________ TASK 2 (10 pts) Complete the following sentences in a way that the second one means exactly the same as the origina l one. Question 6: Most people know that becoming an actor is difficult.  It is common _____________________________________________________ Question 7: The young actress was very nervous before the audition.  The young actress had butterflies _____________________________________ Question 8: The community spoke enthusiastically about the recently elected mayor.  The community sang ______________________________________________ Question 9: The new musical has delighted theatre audiences throughout the country.  The new musical has taken __________________________________________ Question 10: Even now, I still don‘t understand why he did it.  To this __________________________________________________________ ___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 40 A. PHONETICS AND PHONOLOGY. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. 1. A. asymmetric B. ahistorical C. oceanic D. aide 2. A. covet B. diagnosis C. poultry D. jovial 3. A. mistletoe B. subtle C. ballet D. depot 4. A. etiquette B. conqueror C. bequest D. statuesque 5. A. mezzanine B. Switzerland C. pizza D. pretzel Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. 6. A. biomass B. interface C. kerosene D. karate 7. A. domain B. duet C. linguist D. postpone 8. A. respiratory B. environmental C. laboratory D. agricultured 9. A. petroleum B. hierarchy C. psychiatry D. contributory 10. A. paralysis B. paradoxical C. archaeologist D. disembodied B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts) Part 1. Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. (10 pts) 1. Joanna was a very dominant mother who tried to ____________ her wishes on her children. A. suppress B. impose C. dictate D. rule 2. Mary became totally ____________ in her novel and forgot to cook the dinner. A. engrossed B. dedicated C. devoted D. concerned 3. I can‘t understand why he can‘t find a job when he has such a ____________ of talent and creativity. A. flare B. wealth C. plenty D. number 4. With his excellent qualifications and a good command of English, James is ____________ above the other applicants. A. head and hair B. head and ears C. head and hands D. head and shoulders 5. Teachers have the authority to discipline pupils by ____________ of their position as teachers. A. view B. virtue C. means D. way 6. The young man committed the crime ____________ the influence of drugs. A. under B. on C. with D. by 7. The new curriculum has been designed to ____________ students learning by combining theory with hands-on practice. A. endow B. optimize C. sharpen D. estimate 8. We would like to pay ____________to all the artists who made this wonderful festival possible. A. praise B. reward C. tribute D. thanks 9. Don‘t you feel the problems needs to be ____________ head-on? A. solved B. worked out C. ironed out D. tackled 10. The office is ____________ so some people will have to be made redundant. A. overstaffed B. overcharged C. undersized D. underused Part 2. Read the text and find 5 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the mistake is. (5 pts) Television lie at the heart of American culture, offer a combination of news and amusement. It is not surprising, therefore, that daytime talk shows, the ultimate blend of information and entertainment, are earning top rate. Talk show producers and hosts claim that the purpose of air all sorts of problems on national television 5 is to benefit viewers. They say they provide useful information and have helped to create a more sensitive and educational public. Many of those who have appeared as guests say doing so changed their lives, and the shows can certainly take the credit for giving a lot of people information they would not otherwise have had. So do the shows provide a service by allowing people to work through issues that 10 would otherwise be swept under the carpet? Or is there a danger that viewers will regard the self-centered and thoughtful behavior they see in these programs as a model of how to live their own lives? Your answers: Line Correction

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 pts)

1. Why have you suddenly stopped eating fish? What put you __________it? 2. June won‘t be going to prison. The judge let her __________ with just a caution this time. 3. The teacher asked the pupils who had broken the chair, but at first no one owned __________. 4. The wallpaper was very old and was coming __________ the walls. 5. The meeting dragged __________ and I got more and more bored. Part 4. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (15 pts) The Mayas developed the only pre-Columbian writing in the Americas and devised an intricate astronomy to chart the movements of the heavens. Archaeologists have been (1) __________________ (MYSTERY) as to why their civilization seems to have collapsed abruptly in the ninth century, resulting in the (2) __________________ (ABANDON) of flourishing cities. However, a team of Mexican and American archaeologists have recently(3) __________________ (EARTH) a monumental art work that may give some clues to their sudden (4) __________________ (APPEAR). While digging at Palenque, in the Yucatan peninsula, the researchers (5) __________________ (COVER) a bench-like throne more than 2.8m wide and 1.7m deep in vermilion-painted limestone. The archaeologists say the grandeur of the throne and the (6) __________________ (SPACE) of the palace that houses it indicate that the last rulers of Palenque were more ambitious and (7) __________________ (POWER) than had once been thought. The throne itself was built in about AD760 by one of the last Mayan rulers and is adorned with at least 200 hieroglyphs and six sculptured portraits. The experts hope that once the (8) __________________ (SCRIBE) have been deciphered, something which could take time, they may disclose the (9) __________________ (ACHIEVE) and aspirations of the Mayas in the decades before their demise and lead to a better (10) __________________ (STAND) of the reasons for their decline. C. READING COMPREHENSION (60 pts) Part 1. For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context. (10 pts) NEVER TOO OLD TO LEARN! Education is a life-long process that not only provides us with basic skills such as literacy and numeracy, but is also essential in (1) our future lives. From the moment we enter kindergartens as small children, and as we progress through primary and secondary education, we (2) the foundations for the life ahead of us. We must discipline ourselves to work hard (3) we can pass exams and gain the qualifications we will need to secure a good job. We must also acquire valuable life skills so that we can fit in and work with those around us. And of course health education helps us to understand (4) we can stay fit and healthy. For most people, this process ends when they are in their mid-to-late teens. For others, however, it is the beginning of a lifetime of learning. After they finish school, many (5) to further education where they will learn more useful skills such as computer literacy or basic business management. (6) will enroll on a program of higher education at a university where, with hard work, they will have the opportunity to graduate after three or four years with a well-earned degree. After that, they may work for a while before opting to study for a higher degree- an MA, for example, or a PhD. Alternatively, they may choose to attend an evening class after work or, if they have a sympathetic employer, (7) day release so that they can study during the week. And if they live a long way from a college or university, they might follow a (8) course using mail and the Internet. (9) , it is largely due to the proliferation of computers that many people have started to study again and can proudly class themselves as mature students. We live in a fascinating and constantly changing world, and we must continually learn and (10) new knowledge if we are to adapt and keep up with changing events. Our schooldays are just the beginning of this process, and we should make the best of every opportunity to develop ourselves, whether we are eighteen or eighty. You are, indeed, never too old to learn. 1. A. forming B. shaping C. moulding D. leading 2. A. are lying B. are laying C. are replacing D.are building 3. A. in order to B. so as that C. so that D. in case 4. A. how B. what C. when D. where 5. A. progress B. continue C. move D. pursue 6. A. The others B. Another C. The other D. Others 7. A. ask B. obtain C. achieve D. bring 8. A. writing B. correspondence C. mail D.self-study 9. A. As a result B. Particularly C. What's more D. In fact 10. A. enrich B. acquire C. widen D. broaden Part 2. Fill ONE suitable word in each blank. (10 pts) If we measure the seasons, as in the past they have been, by ordinary natural events such as the departure of migrating birds or the appearance of the first flower, (1)________________ spring now begins

in November and autumn ends in December. (2) ________________ may seem an unlikely situation to us, but in actual fact, data shows that spring now occurs ten to thirty days earlier than it did, while recent research bears (3) ________________ that autumn is arriving later. Traditional data on phenology, the study of the timing of natural events goes (4) ________________ to 1736 in Britain, taken (5) ________________ isolation, phonological data may not mean much, but the received wisdom from ecology is about interconnectedness. (6)________________, with higher temperatures in winter, some species will breed earlier and then find that their food source has been destroyed (7) ________________ winter finally arrives. Competition for winter food will probably increase too, as birds stop migrating south in winter, as has already happened in a (8) ________________ of cases (9) ________________ it is often difficult to be certain that seasonal trends are progressive and not cyclical, those involved in analyzing the information see the fingerprints of global warming (10) ________________ this blurring of the seasons‘ edges. Part 3. Read the following passage and answer the questions The reading passage has seven paragraphs (A-G). For questions 1-6, choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of heading below List of headings i. Why some early social science methods lost popularity. ii.The cost implications of research iii. Looking ahead to an unbiased assessment of research iv. A range of social issues that have been usefully studied v. An example of a poor decision that was made too quickly vi. What happens when the figures are wrong vii One area of research that is rigorously carried out viii The changing nature of medical trials ix An investigate study that may lead to a new system x Why some scientists‘ theories are considered second-rate Example Paragraph A: x 1.Paragraph B ______________ 2.Paragraph C ______________ 3.Paragraph D ______________ 4.Paragraph E ______________ 5.Paragraph F ______________ 6.Paragraph G ______________ TRY IT AND SEE A.In the scientific pecking order, social scientists are usually looked down on by their peers in the natural sciences. Natural scientists do experiments to test their theories or, if they cannot, they to look for natural phenomena that can act in lieu of experiments. Social scientists, it is widely thought, do not subject their own hypotheses to any such rigorous treatment. Worse, they peddle their untested hypotheses to government and try to get them turned into policies. B. Governments require sellers of new medicines to demonstrate their safety and effectiveness. The accepted gold standard of evidence is a randomized control trial, in which a new drug is compared with their best existing therapy (or with a placebo, if no treatment is available). Patients are assigned to one arm or the other of such a study at random, ensuring that the only difference between the two groups is the new treatment. The best studies also ensure that neither patient nor physician knows which patient is allocated to which therapy. Drug trials must also include enough patients to make it unlikely that chance alone may determine the result. C. But few education programs or social initiatives are evaluated in carefully conducted studies prior to their introduction. A case in point is the ―whole-language‖ approach to reading, which swept much of the English speaking world in the 1970s and 1980s. The whole-language theory holds that children learn to read best by absorbing contextual clues from texts, not by breaking individual words into their component parts and reassembling them (a method known as phonics). Unfortunately, the educational theorists who pushed the whole-language notion so successfully did not wait for evidence from controlled randomized trials before advancing their claims. Had they done so, they might have concluded, as did an analysis of randomized studies carried out by the US National Reading Panel in 2000, that effective reading instruction requires phonics. D. To avoid the widespread adoption of misguided ideas, the sensible thing is to experiment first and make policy later. This is the idea behind a trial of restorative justice which is taking place in the English courts. The experiment will include criminals who plead guilty to robbery. Those who agree to participate will be

assigned randomly either to sentencing as normal or to participation in a conference in which the offender comes face to face with his victim and discusses how he may make emotional and material restitution. The purpose of the trial is to assess whether such restorative justice limits reoffending. If it does, it might be adopted more widely. E. The idea of experimental evidence is not quite new to the social science as sneering natural scientists might believe. In fact, randomized trials and systematic reviews of evidence were introduced into the social sciences long before they became common in medicine. An apparent example of random allocation is a study carried out in 1927 of how to persuade people to vote in elections. And randomized trials in social work were begun in the 1930s and 1940s. But enthusiasm later waned. This loss of interest can be attributed, at least in part, to the fact that early experiments produced little evidence of positive outcomes. Others suggest that much of the opposition to experimental evaluation stems from a common philosophical malaise among social scientists, who doubt the validity of the natural sciences, and therefore reject the potential of knowledge derived from controlled experiments. A more pragmatic factor limiting the growth of evidence-based education and social services may be limitations on the funds available for research. F. Nevertheless, some 11,000 experimental studies are known in the social sciences (compared with over 250,000 in the medical literature). Randomized trials have been used to evaluate the effectiveness of drivereducation programmes, job-training schemes, classroom size, psychological counseling for post traumatic stress disorder and increased investment in public housing. And where they are carried out, they seems to have a healthy dampening effect on otherwise rosy interpretations of the observations. G. The problem for policymakers is often not too few data, but what to make of multiple and conflicting studies. This is where a body called the Campbell Collaboration comes into its own. This independent nonprofit organization is designed to evaluate existing studies, in a process known as a systematic review. This means attempting to identify every relevant trial of a given question (including studies that have never been published), choosing the best ones using clearly defined criteria for quality, and combining the results in a statistically valid way. An equivalent body, the Cochrane Collaboration, has produced more than 1,000 such reviews in medical fields. The hope is that rigorous review standard will allow Campbell, like Cochrane, to become a trusted and authoritative source of information. For questions 7-10, choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Fighting Crime Some criminals in England are agreeing to take part in a trial designed to help reduce their chances of (7)_________________. The idea is that while one group of randomly selected criminals undergoes the usual (8)_________________, the other group will discuss the possibility of making some repayment for the crime by meeting the (9)_________________. It is yet to be seen whether this system, known as (10) _________________, will work. Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answers (A, B, C or D) to the questions. Population ecology is the science that measures changes in population size and composition and identifies the causes of these fluctuations. Population ecology is not concerned solely with the human population. In ecological terms, a population consists of the individuals of one species that simultaneously occupy the same general area, rely on the same resources, and are affected by similar environmental factors. The characteristics of a population are shaped by its size and by the interactions among individuals and between individuals and their environment. Population size is a balance between factors that increase numbers and factors that decrease numbers. Some factors that increase populations are favourable light and temperature, adequate food supply, suitable habitat, ability to compete for resource, and ability to adapt to environmental change. Factors that decrease populations are insufficient or excessive light and temperature, inadequate food supply, unsuitable or destroyed habitat, too many competitors for resources, and inability to adapt to environmental change. Another important characteristic of any population is its density. Population density is the number of individuals per units, such as the number of maple trees per square kilometer in a county. Ecologists can rarely determine population size by actually counting all individuals within geographical boundaries. Instead, they often use a variety of sampling techniques to estimate densities and total population sizes. For example, they might estimate the number of black bears in a national park by counting individuals in a few sample plots representative of the whole park. In some cases, they estimate population size through indirect indicators, such as the number of nests or burrows, or signs such as tracks or droppings. Another important population characteristic, dispersion, is the pattern of spacious among individuals within the population‘s geographical boundaries. Various species are distributed in their habitats in different ways to take better advantage of food supplies and shelter, and to avoid predators or find prey. Within a population‘s range, densities may vary greatly because not all areas provide equally suitable habitat, and also because individuals space themselves in relation to other members of the population.

Three possible patterns of dispersion are clumped, uniform, and random. A clumped dispersion pattern means that individuals are gathered in patches throughout their habitat. Clumping often results from the irregular distribution of resources needed for survival and reproduction. For example, fallen trees keep the forest floor moist, and many forest insects are clumped under logs where the humidity is to their liking. Clumping may also be associated with mating, safety, or other social behavior. Crane flies, for example, swarm in great numbers, a behavior that increases mating chances, and some fish swim in large schools so they are less likely to be eaten by predators. A uniform or evenly spaced distribution results from direct interactions among individuals in the population. For example, regular spacing of plants may result from shading and competitions for water. In animal populations, uniform distribution is usually caused by competition for some resource or by social interactions that set up individual territories for feeding, breeding, or testing. Random spacing occurs in the absence of strong attraction or repulsion among individuals in a population. Overall, random pattern are rare in nature, with most populations showing a tendency toward either clumped or uniform distribution. Populations change in size, structure, and distribution as they respond to changes in environmental conditions. Four main variables- births, deaths, immigration and emigration – determine the rate of change in the size of the population over time. A change in the birth rate or death is the major way that most populations respond to changes in resource availability. Members of some animal species can avoid or reduce the effects of another with more favorable environmental conditions, thus altering the population‘s dispersion. 1.According to the passage, which factor might cause the population of a species to decrease in size? A. A favorable amount of light and water B. An ability to hide from or defend against predators C. A large number of other species competing for food D. A greater number of births than deaths 2. Which of the following is an indirect indicator of a population‘s density? A. The distribution of food in a given area B. The number of nests in a given area C. The number of births in a given period of time D. The number of individuals counted in a given area 3. The distribution pattern of individuals within a population‘s geographical boundaries is known as A. population ecology B. population density C. population change D. population dispersion 4. The word range in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. territory B. control C. history D. shelter 5. The word patches in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. dark places B. family groups C. warm spots D. small areas 6. The word their in paragraph 5 refers to A. resources B. trees C. insects D. logs 7. All of the following are given as reasons for clumping EXCEPT A. uneven resource distribution B. territorial disputes C. mating behavior D. safety from predators 8. The phrase set up in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to A. forbid B. establish C. increase D. conceal 9. Which of the following situation s would be most likely to result in a uniform dispersion pattern? A. Birds compete for a place to build their nests B. Fish swim in large schools to avoid predators C. Whales develop strong bonds among relatives D. Elephants form a circle to protect their young 10. Why does the author mention immigration and emigration in paragraph 8? A. To identify factors affecting population dispersion B. To give examples of territorial behavior in animals C. To show that populations balance themselves over time D. To explain why animal populations are uniformly dispersed Part 5. Read the passage, or questions 1-10, choose the appropriate section (A-F) in the article. The sections may be chosen more than once. Is there an architect in the house? We took three offices, each in dire need of improvement, and paired them with three workplace

design experts. Tom Dyckhoff watched their theories put to the test. The multimedia company A. The problem: The reception at Channelfly.com is crammed with ―new office‖ design features: the bashed-up sofas, the table football, the spike-haired staff, Daff Punk on the stereo. But it‘s all front. Behind, it‘s crowded and confusing, with strip lighting, hotch-potch furniture and thirsty spider plants. Not exactly the image of a young multimedia music company. ―We get top musicians like Cerys from Catatonia coming here,‖ says the Managing Director, Jeremy Ledlin. ―We don‘t want it to look like an office.‖ But it just looks ugly. ―Well, we don‘t want it to look like that either.‖ The company has long working hours and a wide range of activities, so it‘s hard to keep coordinated. The claustrophobic, labyrinthine layout doesn‘t help either. B. The solution: Architect Ralph Buschow says, ―The office should be like a city. You need ugly areas too. What they need right now is somewhere to talk, not just the street or the photocopier. Otherwise, people only talk to the same people all the time. There was another office we went to where we put a bar next to the lift and it immediately became a hotbed of idea-swapping. And they need signposts. People want easy clues about how everything connects, or they go crazy. The charity C. The problem: Dreariness, cramped space, stifling ventilation, nasty lighting, carpet tiles, utilitarian furniture- Jim Devereux has it all and the deep dissatisfaction that goes with it. The trouble is money: ―In a charity, it‘s tight.‖ His office, a housing aid center combined from two shops in Fleetwood. Lancashire, is a threadbare, with only a clock, clutter, posters on benefit rates and the like for decor. ―But our biggest bother is there‘s nowhere to go for a break, so everyone has lunch at their desks, and we‘ve got six new staff starting soon. Mind you, you should have seen where we used to work.‖ D. The solution: ―Hmm,‖ sighs architect Mervyn Hill. Sometimes The answer isn‘t design, but rethinking how you work, like how to work flexibly in the space you have: think of computers as workstations, do different jobs in different parts of the office, and keep mobile: not one person tied to a desk all day.‖ But what about the ambience? ―The people here are so committed, they‘d work in a cellar with two candles. A charity shouldn‘t be luxurious, but it needs to be warm. This is Spartan. The bare fluorescent strip lights have to go. Up lights will lift the ceiling, make it sparkle.‖ The call center E. The problem: Account manager Sally Stapleton insists this isn‘t a call center. In fact, she calls where she works in Edinburgh a contact center. ―Compared with other contact center it‘s light and airy, with plants, fresh decor.‖ But a call center‘s a call center, even when it‘s a contact center- with similar problems, such as noise, and mundanity. ―We need to alleviate the repetitive tasks of the agents, so they can enjoy what they‘re selling. We don‘t mind a more casual space. But we‘d draw the line at lots of fluffy animals cluttering up the desks.‖ F. The solution: ―I‘ve seen a lot worse,‖ says Julian Frost wick. He sounds disappointed. ―But there‘s lots to get my teeth into. They need to humanize the space. It‘s very bland and anonymous. They can kill a few birds with one stone by putting in a beautiful new ceiling, a big wave, maybe, and this would break up the space into defined areas. Keep the rest cosmetic, treating the windows for glare, a few colors. A bit of bright red will make it more exciting Adapted from the Guardian Changing the lighting will give this office a more spacious appearance. 1 The problem of this office do not provide enough challenge for the 2 architect. This office requires an area where informal discussions can take place. 3 Some problems in this office can be solved by changing the way the work 4 is organized. We would like our staff to benefit from a more varied routine. 5 The atmosphere of this office could be improved by repainting it. 6 The directors do not want the office to be perceived as very formal. 7 This office would work better if each department was clearly labelled. 8 The situation in this office is likely to get worse. 9 These offices may give visitors a false impression when they first arrive. 10 V. WRITING (60pts) Part 1. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (5pts)

1.Far stricter measures have been introduced to combat drug dealing. CLAMPING The authorities are_______________________________________ drug dealing. 2. The rent takes a large bite out of my salary every month. EATS Paying the rent really _______________________________________ every month. 3. Minnie meant well so you mustn‘t be offended by her comments. AMISS Please _______________________________________because she meant well. 4. I was determined to take advantage of the experience. OUT I would _______________________________________ such an experience for all the world. 5. The closing date for the competition is next Tuesday. ENTRY You _______________________________________ next Tuesday. 6. After years of arguing about who would be the first heir, all the members of the family agreed to forget their differences. HATCHET Who ______________________________________________________________. 7. He has made no effort to conceal his dislike for me ever since I was promoted over him. GRUDGE He has had _________________________________________________________________ . 8. He seems to be more active because he has won a scholarship to study overseas. LEASE That __________________________________________________________________ 9. Sometimes I have got a bad memory, so most importantly I need regular practice. SIEVE First and ___________________________________________________________________ . 10. Maldivies attracts hordes of tourists to its beach resorts and 24-hour bustling nightlife. CLOCK It _____________________________________________________________________ to. ____ THE END____

PRACTICE TEST 41 I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Part 1: Choose the best answer. 1. To make the sauce, ……………. a small bar of chocolate and melt it over a pan of water. A. splash B. hack C. grate D. cut 2. The desk was so …………….. with papers that it was hard to find anything. A. burdened B. cluttered C. overrun D. muddled 3. I‘m afraid we haven‘t got a spare bed. Can you …………. with a mattress on the floor? A. make do B. make by C. make over D. make up 4. What ………… the smoke and the noise, the party made me feel quite ill. A. if B. with C. through D. of 5. Speed limits on the road …………….. to protect pedestrians as well as motorists. A. serve B. prove C. succeed D. intend 6. Tax ………….. deprives the state of several million pounds a year. A. retention B. desertion C. escapism D. evasion 7. When all the students …………….., the professor began his lecture. A. sat B. were sitting C. seated D. were seated 8. What are you going to do when all you money …………… A. runs down B. runs deep C. runs dry D. runs short 9. Fred says that his present job does not provide him with enough ……………… for his organising ability. A. scope B. space C. capacity D. range 10. A few political extremists ………… the crowd to attack the police. A. animated B. agitated C. incited D. stirred 11. Although the new library service has been very successful, its future is______________certain. A. at any rate B. by no means C. by all means D. by any chance 12. Some people can_______________out of their shyness as soon as they are 20. A. move B. change C. grow D. turn 13. Please don‘t talk about the day – I want to______________it all behind me. A. block B. stir C. summon D. put 14. Advertisers often aim their campaigns at young people as they have considerable spending _______? A. power B. strength C. force D. ability 15. The strike was________________owing to a last-minute arrangement with the management A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down 16. The weather is usually mild, although we sometimes get a cold______at he beginning of the year.

A. spell B. term C. interval D. wave 17. Hehad a ___________ escape since the bullet came within inches of his head. A. slender B. close C. near D. narrow 18. I can‘t tell you the exact amount, but I can give you a ______ estimate. A. smooth B. tidy C. rough D. similar 19. ______benefits include a new car and free health insurance. A.Well B.Fringe C.Edge D.Verge 20. You haven‘t heard all the facts so don‘t________to conclusion. A. walk B. go C.fly D.jump Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word. Slave Narratives In the wake of the bloody Nat Turner (1. rebel) _______________ in Southampton County, Virginia, in 1831, an increasingly fervent (2. slave) ____________ movement in the United States sponsored (3. hand) ___________ autobiographical accounts of slavery by fugitives from the South in order to make (4. abolish) _____________ of a largely (5. difference) ____________ white Northern readership. From 1830 to the end of the slavery era, the fugitive slave narrative dominated the (6. literature) ____________ landscape of antebellum black America. The Narrative of the Life of Frederick Douglass, an American Slave, Written by Himself (1845) gained the most attention, (7. establishment) _______________ Frederick Douglass as the leading African American man of letters of his time. By predicating his struggle for freedom on his (8. sole) _________________ pursuit of literacy, education, and (9. depend), Douglass portrayed himself as a (10. make) _____________ man, which appealed strongly to middle-class white Americans. Part 3: Fill in each blank with suitable particle(s). 1. "I will check …………. you tomorrow morning to see if you are ready to be discharged," said the friendly doctor to Cyndia. 2."That rude receptionist hung ………… me while I was in mid-sentence," said an agitated Mrs. Stephen 3."It all boils …………. you. Are you willing to give the relationship another shot?" asked Todd. 4. The woman passed …………… when she heard that her husband had been killed in the war. 5. The man was done ……………. by gangsters and had to be admitted to the ICU. 6. ―You set me …………..!" said the mobster to the double agent as the police took him away. 7. My husband brought me some flowers today. He must be ……… something! 8. The survivors of the Titanic were ……… sea for several days before being rescued. 9. If trains always leave ………. schedule, Why do so many of them arrive late at the other end? 10. Most people would jump ……. The chance to spend a year in America. Part 4: ERROR RECOGNITION Most but not all of the following lines contain one incorrect word. Underline the word that is incorrect and correct it. If a line is correct, tick it. Example: 0 being => Ø EDUCATION IN BRITAIN 0. Parents in Britain are being required by law to see that their children receive full-time 01. education between age of 5 and 16. At the present, there are about nine million 02. school-children at about 40,000 schools. The number is increasing, mainly because of some 03. increase in the birth rate, and such primary school numbers are very high. 04. Although the birth-rate has now stabilize, each year more children stay 05. on at school from the minimum leaving age. There is, therefore, a 06. continuing need for more teachers and more school buildings. In England, Wales and 07. Northern Ireland, it is usual for boys and girls to be taught to gather in primary schools: that 08. is, up to the age of 11, but about half the secondary schools are for boys and girls only. 9. Although mixed schools are more common in Wales and Scotland, where all but a few city 10. schools make both boys and girls. II. READING COMPREHENSION Part 1: For questions 1 – 10, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. There is an example at the beginning (0). What we know about music and the brain Work on the human brain has (0) …….. how different parts are centres of activity for different skills, feelings, perceptions and so on. It has also been shown that the left and right halves, or hemispheres, of the brain are (1) …….. for different functions. While language is processed in the left, or analytical hemisphere, music is processed in the right, or emotional hemisphere. (2) …….. of music like tone, pitch and melody are

all probably processed in different parts of the brain. Some features of musical experience are processed not just in the (3) ………….. parts of the brain, but in the visual ones. We don‘t yet fully understand the (4) …….. of this. The tempo of music seems to be (5) …….. related to its emotional impact, with fast music often (6) …….. as happier and slower music as sadder. It is the same with the major biological rhythm of the body: our heart (7) …….. quickens when we‘re happy, but slows when we‘re sad. Military music may have (8) …….. from attempts to get us ready for (9)…….. by using fast drumming to (10) …….. our hearts into beating faster. 1 A amenable B dependable C responsible D reliable 2 A Views B Aspects C Factors D Pieces 3 A auditory B visual C imaginary D sensual 4 A expectations B implications C assumptions D propositions 5 A surely B plainly C evidently D directly 6 A felt B endured C encountered D touched 7 A pulse B speed C pace D rate 8 A evolved B extended C advanced D elevated 9 A battle B fight C quarrel D struggle 10 A activate B motivate C stimulate D animate Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Food for a Future John Wynne-Tyson was an original thinker (0)…WHOSE… best-known book ‗Food for a Future‘ was published in 1975. In this classic work, a case was (1)……………… forward for (2)..…………….. can only be described as a more responsible and humane attitude towards the world‘s food resources. It had gradually (3)……….………… clear to Wynne-Tyson that the economics and ecology of meat production did not (4)…..…………….. sense. What justification was (5)…………………., he argued, for using seven tonnes of cereal to produce one tonne of meat? Even today, the book‘s succinct style makes it compulsively readable. (6)……………… his approach is basically an emotional one. Wynne-Tyson goes to great lengths to back (7)……..…………. every statement with considerable supporting evidence and statistical data. Thus, even (8)…………………… of us who are widely read (9)……………………. this subject of vegetarianism will gain fresh insights from this book. It is generally agreed that his most skillful achievement is the slow revelation of his main thesis (10)……………… the arguments unfold. Part 3: Read the passage and answer the questions. As inventors tire of stock market instability, the idea of owning a piece of real estate is gaining in popularity. Now, not everyone has what it takes to become a landlord, but if you can make a go of it, it certainly has the potential to become a good money-earner. Here are some tips from successful real estate mogul, Janet Anderson, on how to start building up your property portfolio. According to Janet, one of the best ways to identify a bargain is to hunt for foreclosures. Foreclosures are properties banks have repossessed because their owners were unable to meet the mortgage repayments. Banks want a quick sell on these places, Janet says. They want to cut their losses and get their money back as quickly as possible. Developing a network – making connections with city clerks and bank employees who know which properties are about to be sold – can be an excellent way to identify such bargains. And bargains they certainly can prove to be; in a recent firesale auction (‗firesale auction‘ is the phrase that has been coined to describe auction-room events dedicated entirely to the disposal of repossessed assets) A house with a market value nearing $ 1,000,000, but with a low reserve price designed to encourage bidders and secure a quick sale, went for $ 450,000; that‘s a whopping 55% discount. It‘s also important to be realistic though and not stretch yourself too far financially. Janet says the biggest mistake you can make is to borrow too much or over-borrow. For first time investors, lenders usually demand bigger payments because you haven‘t got a proven track record. That‘s more of your money on the table and, therefore, should anything go wrong, you‘re in for a big financial hit. Her business partner, James Nylles, is in complete agreement on this point. He also highlights the fact that the mortgage payments and deposits are only part of the long term cost of buying a rental property. There is also the cost of repairs, administration and maintenance, rental manager‘s fees, insurance and so on, all of which require you to hold a significant amount of money in reserve. Failure to factor this in when calculating how much you can afford to part with in mortgage repayments can lead to disaster. One of the biggest traps for first time investors, according to Nylles, is the temptation to pay over the odds to get the property you desire. Buyers often get carried away, especially in the auction-room setting, which can get quite competitive and even descend into a racket of one-upmanship. They end up paying top-dollar and landing themselves in a financial situation they can ill afford to be in. Remember, you are in the property

game to make money, so the more money you have to pay upfront for a property, the less likely you are to recoup your investment in the long run. The good news, however, is that the housing market is not very hot at the moment, which means the danger of overpaying is not so great. Always set emotions to one side and think from a purely business perspective. The question of your liking or disliking the property is irrelevant. As Nylles points out: ―you will not be living there.‖ Business decisions are made in the cold hard light of day; your objective is to minimize your outlay and maximize your return. Whether you secure a huge home in pristine condition or a tiny flat with barely room to stretch in is irrelevant – if the tiny flat gets you a better return on your investment then the choice is a no-brainer. And last of all, do your homework. You‘ve got to get to know the location in which you are going to invest. Look out for areas which are earmarked for government investment. Urban renewal areas are often very attractive since house and rental prices in such places are low right now but can be expected to rise in the not too distant future. The range of local amenities, safety and the state of the local economy are all important factors to consider, too. As the old saying goes, ‗location, location, location‘. Invest in a good location and you will maximize your rental income. Questions 1-7: Answer questions bellow using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 1. what are investors getting fed up with? 2. Janet Anderson is involved in the sale of property. What is another phrase used in paragraph 1 to describe this type of business? 3. What is one of the best ways to identify a bargain in the property market? 4. Failure to meet your what, can cause your home to be repossessed? 5. What do banks want to get back quickly on foreclosed properties? 6. Developing networks is an excellent way to find what? 7. What is the biggest error of judgement first time investor can make, according to Anderson? Questions: 8-14 - In spaces 8-14 bellow, write YES, NO, NOT GIVEN 8. Banks demand larger deposits from first time property investors. 9. By making a larger deposit, investors can limit their personal financial risk. 10. There are a lot of long term costs to take into consideration before purchasing a rental Part 4: Read the passage and choose the best answer: Although only a small percentage of the electromagnetic radiation that is emitted by the Sun is ultraviolet (UV) radiation, the amount that is emitted would be enough to cause severe damage to most forms of life on Earth were it all to reach the surface of the earth. Fortunately, all of the Sun‘s ultraviolet radiation does not reach the earth because of a layer of oxygen, called the ozone layer, encircling the earth in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 15 miles above the earth. The ozone layer absorbs much of the Sun‘s ultraviolet radiation and prevents it from reaching the earth. Ozone is a form of oxygen in which each molecule consists of three atoms (O3) instead of the two atoms (O2) usually found in an oxygen molecule. Ozone forms in the stratosphere in a process that is initiated by ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. UV radiation from the Sun splits oxygen molecules with two atoms into free oxygen atoms, and each of these unattached oxygen atoms then joins up with an oxygen molecule to form ozone. UV radiation is also capable of splitting up ozone molecules; thus ,ozone is constantly forming, splitting, and reforming in the stratosphere. When UV radiation is absorbed during the process of ozone formation and reformation, it is unable to reach Earth and cause damage there. Recently, however, the ozone layer over parts of the earth has been diminishing. chief among the culprits in the case of the disappearing ozone, those that are really responsible, are the chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). CFCs meander up from Earth into the stratosphere, where they break down and release chlorine. The released chlorine reacts with ozone in the stratosphere to form chlorine monoxide (ClO) and oxygen (O2). The chlorine then becomes free to go through the cycle over and over again. One chlorine atom can, in fact, destroy hundreds of thousands of ozone molecules in this repetitious cycle, and the effects of this destructive process are now becoming evident. 1. According to the passage, ultraviolet radiation from the Sun A. is causing serve damage to the earth‘s ozone layer B. is only a fraction of the Sun‘s electromagnetic radiation C. creates electromagnetic radiation D. always reaches the earth 2. The word ‗encircling‘ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. rotating B. attacking C. raising D. surrounding 3. It is stated in the passage that the ozone layer A. enables ultraviolet radiation to reach the earth B. reflects ultraviolet radiation C. shields the earth from a lot of ultraviolet radiation D. reaches down to the earth

4. According to the passage, an ozone molecule A. consists of three oxygen molecules B. contains more oxygen atoms than the usual oxygen molecule does C. consists of two oxygen atoms D. contains the same number of atoms as the usual oxygen molecule 5. The word free could be best replaced by A. liberal B. gratuitous C. unconnected D. emancipated 6. Ultraviolet radiation causes oxygen molecules to A. rise to the stratosphere B. burn up ozone molecules C. split up and reform as ozone D. reduce the number of chlorofluorocarbons 7. The pronoun it refers to A. radiation B. process C. formation D. damage 8. The word culprits is closest in meaning to A. Guilty parties B. Detectives C. Group members D. Leaders 9. According to the passage, what happens after a chlorine molecule reacts with an ozone molecule? A. The ozone beaks down into three oxygen atoms B. Two different molecules are created C. The two molecules combine into one molecule D. Three distinct molecules result 10. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses A. The negative results of the cycle of ozone destruction B. where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) come from C. the causes of the destruction of ozone molecules D. how electromagnetic radiation is created III. WRITING Rewrite the following sentences. 1. After being fired from his Job, John felt he needed to take time to think about his situation. stock After being fired from his Job, John felt he needed to ……………………………..his situation. 2. Jack was arrested for careless driving , but Harry used his influence to get him out of trouble. pulled Jack was arrested for careless driving, but Harry ……………………. to get him out of trouble. 3. If the new law is introduced, many small companies will be put out of business. down If the new law is introduced, many small companies will have …………………………………. 4. The government has adopted a firm position against racism and xenophobia. stand The government has .................................................against racism and xenophobia. 5. I was giving a speech when someone's mobile phone rang, and I forgot what I was saying. train I was giving a speech when someone's mobile phone rang, and I...................................... 6. I think our neighbours have gone a bit too far with their Christmas decorations this year. top I think our neighbours‘ Christmas decorations ............................................ this year. 7. I was very angry with the referee and had to stop myself from punching him in the face. short I was very angry with the referee and .................................................... him in the face. 8. Our company cannot accept the agreement as it is now written.Said the CEO. as The CEO said that their company could..................................................................stood. 9. The world needs to rely less on fossil fuels and increase the use of renewable forms of energy. reduce The world needs to ............................................. fossil fuels and increase the use of renewable forms of energy. 10.At the beginning he was opposed to the changes , but I talked to him and he eventually became more reasonable. sense At the beginning he was opposed to the changes , but I eventually managed to talk ..................... him 11.It was surprising how fast the project had come together , but we still had a long way to go. by We were ......................................................................... shape , but we still had a long way to go. 12.There are loads of get-rick-quick books on the internet, but that‘s not necessarily a good thing. plethora There ............................. get-rick-quick books on the internet, but that‘s not necessarily a good thing. 13.The coach didn‘t beat around the bush and gave concise and relevant answers to the questions. to The coach‘s answers to the questions were concise ............................................ point. 14.After his gap year working in conservation projects, he went on to study Natural Sciences at Cambridge University. proceeded After his gap year working in conservation projects, .................................. Natural Sciences at Cambridge University. 15.There is fear that the latest tax increase on sales will result in a sharp downturn in spending over coming months. raised The latest tax increase on sales ....................................a sharp downturn in spending over coming months. 16. ―John, if you threaten Sophia again , you will have to deal with me‖ said Charlie reckon Charlie said to John that if he threatened Sophia again, he .................................................with. 17.Although his father is a very well-known singer, Enrique Iglesias became a celebrity himself through his

own efforts and talents. in Enrique Iglesias‘ father is a very well-known singer , but he became a celebrity himself .............. right. ____ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 42 PART B. PHONETICS (5 points) I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. cheap B. character C. chaos D. charismatic 2. A. tough B. through C. rough D. enough 3. A. mineral B. determine C. examiner D. mining 4. A. surface B. palace C. necklace D. decadence 5. A. gorgeous B. gem C. gene D. genius II. Which word has a different stress pattern? 1. A. introduce B. influence C. arrogant D. majesty 2. A. lunatic B. dynamic C. mosquito D. climatic 3. A. colleague B. humane C. canteen D. unite 4. A. dismiss B. insect C. discount D. district 5. A. diagonal B. admirable C. discipline D. mechanism PART C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) I. Give the correct forms/ tenses of the verbs in brackets. Although they (1- be) a topic of human speculation throughout human history, the content and purpose of dream (2- not/understand). It (3- now/ acknowledge) that dreams (4. strongly/link) to the rapid eye movement that takes place during the first stage of sleep. Over the full course of a typical human lifespan, a total approaching six years may (5. spend) dreaming. Yet, despite this, it (6. not/ establish) where in the human brain dreams (7-originate), or whether they have a common cause. Philosophers and artists (8- for centuries/fascinate) by sleep and dreams. Yet they (9-often/ portray) as a dark and often disturbing sphere of human existence, despite the fact that it (10-for many years/ know) that both physical survival and mental well-being (11. depend) on them. Two thousand years ago, dreams (12. regularly/ interpreted) as supernatural and divine communication and they (13. therefore/ think) to foretell the future. By the beginning of the twelfth century, the interpretation of dreams (14. most often/ associate) with psychoanalysis and its famous practitioners, Freud and Jung, who (15. regard) dreams as the bridge between the conscious and the unconscious mind, a tool with which the secrets of the human mind could (16. finally/ unlock). But the key to those secrets (17. yet/ not/ find). What (18- suggest) so far, however, can form the basis for further attempts (19- gradually/ unveil) the truth (20surround) the connection between the human brain and the human dream. Your answer: 1. ........................ 2. ........................ 3. ........................ 4. ........................ 5. ........................ 6. ........................ 7. ........................ 8. ........................ 9. ........................ 10. ........................ 11. ........................ 12. ........................ 13. ........................ 14. ........................ 15. ........................ 16. ........................ 17. ........................ 18. ........................ 19. ........................ 20. ........................ II. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences. 1. Business has been thriving in the past year. Long _______ it continue to do so. A. could B. does C. may D. might 2. The escaped prisoners remain on the _________ in the hills. A. open B. loose C. liberty D. free 3. He‘s a rumbustious character who always tries to live life to the ________. A. extent B. full C. fun D. end 4. This ward has been reserved for the ________ ill. A. terminally B. deeply C. terribly D. deathly 5. Only _________ people in their chosen profession are invited to attend this prestigious event. A. prominent B. infamous C. fading D. eminent 6. Just because he‘s seventy doesn‘t mean he‘s__________. A. lost it B. past it C. up to it D. over the hill

7. The __________ to listen while not being listened to should not be underestimated. A. aptitude B. ability C. technique D. skill 8. Being very frustrated by his 232ignific, she has no alternative but _______ the boat. A. rattling B. shake C. to rock D. to roll 9. All Jane‘s friends visited her in hospital to wish her_______ . a rushing recovery B. a speedy recovery C. recovering hastily D. recovering quickly 10. The winds changes abruptly and it looks as if our sailing team_______out on top. A. had floated B. has got C. is coming D. reached 11. Sandra‘s unpleasant_______suggested that she knew about Amanda‘s terrible secret. A. grimace B. smirk C. snort D. wince 12. The student‘s rude interruption brought a sharp _______from his teacher. A. recoup B. repeat C. report D. retort 13. Their discussion quickly developed into a _______ argument over who should receive the money. A. burning B. heated C. hot D. scorching 14. The salesman demonstrated how a push of the button would cause the aerial to______ . A. rebound B. recoil C. retract D. retreat 15.Students are rarely able to_______ all the information given in one of the professor‘s lectures. A. absorb B. achieve C. capture D. interest 16. She is usually_______courteous to strangers. A.absolutely B. exceedingly C. somewhat D. utterly 17. The idea of locking twelve strangers in a house and letting millions of the viewing public watch the minutiae of their daily routine must have seemed to some producers a _ idiotic way of eating into their budget. A. comprehensively B. finally C. sheer D. totally 18. It‘s _____ clear that television is taking us down roads that no one in their right mind would wish for the medium. A. abundantly B. out-and-out C. outright D. plain 19. It will make a(n) _______ change to meet someone who is so dedicated to their work for once. A. refreshing B. significant C. social D. sudden 20. The Government has announced plans to make _______ changes to the tax system next year. A. considerable B. dramatic C. far-reaching D. political III. Fill in each blank with ONE preposition or articles 1. Dr Richards is distinguished ———————— his selfless service to humanity. 2. On account of his advanced age he was disqualified ——————— competing. 3. He was discharged because there was no proof ——————– him. 4. Brass consists ——————– copper and zinc. 5. His parents are very worried ——————— his safety. 6. He parted —————— his family and belongings and went on a pilgrimage. 7. I am convinced that he is acting ——————— compulsion. 8. The patient is now free ———————- danger 9. This peculiar custom prevails ———————- the Hindus. 10. Many Hindi plays are adapted ——————– English. 11. The police is entrusted ———————- the enforcement of law and order. 12. During the height _______________ this season, he forced five waitresses to hand in their notice even though they were completely competent. 13. I‘ve always been honest _____________ my feelings. You on the other hand, have not. 14. Much ______________ I detest the idea of punishing children, I can see that it sometimes has its uses. 15. Mr. Sugar Deliver, I‘m sure, would be a huge asset ________________ your company. 16. No further comments or responses of any kind have been made from her PR __________________ late. 17. The younger sons therefore considered themselves to have been robbed ________ their rightful inheritance. 18. The white Audi was eliminated __________________ police enquiries at an early stage. 19. The stolen painting was eventually restored ____________________ their rightful owner. 20. The argument is centred ________________ whether or not to lower the age limit. IV. Write the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the incorrect part, and then correct it. 1. (A) As interesting and lively as it is, (B) included in your story are several historical inaccuracies, i.e. your hero Miss Swinton ( C ) might not have offered shelter under his umbrella, ( D ) for they weren‘t invented until a hundred years later.

2. (A) At ground level, it is (B) dangerous enough a substance, but in the (C) upper atmosphere, it bonds with free ions to create (D) deadening smog particles. 3. Having (A) unshakeable confidence (B) in his ability, he (C) carried off the role of Hamlet with (D) faultless skill. 4. (A) In winning the 1998 Kentucky Derby, Swiftilocks showed a (B) burst of speed ( C ) not unlike that of Man o‘War, who (D) had been winning 20 of 21 races in 1919 and 1920. 5. That the time (A) spent in transit by the average traveller was (B) widely anticipated to decrease was (C) because automobiles‘ (D) replacing horses as the primary means of transportation. 6. (A) Likewise the power-generating (B) apparatus of a conventional car, ( C ) that of a hybrid car depends on a (D) combustible fuel to generate power. 7. (A) Rising tides of unemployment claims (B) across the state has led the governor to (C) declare the economy to be in a (D) state of emergency. 8. The (A) outpatient department of Cho Ray Hospital has been through a (B) momentous year since the doctors sticking to (C) tried and tested methods has brought about (D) desirable outcomes. 9. Their family (A) having conflicts over personal properties, neither Kath nor Bill wants (B) to make a permanent commitment to the other (C) despite having been seeing each other (D) on and on for the last five years. 10. (A) Utter willpower enabled her to win the heat and (B) qualify for the final of the 400 (C) meters (D) final. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words: V. In Totteridge, in north London, there is a yew tree estimated to be between 1,000 and 2,000 years old. This tree, however, is a mere youngster in comparison with others of the species. The record in the UK is held by a yew in Scotland that is thought to be between 4,000 and 5,000 years old. However, such trees are becoming (1) _____INCREASE rare and the Totteridge specimen was considered of (2) SUFFICE ________ importance to be named in 1999 as one of the 41 ‗great trees‘ in London. Like many yews, the Totteridge tree (3)________ DOUBT predates the buildings around and its exact age is unknown. The Totteridge tree needs little (4)__________ MAINTAIN. Some of its outer branches hang down so low that they have taken root. But this is part of the tree‘s natural architecture and contributes to its (5) _________STABLE in high winds. With the best of (6)_________ INTEND , ancient yew sites are often tidied up with no benefit to the tree. Dead branches are not (7)______ READY shed by the tree and their wood harbours a multitude of insects, an inseparable part of the old tree‘s natural (8) _________ DIVERSE. Something of the tree‘s history is lost with the (9) _________ REMOVE of dead wood. After all, the decaying, twisted and (10)__________ ATTRACT parts give the tree character. VI. Fill each of the numbered blanks with one of the words listed. each every all whole none no I was telling you about my family, wasn‘t I? It seems that no (1)_______ family is having the same problems. Since last week, I have spoken to nearly (2) _______ my colleagues and (3) _______ other one says that (4) _______ is sweetness and light in their family. (5) _______ of them, the (6) _______ family- sit down and (7) _______ of them take turns to say something about what they‘re doing or what they‘ve been doing and nearly (8) _______ other member of the family hangs on their (9) _______ word. There‘s (10) _______ aggression; (11) _______ of the others shows anything but total interest in the others‘ (12) _______ story. (13) _______ of them takes his or her turn and (14) _______ of them listen – (15) _______ of them resents it. (16) _______ I can say is, they are lucky. Almost (17) _______ meal we have is spoilt because there‘s (18) _______ contact with anyone else and (19) _______ of us remains a little island. (20) _______ wonder my daughters don‘t come and visit very often. PART D. READING (30 points) I. Read the following passage and choose the best alternative to answer the questions that follow: One of the most dangerous drugs for pregnant women to consume is alcohol. Because alcohol is delivered quickly into the blood and passes quickly into the tissues and membranes, the human fetus is particularly vulnerable to its effects. The reality is that the negative effects on a fetus are so pronounced that babies born after exposure to alcohol are said to be suffering from fetal alcohol syndrome. As a pregnant woman drinks alcohol, the alcohol is passed into her bloodstream almost simultaneously. Moreover, because the bloodstream of the fetus is inextricably tied to that of the mother, the alcohol passes directly into the bloodstream of the fetus as well. And, what is more, the concentration of alcohol in the fetus is exactly the same as in the mother. For the mother, this concentration is not a problem because her liver can remove one ounce of alcohol from

her system per hour. However, the fetus‘s liver is not completely developed (how developed it is depends on its stage of development). The rate at which it is able to eliminate the alcohol from the blood of the fetus is much slower. Eventually, the alcohol will be returned to the mother‘s system by passing across the placenta, but this process is slow. By the time this takes place, major neurological damage may have already occurred. Research has shown that as little as one drink of alcohol can produce significant, irreversible damage to the fetus. Babies born after exposure to alcohol generally exhibit facial distortion, inability to concentrate, and difficulty in remembering. Simply speaking, it is imperative that pregnant women avoid alcohol. 1. What is the main topic of this reading? (A) Women and drugs (B) The dangers of pregnancy (C) The fetus and alcohol (D) Drinking and the human body 2. The word ―its‖ refers to_____________. (A) the fetus (B) the blood (C) the tissue (D) the alcohol 3. The word ―pronounced‖ most closely means____________. (A) evident (B) spoken (C) described (D) unfortunate 4. How much time can it be inferred that it takes alcohol to enter a woman‘s bloodstream after she takes a drink? (A) about one hour (B) a few seconds (C) several minutes (D) at least 24 hours 5. The word ―inextricably‖ most nearly means____________. (A) unexplainedly (B) formerly (C) forcefully (D) inseparably 6. According to the passage, how does the concentration of alcohol in a fetus compare to that in the mother? (A) The concentration is more. (B) The concentration is less. (C) The concentration is equivalent. (D) The concentration cannot be measured. 7. It can be inferred that the development of a fetal liver depends on____________. (A) how many months pregnant the mother is (B) how much alcohol the mother has consumed (C) how large the fetus is (D) how well the mother has taken care of the fetus 8. According to the passage, how is alcohol finally returned to the mother‘s system? (A) it is carried through the bloodstream (B) it is transferred across the placenta (C) it is expelled by the fetus‘s liver (D) it is not completely returned 9. Which one of the following was NOT mentioned as a sign of fetal alcohol syndrome? (A) disfigurement of the face (B) concentration difficulties (C) increased aggression (D) memory problems 10. At what place in the passage does the author discuss the quantity of alcohol necessary to produce negative results? (A) Lines 2-3 (B) Lines 10-11 (C) Lines 18-19 (D) Lines 20-21 II. Select the corresponding letter (A, B, C or D) to indicate the best option to fill in each of the blanks. What we know about music and the brain Work on the human brain has indicated how different parts are centres of activity for different skills, feelings, perceptions and so on. It has also been shown that the left and right halves, or hemispheres, of the brain are (1) …….. for different functions. While language is processed in the left, or analytical hemisphere, music is processed in the right, or emotional hemisphere. (2) …….. of music like tone, pitch and melody are all probably processed in different parts of the brain. Some features of musical experience are processed not just in the (3) …….. parts of the brain, but in the visual ones. We don‘t yet fully understand the (4) …….. of this. The tempo of music seems to be (5) …….. related to its emotional impact, with fast music often (6) …….. as happier and slower music as sadder. It is the same with the major (7) ………. rhythm of the body: our heart (8) …….. quickens when we‘re happy, but slows when we‘re sad. Military music may have (9) …….. from attempts to get us ready for (10) …….. by using fast drumming to (11) …….. our hearts into beating faster. Music is perhaps one of the most complex experiences the brain (12) …….. with and it has become an absolutely (13) …….. part of our rituals and ceremonies. It has power (14) ………. language to (15) …….. mood and co-ordinate our emotional states. 1. A. amenable B. dependable C. responsible D. reliable 2. A. Views B. Aspects C. Factors D. Pieces 3. A. hearing B. olfactory C. auditory D. sensory 4. A. expectations B. implications C. assumptions D. propositions 5. A. surely B. plainly C. evidently D. directly 6. A. felt B. endured C. encountered D. touched 7. A. biology B. biological C. music D. musical 8. A. pulse B. speed C. pace D. rate

9. A. evolved B. extended C. advanced D. elevated 10. A. battle B. fight C. quarrel D. struggle 11. A. activate B. motivate C. stimulate D. animate 12. A. manages B. copes C. bears D. holds 13. A. vital B. important C. compulsory D. dominant 14. A. with B. above C. beyond D. over 15. A. notify B. report C. associate D. communicate III. Complete each of the gap in the following passage with one word. Stress Stress (0) … often called a 21st century illness but it has always been with us if perhaps (1) … different names. These days we regard stress (2) … a necessary evil of modern living. Yet stress is not negative and without (3) … we would not enjoy some of the highpoints in life (4) … as the anticipation before a date or the tension leading (5) … to an important match. All these situations produce stress but (6) … you can control it and not the other way (7) … you will feel stimulated, not worn (8) … Unlike these situations, which are generally positive and easier to deal with, sitting in a train (9) … is late, (10) … stuck in a traffic jam, working to a tight deadline are (11) … harder to manage and control. Stress is now recognised as a medical problem and as a s235ignificant factor (12) … causing coronary heart disease, high blood pressure and a high cholesterol count. Patients are often unwilling to admit to stress problems (13) … they feel they are a form of social failure and it is important that symptoms (14) … identified in order to avoid unnecessary suffering. So what should we be looking out for as danger signals? Common signs of stress are increased tiredness, irritability and (15) … inability to cope with certain situations. IV. Read the text and answer the questions that follow Tough sensor can take the heat A. A new gas sensor made form a nickel‘s worth of materials can endure high temperatures, corrosion, vibrations, and exposure to water, according to its inventors at Argonne National Lavatory in Illinois. The tiny sensor detects a variety of gases. B. Conventional silicon sensors do not work well at temperatures above 150 degree F. But Argonne‘s new sensor, made of ceramics and metals, is not affected by high temperatures. ―The materials in this sensor behave well through a wide range of temperatures,‖, says Michael Vogt, a control system engineer at Argonne. C. Vogt and his colleagues made the sensor by film-screening layers of ceramic and metal on a ceramic substrate, then firing the sensor in an industrial oven at more than 1,000C. The Argonne researchers set out to build a sensor that would detect overheating computer components. Before an overheating component fails, and possibly ignites, epoxy in the circuit boards releases a gas. The Argonne sensor can detect this vapour and cut off power to the circuit. D. The device senses gases by applying a steadily increasing voltage across its electrical leads, and monitoring current spikes induced as gasses react on the sensor‘s surface. Each gas reacts at a characteristic voltage, and the size of the current spike indicates the ―signature‖ of several representative organic solvents. E. The sensor could be used to monitor hydrocarbon emissions from cars; today‘s typical sensors only measure oxygen. The sensor could also monitor gases in industrial chemical processes. Question 1- 4: The following statements summarize some of the paragraphs of the passage. Write the letter of the paragraph (A-E) next to its summarizing statement (1-4) in the spaces provided. 1. How the device senses gases. 2. A brief introduction to the new gas sensor. 3. Other uses of the new gas sensor. 4. How the device was designed. Question 5-10: Below is a summary of the passage. Fill in the spaces with a maximum of three words from the passage A new sensor made of ceramics and metals can endure corrosion, vibrations, exposure to water, and (5) __________ , while not affected by (6) __________. As (7) __________ reacts at a (8) __________, the device applies a steadily increasing voltage and monitor current spikes induced, (9) __________of which indicates the concentration of the gases. Conventional sensors, on the other hand, do not work well at temperatures above 150 and could be used only to (10) __________. Your answers: Statement 1. Statement 2. Statement 3. Statement 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. PART E. WRITING (20 points) I. Use the word given in bold to complete each sentence below in such a way that it means exactly as the one printed before it.

1. I think Robert is too young to look after his brother. (CARE) I think Robert isn‘t __________________________of his brother. 2. Ben certainly wasn‘t as innocent as he pretended to be. (MEANS) Ben was____________________________________________ he pretended to be. 3. The twins are eager to see their cousins again in the summer. (LOOKING) The twins ________________________________their cousins again in the summer. 4. It was necessary to inspect the electrical systems in order to make sure they are safe. (INTERESTS) In___________________________________________________the electrical systems. 5. The proceeds from the sale went to charity. (MADE) All the___________________________________________________________charity. ___ THE END___ PRACTICE TEST 43 II. PHONETICS A. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in each group. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. A. motor B. slogan C. proper D. total 2. A. them B. theme C. theory D. bath 3. A. swear B. sight C. same D. sure 4. A. machine B. chamber C. charge D. champion 5. A. woodland B. moorland C. hooked D. woollen B. Choose the word with the main stress placed differently from that of the others in each group. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. 6. A. migration B. inhabit C. character D. diversity 7. A. statistics B. tolerant C. mechanic D. designer 8. A. acknowledgement B. insufficient C. determinant D. announcement 9. A. intermarriage B. equality C. exceptional D. intensify 10. A. commemorative B. capability C. periodical D. comprehensively III. LEXICO–GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1: Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. Helen was ________ disappointed when she learnt that she hadn‘t won the beauty contest. A seriously B bitterly C strongly D heavily 2. The bank employee will ________ trial for embezzlement. A pass B go through C face D stand 3. Tomorrow we will go fishing, weather ________. A agreeing B allowing C permitting D giving 4. Rescue teams continue to search for the people who got lost during the avalanche, but after so many days hopes are ________. A dying away B disappearing C fading D flying away 5. Bill Clinton‘s love affair with Monica Lewinsky ________ the news in the whole world. People were constantly chatting about it. A made B delivered C struck D filled 6. Although Mary and Paul are ________ apart in personality, they make an excellent couple. A leagues B ways C miles D poles 7. I‘d opt for a glass of mineral water just to ________ my thirst. A quit B quench C quiver D quieten 8. The first amusement park in our city was a ________ success for its owners. Everybody would go there to have a good time. A cracking B ringing C sparking D roaring 9. This position is very prestigious, you should ________ to any occasion to prove that you really deserve it. A assume B rise C conform D endeavour 10. The number of the victims of the earthquake has been ________ at no less than 150. A amounted B counted C estimated D scored 11. About two hundred illegal immigrants have been ________ from the country.

A expelled B enforced C evicted D expired Tim was praised for having ________ with his research work in spite of increasing difficulties. A insisted B lasted C sustained D persevered 13. It‘s obvious everyone would like to have their ________ in such an important meeting. A talk B word C claim D say 14. This quiet village is ________ of the one I grew up in. A reminiscent B similar C remnant D identical 15. Samuel couldn‘t find any reasonable arguments to ________ his claims in the court. A assure B enforce C persist D uphold 16. Bob was in terrible pain, but none of us knew how to _____ his suffering until the ambulance arrived. A dissolve B exclude C cease D relieve 17. Susan has taken _________ to Peter‘s remarks about her appearance. A annoyance B exception C irritation D nerve 18. The terrorists were asked whether they ________ guilty of the wrongdoing. A pleaded B confirmed C stated D admitted 19. Frankie has always been held in high ________ among his workmates because of his exceptional skill at handling the most difficult tasks. A respect B admiration C prestige D esteem 20. She may still have a few fans in the world, but she is definitely past her ________. A fame B abilities C prime D fortune Part 2: For questions 21–30, read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Underline the errors and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). Line Wheeled trolley bags have become a essential item of luggage amongst frequent travellers. The compact version proves particularly useful as a piece of hand luggage. Carrying onboard aeroplanes, it allows you to avoid the queues at the baggage check-in counters on your outward journey and waiting at the baggage reclaim carousel in your way home. These days, there are 5 official guidelines regarded the maximum size for hand luggage on flights, and these stipulated measurements are continuously subject of change. Policies also vary between airlines and airport as well as being influenced by your eventual destination. The outcome of all this is that travellers are recommended to check out the lattest luggage restrictions before setting out for the airport. 10 What‘s more, before investing in a trolley bag, it‘s wise to run a few checks. You‘re likely to be negotiating uneven surfaces as well as a smooth flooring of airport lounges, so bear on mind that larger wheels are better able to absorb bumps than their smaller counterparts. Also check the handle. You‘re bound to need lifting your bag at some point in your journey, probably when you are suddenly confronted with an inconvenient flight of step, and that‘s not 15 the moment to discover that the handle is awkward to hold. Part 3: For questions 31–50, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). 0. He finds it hard to put ________ the noise of the nearby factory. 31. He‘s the leader ________ name only, his deputy has effectively taken over. 32. He is such a knowledgeable scholar that he can talk about the subject for 3 hours _______ end. 33. I‘m sorry, but I‘m not ________ liberty to tell you any more. 34. Many people are opposed to abortion ________ principle. 35. Alex lost his job because he just didn‘t measure up to the standard required ________ him. 36. John and George were both vying ________ her attention at the party. 37. We‘ve left the booking our holiday very late. We really have to decide _______ a date. 38. I was feeling really terrible so I decided to treat myself _______ a nice cake! 39. My new CD player isn‘t working, so I‘ve got one _______ loan from the shop while mine is being repaired. 40. Although he is a literature student, he has never read a Shakespeare play _______ its entirety, but somehow he always passes his exams! 41. He was passed ____ in the first time he applied for promotion, but he seems to stand better chance this time. 42. Everyone can put himself ________ for the chairman of the club. 43. The witness was required to give a detailed account of how the accident came _______. 44. She‘s too busy to get _______ to answering all the letters of her fans. 45. He‘s entirely unreasonable to take his frustration at work _______ his children. 12.

46. He was deeply upset to discover that he was taken _______ a ride by his best friend. 47. Finally, they decided to settle _______ an apology rather than seek compensation from the tour company. 48. He lost all his money in gambling and had to sell the house which had come __ him after his parents‘ death. 49. Mr John, an impatient and aggressive person, is not at all cut ______ being a teacher. 50. It‘s been pouring heavily since early morning and it doesn‘t look like the rain is going to ease_______ soon. Part 4: For questions 51–70, complete the following sentences with suitable forms of the verbs in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). 0. This university ________ (found) in 1958. 51. A lot of people ________ (ask) about the painting, and I always say it‘s not for sale. 52. Alice felt very pleased with herself. She ________ (find) what she was looking for. 53. The opposing sides in the war had been fighting since the president ________ (overthrow). 54. By the time the book ____ (publish) next year, no-one will be interested in what scandalous claims it makes. 55. She became ________ (recognise) as the leading businesswoman of the year. 56. After the interval, she went on ________ (talk) about cultural conflicts. 57. I remember ________ (go) to the bank, but nothing after that. 58. I noticed him ________ (throw) a sweet wrapper on the floor, and I asked him to pick it up. 59-60. The island‘s politics ________ (be) complex, with over twelve parties ________ (compete) for power. 61. Of those interviewed, only 20% ________ (admit) to smoking. 62. How on earth do they justify ________ (keep) three dog in such a small flat? 63-64. The judge defer ________ (pass) sentence until the psychiatric reports ____________ (submit). 65. ________ (lose) all his money in gambling, he returned to his hometown. 66. The window seat is usually the first one ________ (take). 67-68. If the island _____ (be) still a tourist attraction, last week‘s earthquake ______ (cause) far more deaths. 69-70. If Fleming ________ (discover) penicillin, there ________ (be) more fatalities every year. Part 5: For questions 71-80, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). LA TOURETTE MONASTERY Great architecture has never been dependent on the (0)_______ (SPEND) of vast sums of money. One of the greatest buildings of all time is the monastery of Sainte-Marie de la Tourette near Lyon, consecrated in 1960 and built cheaply from that most (71)________ (PRETEND) of building materials – concrete. Yet here is a building that is at once as poor and as rich as the mendicant monks for whom it was designed and built. Poor in terms of cost and the materials used to build it, rich in ideas and (72)_________ (SPIRIT). Today, much new architecture is slick and polished, erected by teams of (73)_________ (CONTRACT) working to designs fed through very (74)_________ (RELY) computer programs. The buildings, whether office blocks, shopping malls or schools, are (75)________ (COST) in absolute terms, yet generally good value for money. Most, however, are (76)________ (SOUL) or even cynical. La Tourette, by contrast, is a tour de force. Set high on a ridge (77)________ (LOOK) the vineyards of Beaujolais country, this college and monastery was (78)________ (MISSION) from the great architect Le Corbusier in 1953. La Tourette marked a profound change in Le Corbusier‘s approach to architecture; a move away from the severe, white geometry of his pre-war years. It also (79)________ (PRESENT) a new architecture for a church trying to come to terms with a world of (80)_________ (MODERN) and progress. Part 6: For questions 81-90, complete the text below by filling in each gap a conjunction or preposition given. Some conjunctions or prepositions are used more than once. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). but despite however nevertheless though on the contrary whereas while yet THE ELGIN MARBLES The Elgin Marbles are statues which date back to the 5th century BC. (0)________ they were created in Greece and were located there until the late 18th century, they are now exhibited in the British Museum, London.

The statues used to be in Athens (81)_______ they were bought in 1799 by the Englishman Lord Elgin, who wanted to bring them back to Britain as part of his personal art collection. (82)______, on the sea voyage back to England, the ship carrying them was sunk and the ‗Marbles‘ were temporarily lost. It would be an incredibly expensive operation to recover them. (83)______, Elgin did so, and even though he was a very rich man, he placed himself in enormous debt. Despite his own desires, he had to sell the Marbles to the British Government to recover his losses and they were housed in the British Museum, where they have remained ever since. In recent times, (84)________, the statues have become the subject of debate between Britain and Greece and, indeed, among British historians and archaeologists. (85)________ the Greek authorities have requested the return of the Marbles on many occasions, the request has always been refused. There are arguments on both sides. Some people believe that it would be foolish to return them, valid (86)________ the Greek request may be, because of the pollution that is affecting the Parthenon and the possibility of earthquakes in Greece. Restored to the Parthenon, the Marbles could be exposed to damage, (87)________ they are safe in the British Museum. Of course, there are equally compelling arguments for their return, especially on the moral level. It cannot be denied, (88)________ the material safety the statues enjoy in Britain, that they are part of the Greek heritage. Many people also refute the argument that Athens would not be a safe place for them. (89)________, they claim that if the statues were returned to Greece, a new state-of-the-art building would be constructed to house them, where they would be both safe and in their rightful environment. Furthermore, the British authorities have long used the argument that works of art should not be subject to ‗ownership‘, but should be kept where they are accessible to most people. (90)________ in the past they have returned a number of cultural artefacts from other civilisations to their origins. The argument continues, and is likely to do so for some time in the future. IV. READING (30 points) Part 1: For questions 1–15, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). THE SIBERIAN HUSKY Siberian Huskies, those beautiful wolf-like canines (0)________ for their strength and racing instinct, are, as their name (1)____, not native to North America. In 1908, a Russian fur trader by the name of William Goosak brought the first team of Siberians to Nome, Alaska to compete in a dog sled race. A Danish sailor, Louis Thurstop, consented to drive the team after being (2)___ by Goosak. Spectators were not impressed with this newly-introduced (3)____ of dog and, (4)_____, quickly nicknamed them Siberian rats. These so-called ‗rats‘, with (5)________ of 100 to 1 against them, ran a tremendous race and finished in third (6)________. A spectator at the sporting event, a Scotsman called Fox Ramsay, was (7)________ impressed with the speed and the (8)________ of these northern-bred huskies. So much so that he travelled to Siberia in 1909 in (9)________ of his own (10)_________ of huskies. Later that year, he returned with 60 of the finest dogs to be found in Siberia. In 1910, he (11)________ three teams in the All-Alaska Sweepstakes, a (12)_________ competition which covered over 656 kilometres of the roughest (13)________ imaginable. One of his teams (14)________ first, finishing the race in the (15)________ time of 74 hours and 14 minutes. 0. A common B known C distinct D considered 1. A points B expresses C indicates D marks 2. A pushed B urged C converted D persuaded 3. A make B brand C breed D strain 4. A in fact B actually C really D utterly 5. A stakes B odds C wagers D bets 6. A spot B rank C grade D place 7. A extremely B rightly C completely D absolutely 8. A patience B stability C endurance D tolerance 9. A search B exploration C pursuit D investigation 10. A shoal B swarm C pack D herd 11. A joined B competed C entered D enlisted 12. A tedious B gruelling C tiresome D grilling 13. A landscape B space C terrain D feature 14. A came round B came through C came over D came in 15. A brilliant B staggering C wonderful D stunning Part 2: For questions 16–30, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only

ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). WHERE HAVE ALL THE GOOD CARTOONS GONE? Childhood will (0)________ be the same again. Remember Saturday mornings spent lounging on the sofa, hour (16)________ hour, watching your favourite cartoons? (17)________ there have been a better reward for the long school week that had had to be endured? Bugs Bunny, Donald Duck, Mickey Mouse brought virtually live into (18)________ living rooms. Back then, they were in black and white, and back then, they were meant to amuse, to entertain. It seems (19)________ has changed – and definitely (20)________ the worse. Now when you turn on the television on a Saturday or Sunday morning, you do (21)________ at your own risk! Be prepared to confront violence in all its animated glory: exploding bombs, falling buildings, blazing weapons, and bad guy after bad guy. I don‘t see (22)________ is funny about this warped vision of our times and our society. (23)________ do I see what‘s worth watching on these programmes with (24)________ gruesome caricatures of good and evil. Who is responsible for children‘s programming these days? It cannot be good for today‘s youth to be exposed (25)________ this type of entertainment. (26)________ best, they are missing out (27)________ the humour, sensitivity and moral lessons that were to be had from the cartoons of old. At worst, their childish brains are (28)________ filled with scenes of nonstop violence and ideas that are morally corrupt. Childhood should be a time of innocence, short-lived as it (29)________ be in these turbulent times in which we live. Perhaps we should bear this in mind the next time we see our child glued (30)________ the TV on a Saturday morning. Part 3: For questions 31–40, read the text below and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). According to the best evidence gathered by space probes and astronomers, Mars is an inhospitable planet, more similar to Earth‘s Moon than to Earth itself–a dry, stark, seemingly lifeless world. Mars‘ air pressure is equal to Earth‘s at an altitude of 100,000 feet. The air there is 95 percent carbon dioxide. Mars has no ozone layer to screen out the sun‘s lethal radiation. Daytime temperatures may reach above freezing, but because the planet is blanketed by the mere wisp of an atmosphere, the heat radiates back into space. Even at the equator, the temperature drops to –50C (–60F) at night. Today there is no liquid water, although valleys and channels on the surface show evidence of having been carved by running water. The polar ice caps are made of frozen water and carbon dioxide, and water may be frozen in the ground as permafrost. Despite these difficult conditions, certain scientists believe that there is a possibility of transforming Mars into a more Earth-like planet. Nuclear reactors might be used to melt frozen gases and eventually build up the atmosphere. This in turn could create a ―greenhouse effect‖ that would stop beat from radiating back into space. Liquid water could be thawed to form a polar ocean. Once enough ice has melted, suitable plants could be introduced to build up the level of oxygen in the atmosphere so that, in time, the planet would support animal life from Earth and even permanent human colonies. ―This was once thought to be so far in the future as to be irrelevant,‖ said Christopher McKay, a research scientist at the National Aeronautics and Space Administration. ―But now it‘s starting to look practical. We could begin work in four or five decades.‖ The idea of ―terra-forming‖ Mars, as enthusiasts call it, has its roots in science fiction. But as researchers develop a more profound understanding of how Earth‘s ecology supports life, they have begun to see how it may be possible to create similar conditions on Mars. Don‘t plan on homesteading on Mars any time soon, though. The process could take hundreds or even thousands of years to complete and the cost would be staggering. 0. The word ―there‖ in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A. a point 100 above the Earth C. Mars B. the Earth‘s Moon D. outer space 31. With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned? A. The possibility of changing the Martian environment B. The challenge of interplanetary travel. C. The advantages of establishing colonies on Mars D. The need to study the Martian colony. 32. The word ―stark‖ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. harsh B. unknown C. dark D. distant 33. Which of the following does the author NOT list as a characteristic of the planet Mars that would make colonization difficult? A. There is little liquid water B. Daytime temperatures are dangerously high. C. The sun‘s rays are deadly D. Nighttime temperatures are extremely low. 34. According to the passage, the Martian atmosphere today consists mainly of ________. A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. ozone D. water vapor

35. It can be inferred from the passage that the ―greenhouse effect‖ mentioned in paragraph 3 is _________. A. the direct result of nuclear reactions B. the cause of low temperatures on Mars C. caused by the introduction of green plants D. a possible means of warming Mars 36. According to Christopher McKay, the possibility of transforming Mars ________. A. could only occur in science fiction stories B. will not begin for hundreds, even thousands of years C. is completely impractical D. could be started in forty to fifty years 37. As used in paragraph 4, the term ―terra-forming‖ refers to _________. A. a process for adapting plants to live on Mars B. a means of transporting materials through space C. a method of building housing for colonists on Mars D. a system of creating Earth-like conditions on other planets 38. The phrase ―more profound‖ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________. A. deeper B. more practical C. more up-to-date D. brighter 39. According to the article, the basic knowledge needed to transform Mars comes from _________. A. the science of astronomy C. data from space probes B. a knowledge of Earth‘s ecology D. science fiction stories 40. The word ―staggering‖ in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________. A. astonishing C. increasing B. restrictive D. unpredictable Part 4: Read the following extract and answer questions 41–50. TERROR IN THE MOUNTAINS A What is incredibly beautiful yet absolutely terrifying and deadly at the same time? For anyone above the snowline in the mountains, there is little doubt about the answer. Avalanche – the word strikes fear into the heart of any avid skier or climber. For those unfortunate enough to be caught up in one, there is virtually no warning or time to get out of danger and even less chance of being found. The ‗destroyer‘ of the mountains, avalanches can uproot trees, crush whole buildings, and bury people metres deep under solidified snow. Around the world, as more and more people head to the mountains in winter, there are hundreds of avalanche fatalities every year. B A snow avalanche is a sudden and extremely fast-moving ‗river‘ of snow which races down a mountainside (there can also be avalanches of rocks, boulders, mud, or sand). There are four main kinds. Loose snow avalanches, or sluffs, form on very steep slopes. These usually have a ‗teardrop‘ shape, starting from a point and widening as they collect more snow on the way down. Slab avalanches, which are responsible for about 90% of avalanche-related deaths, occur when a stiff layer of snow fractures or breaks off and slides downhill at incredible speed. This layer may be hundreds of metres wide and several metres thick. As it tends to compact and set like concrete once it stops, it is extremely dangerous for anyone buried in the flow. The third type is an isothermal avalanche, which results from heavy rain leading to the snowpack becoming saturated with water. In the fourth type, air mixes in with loose snow as the avalanche slides, creating a powder cloud. These powder snow avalanches can be the largest of all, moving at over 300kmh, with 10,000,000 or more tonnes of snow. They can flow along a valley floor and even a short distance uphill on the other side. C Three factors are necessary for an avalanche to form. The first relates to the condition of the snowpack. Temperature, humidity, and sudden changes in weather conditions all affect the shape and condition of snow crystals in the snowpack which, in turn, influences the stability of the snowpack. In some cases, weather causes an improvement in avalanche conditions. For example, low temperature variation in the snowpack and consistent below-freezing temperatures enable the crystals to compress tightly. On the other hand, if the snow surface melts and refreezes, this can create an icy or unstable layer. D The second vital factor is the degree of slope of the mountain. If this is below 25 degrees, there is little danger of an avalanche. Slopes that are steeper than 60 degrees are also unlikely to set off a major avalanche as they ‗sluff‘ the snow constantly, in a cascade of loose powdery snow which causes minimal danger or damage. This means that slabs of ice or weaknesses in the snowpack have little chance to develop. Thus, the danger zone covers the 25- to 60-degree range of slopes, with most avalanches being slab avalanches that begin on slopes of 35 to 45 degrees. E Finally, there is the movement or event that triggers the avalanche. In the case of slab avalanches, this can be a natural trigger, such as a sudden weather change, a falling tree or a collapsing ice or snow overhang. However, in most fatal avalanches, it is people who create the trigger by moving through an avalanche-prone area. Snowmobiles are especially dangerous. On the other hand, contrary to common belief, shouting is not a big enough vibration to set off a landslide. For questions 41–45, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A–E from the list of headings below (i-viii). There are more headings than paragraphs. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered

boxes. List of headings i. ii. iii. iv. v. vi. vii. viii.

Examples of Major Avalanches Stability of the Snowpack What Sets Off an Avalanche? An Expert‘s Comments Steepness of Mountains Avalanche Peril An Avalanche Risk Table Types of Avalanche

41. Paragraph A 42. Paragraph B 43. Paragraph C 44. Paragraph D 45. Paragraph E For questions 46–50, Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage for each answer. Write your answers in the spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0). Type of avalanche Characteristics (0)__________ avalanches also known as sluffs; steep slopes; (46)____________ shape; minor risk Slab avalanches thick layer of snow breaks off; set very hard once they stop; cause about 90% of (47)__________ Isothermal avalanches caused by weight of (48)__________ mixed in with the snow Powder snow avalanches Develop a cloud of loose snow mixed with air; (49)__________ of all types of avalanche; more fast and cover a huge distance, even travelling (50)__________ V. WRITING (20 points) Part 1: For questions 1-10, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six words, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0). 0. He paid no attention to our warning. notice He ……… took no notice of …………. our warning. 1. Of course I did not agree to lend them the money. saying It ……………………………………… not agree to lend them the money. 2. Did anything about his behaviour seem unusual to you? strike Did anything about his behaviour ………………………………… unusual? 3. It seems that the thieves escaped in a stolen car. appear It ………………………………………………… away in a stolen car. 4. I don‘t care if she doesn‘t write to me. difference It makes no ………………………………………………. in touch or not. 5. I don‘t know how he is going to accept the fact that he has lost his job. terms I don‘t know if he is going to …………………………………….. his job. 6. Finding the survivors is our number one priority. utmost It is of the ………………………………………………. the survivors. 7. George didn‘t feel like dancing that night. mood George …………………………………………….. dancing that night. 8. She didn‘t mention her illness at all. reference She ………………………………………………………… her illness. 9. The ferry timetable can alter depending on the weather. subject The ferry timetable ……………………………… depending on the weather. 10. In the end we did all the housework on Sunday. up We …………………………………………… all the housework on Sunday.

___ THE END___

PRACTICE TEST 44 II. PHONETICS: Part 1: Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. 1. A. contribute B. tornado C. category D. tsunami 2. A. diplomacy B. intimacy C. peninsula D. pneumonia 3. A. telecommuting B. notwithstanding C. humanitarian D. nevertheless 4. A. coincident B. indicative C. arithmetic D. prosperous 5. A. Arabic B. lunatic C. prolific D. politic Part 2: Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. 1. A. conservation B. consequential C. conscientious D. consideration 2. A. grandeur B. individual C. soldier D. destiny 3. A. cleanliness B. lead C. healing D. steady 4. A. guiltless B. unsuitable C. building D. circuit 5. A. oaths B. wreaths C. months D. youths III. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY: Part 1: Choose the best answer to each of the following questions. 1. Andrew is a very disciplined employee. He ________ great importance to coming to work in time. A. affixes B. attributes C. admits D. attaches 2. The scientists broke down as they realized that all their efforts had gone to ________ . A. loss B. failure C. waste D. collapse 3. After eating the apple, she threw the ________ into the bin. A. core B. remains C. center D. stone 4. Peter was the ________ force behind the company‘s rapid expansion. A. driving B. leading C. rising D. managing 5. The tracker stalked the tiger for days but the animal ________ capture. A. missed B. eluded C. jumped D. slipped 6. The minister made no ________ of any further negotiations. A. comment B. mention C. remark D. indication 7. After years of working together, the partners found themselves ________ linked. A. permanently B. perpetually C. inextricably D. indelibly 8. It was difficult for the projector to ________ his voice to the back of the hall. A. project B. raise C. shout D. deliver 9. He was prepared to announce the news to all and ___________. A. remainders B. odds C. sundry D. select 10. He seems ___________ of any humour whatsoever. A. lacking B. devoid C. light D. low 11. If you are at a(n) ________ end, you could help me in the garden. A. open B. free C. loose D. empty 12. I must get to bed early tonight; I sat up till the ________ hours to finish that report. A. late B. small C. last D. deep 13. Being alone in the house all day looking after three young children is enough to make anyone‘s patience wear ________ . A. thin B. out C. down D. slim 14. He justified his harsh words on the grounds that they had been made in the ________ of the moment. A. spur B. heat C. flash D. height 15. After several hours on the road they became ________ to the fact that they would never reach the hotel by nightfall. A. dejected B. resigned C. depressed D. disillusioned 16. The ________ of blood always makes him feel sick. A. view B. scene C. form D. sight 17. ________ is known about the side-effects of the new drug. A. All but nothing B. Next to nothing C. Next to everything D. Next to anything 18. Anna sat on the grass ________ an apple. A. chewing B. munching C. grinding D. sucking 19. People expect their representatives on the council to be ready and willing to ________ the important local issues. A. address B. criticize C. target D. hint 20. Check the bottle carefully to make sure they have not been ________ .

A. tampered with B. touched up C. broken into D. taken out Part 2: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the correct words in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. We map cities by private benchmarks what are meaningful only to us. The 0. what → which Greater London Council is responsible for a sprawl shaped as a rugby ball about 25 1. ______________ miles long and 20 miles wide; my London is a concise kidney-shaping patch within 2. ______________ that space, in which none point is more than about seven miles from any other. I hardly 3. ______________ ever trespass beyond those limits, and when I do I feel I'm in a foreign territory, a 4. ______________ landscape of hazardous and rumour. The constrictedness of this privacy city-within-a- 5. ______________ city has the character of a self-fulfilling prophecy. It‘s boundaries, originally arrived at 6. ______________ by chance and usage, grow more not less real the longer I live in London. I have 7. ______________ friends who lives in Clapham, only three miles off, but to visit them is a definite 8. ______________ journey, for it involves to cross the river. I can, though, drop in on friends in Islington, 9. _____________ twice as far away as Clapham, since it is in what I feel to be my own territory. When I 10. ____________ first came to London, I moved about the city very more freely than I do now; I took the liberties of a tourist and measured distances in miles rather than by the relationship with the unknown. In Manhattan, on my first afternoon in New York, I asked the man I'd lunched with for directions to a part of downtown Brooklyn where I had to do a call. He puzzled over my question and eventually needed to look at my map; he had lived in New York for 25 years, and had last been to Brooklyn, just over the bridge from his office, 12 years ago. Part 3: Complete the following sentences with the correct prepositions. 1. He never told us he was Italian and that his real name was Franco. We all knew him ______________ the name of Eddie. 2. The president will be delivering a speech ______________ memory of the war victims and the representatives from around the world will be laying wreaths at the tomb. 3. We are in ______________ a lot of trouble unless George manages to repair the radio station. 4. This new record is growing _________ me. 5. My photos didn‘t come _________ very well. 6. When I asked Jane, she hinted _________ the chance of a promotion for me. 7. On its first voyage, the Titanic met _________ disaster. 8. I don‘t hold ______________ the idea of using force. 9. Well done! Keep ______________ the good work. 10. I put up with the problem for a while but in the end I had it ______________ with her. 11. They hit ______________ the solution quite by chance. 12. We‘ll go out for a walk if the rain lets ________ . 13. I worked ________ a lot when I was younger but now I prefer easier exercise like walking! 14. The weather seems to be looking ___________ . 15. The director went mad ___________ the couple who didn't come for the dress rehearsal on Friday. 16. The escaped hostage found it hard to get used to a normal life after having been deprived ___________ freedom for so many years. 17. The police arrived immediately after the call and caught the burglar __________ the spot. 18. She may seem to be crazy about fashion, but she certainly knows what is __________ vogue. 19. The doctors don't give him much chance of surviving. In a word, his life is ____________ the line. 20. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it __________ disposal. Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. The Word 'Bogus' For years 'bogus' was a word the British read in newspaper (0) _______ (LINE) but tended not to say. Its popularity among the teenagers of America changed that, although they didn't use it with its original meaning. It came from the 0. headlines Wild West. Its first appearance in print, in 1827, was in the Telegraph of Painesville, Ohio, where it meant a machine for making (1) ________ (FORGE) of 1. _______________ coins. Soon, those 'boguses' were turning out 'bogus money' and the word had (2) 2. _______________ ________ (GO) a change from noun to adjective. By the end of the 19 th century, it 3. ________________ was well-established in Britain, applied to anything false, spurious or intentionally

(3) ________ (LEAD). But the computer scientists of 1960s America, to whom we 4.________________ owe so much (4) ________ (LANGUAGE) innovation, redefined it to mean 'non- 5. ________________ functional', 'useless', or 'unbelievable', especially in relation to calculations and engineering ideas. This was followed by its (5) ________ (EMERGE) among 6. ________________ Princeton and Yale graduates in the East Coast computer community. But it was 7. ________________ the (6) ________ (ADOPT) of the word by American teenagers generally, who 8. ________________ used it to mean simply 'bad', that led to it being widely used by their counterparts in 9. ________________ Britain. (7) ________(INTEREST), 'bogus' is one of only about 1,300 English words 10. _______________ for which no sensible origin has emerged. The 1827 'bogus' machine seems to have been named by an (8) ________ (LOOK) present at the time of its capture by police. But why that word? The Oxford English Dictionary suggests a connection with a New England word, 'tantrobogus', meaning the devil. A rival US account sees it as a (9) ________ (CORRUPT) of the name of a forger, called Borghese or Borges. (10) ________ (ELSE), it has been connected with the French word 'bagasse', meaning the refuse from sugar-cane production. Part 5: Give the correct form of the verbs in brackets. a. A pair of birds (build) (1) …………….. a nest in the porch since last week. I (watch) (2) ……………. them from my window since they began. b. It is vital that no one else (know) (3) ………………. about the secret government operation. c. After (deliver) (4) …………………. of a healthy baby boy, Catherine was taken to the recovery room. d. From the day five years ago when they (marry) (5) …………….. until today, Tom has relied on his wife (do) (6) …………… everything in the house and she (never fail) (7) …………. (give) (8) ……..……. him the easiest home life a man could have. e. It was our fault to keep you waiting so long. We (inform) (9) ……………. you in advance. f. It seems strange to be standing here, (look) (10) …………….. out at Sydney Harbor. g. Mr. John prefers that his boss (speak) (11) ……….…….with him personally. h. Last year we (visit) (12) ……………….. the White House. I was very disappointed. Next time we (apply) (13) ……………… early for a pass. i. The cheese looks as if rats (nibble) (14) ……………… it. j. All things (consider) (15) ……………… , it served him right. k. A flower pot fell off the balcony on to the head of a man who was standing below. It was most unfortunate that he happened to be standing just there. If he (stand) (16) ……………… a foot to the right or left, he ( unharm) (17) ……………….. . l. He talks as if he (do) (18) …………….. all the work himself, but in fact Tom and I did most of it. m. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on (become) (19)………………. Prime Minister. n. I (mean) (20) ……………….. to have a talk with you about a problem that I have known about for a long time. Part 6: Read the following text and choose from the list A-G the best phrase to fill each of the blanks. Write your answers in the spaces below. There are two extra phrases or sentences. Many of the most damaging and life-threatening types of weather - torrential rains, severe thunderstorms, and tornadoes - begin quickly, strike suddenly, and dissipate rapidly, devastating small regions while leaving neighboring areas untouched. (1)_____. Total damages from the tornado exceeded $ 250 million, the highest ever for any Canadian storm. (2)_____, because the available weather data are generally not detailed enough to allow computers to discern the subtle atmospheric changes that precede these storms. In most nations, for example, weather balloon observations are taken just once every twelve hours at locations typically separated by hundreds of miles. (3)_____. Until recently, the observation-intensive approach needed for accurate, very short-range forecasts, or "Nowcasts", was not feasible. The cost of equipping and operating many thousands of conventional weather stations was prohibitively high, and the difficulties involved in rapidly collecting and processing the raw weather data from such a network were insurmountable. Fortunately, scientific and technological advances have overcome most of these problems. (4) ______. Communications satellites can transmit data around the world cheaply and instantaneously, and modern computers can quickly compile and analyze this large volume of weather information. Meteorologists and computer scientists now work together to design computer programs and video equipment capable of transforming raw weather data into words, symbols, and vivid graphic displays that forecasters can interpret easily and quickly. (5) _______ . A. With such limited data, conventional forecasting models do a much better job predicting general

weather conditions over large regions than they do forecasting specific local events B. Scientists at Columbia University and the National Center for Atmospheric Research have adapted techniques used in modern weather prediction to generate local forecasts of seasonal influenza outbreaks C. Conventional computer models of the atmosphere have limited value in predicting short-lived local storms like the Edmonton tornado D. As meteorologists have begun using these new technologies in weather forecasting offices, Nowcasting is becoming a reality E. Radar systems, automated weather instruments, and satellites are all capable of making detailed, nearly continuous observation over large regions at a relatively low cost F. One such event, a tornado, struck the northeastern section of Edmonton, Alberta, in July 1987 G. In weather forecasting, real-time observational data are used to nudge a numerical model to conform with reality, thus reducing error IV. Reading: Part 1: Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. Since the time of Nostradamus, meteorologists have been trying to (1) _______ the mystery of climatic changes. Their (2) _______ has been to be able to precisely (3) _______ the weather for the days to come. In the past, meteorologists looked skywards to find hints in the clouds. At present, their eyes are (4) _______ at the spots where the most intriguing climatic transformations (5) _______ about, namely, the (6) _______ depths of the oceans where swirls, whirlpools and waves (7) _______ the patterns for the future weather. The most efficient way of (8) _______ hold of the everchanging map of the swirling currents circulating their heat around the planet is from space. Weather satellites equipped (9) _______ complicated instruments examine the surface and the bottom of the oceans and determine the exact height of water. The impressive advantage offered by satellite scanning is that measurements can be (10) _______ even in the most inaccessible parts of the oceans and can provide daily pictures of the water surface together with the (11) _______ wave height and wind speed. (12) _______ being a priceless device for predicting climatic conditions for tourists, farmers or aviators, weather satellites also (13) _______ advance warnings (14) _______ storms or typhoons which (15) _______ the coastal populations to protect themselves against these destructive forces of nature. 1. A. decipher B. account C. elaborate D. obviate 2. A. subject B. objectivity C. subjection D. objective 3. A. unravel B. perceive C. forecast D. explore 4. A. looked B. directed C. focused D. applied 5. A. come B. turn C. bring D. get 6. A. indefinite B. ultimate C. terminal D. utmost 7. A. generate B. accomplish C. procure D. formulate 8. A. getting B. coming C. finding D. making 9. A. by B. with C. in D. of 10. A. done B. formed C. fulfilled D. taken 11. A. calculated B. amounted C. scored D. enumerated 12. A. Besides B. Apart C. Otherwise D. Whereby 13. A. denote B. proceed C. emerge D. issue 14. A. against B. for C. with D. either 15. A. entitle B. entail C. enforce D. enable Part 2: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. Celebrity Crossover It is not surprising that actors want to be pop stars, and vice versa. (1) _______ that is deep in a part of our brain that most of us manage to keep (2) _______ control, we all want to be pop stars and actors. Sadly, there's nothing about the (3) _______ profession that automatically qualifies you for the other, (4) _______ , of course, for the fact that famous actors and singers are already surrounded by people who never (5) _______ no to them. (6) _______ the whole, pop stars tend to fare better on screen than their (7) _______ numbers do on CD. Let's (8) _______ it: not being able to act is no big drawback in Hollywood, whereas not being able to play or sing still tends to count (9) _______ you in the recording studio. Some stars do display a genuine proficiency in both disciplines, and a few even maintain successful careers in both fields, but this just (10) _______ a bad example for all the others. (11) _______ every success, there are two dozen failures. And most of them have no idea (12) _______ terrible they are. (13)

_______ as power tends to corrupt, so celebrity tends to destroy the ability to gauge whether or not you're making a fool of (14) _______ . But perhaps we shouldn't criticize celebrities for trying to expand their horizons in this way. (15) _______ there is one good thing about actors trying to sing and singers trying to act, it is that it keeps them all too busy to write books. Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar? At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom. [1] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. [2] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [3] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [4] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children. Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born. Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have been 'It enddid'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy. 1. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language? A To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures B To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar C To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees. D To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language 2. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language? A It contained complex grammar. B It was based on many different languages.

C It was difficult to understand, even among slaves. D It was created by the land-owners. 3. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT: A The language has been created since 1979. B The language is based on speech and lip reading. C The language incorporates signs which children used at home. D The language was perfected by younger children. 4. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed? It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers. A.1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 5. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to: A from the very beginning B in simple cultures C by copying something else D by using written information 6. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to: A complicated and expressive B simple and temporary C extensive and diverse D private and personal 7. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence? Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. A All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar. B Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little. C Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a little. D The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved. 8. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT: A All children used the same gestures to show meaning. B The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language. C The hand movements were smoother and smaller. D New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities. 9. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph? A English was probably once a creole. B The English past tense system is inaccurate. C Linguists have proven that English was created by children. D Children say English past tenses differently from adults. 10. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the following? A natural B predictable C imaginable D uniform PART 4: Read the article about the meaning of dreams. Choose the most suitable heading from the box (A-H) for each part of the article (1-5). There are three headings which you do not need. Write your answers in the numbered box. A. FIRE B. CASTLE C. DEATH D. MOUNTAINS E. EXAMS F. GETTING STUCK G. FLYING H. FALLING THE MEANING OR DREAMS We all have dreams and can often remember parts or images from them. Here is a guide to the meanings of the most common images that appear in dreams. 1. ……….. This is one of the most common images, typically showing insecurity and anxiety. It may relate to a fear that a career or a relationship is coming to an end. The fact that we are not hurt when we land represents a hope that things won‘t turn out too badly. 2. ……….. This common dream – which commonly involves using our own arm or leg power (rather than any kind of engine) – seems to represent a wish to escape from the problems we are facing in everyday life. It may also represent a wish to achieve greater power. 3. …………. This represents strength and power. If the dreamers are inside, they are protected by the thick walls. If they are outside and looking at it, they may desire that safety. It is also sometimes the symbol of a woman.

4. ………….. This suggests that the dreamer has mixed feelings of love and hostility towards the person who dies, particularly if that person is close. If dreamers see themselves die, this may represent a desire to escape from pressure. 5. …………… Running forwards and not getting anywhere, or trying to walk through water or honey is a common image in dreams. It symbolizes a conflict of feeling, particularly the desire to escape, yet at the same time, not to escape. V. Writing Part 1: Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the one printed above. 1. The car has leather seats. The seats …………………………………………………….………………………….. 2. In the event of nuclear weapons being used, we are all doomed. If it should ……………………………………………………........................................ 3. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications. The more ………………………………………………………………………..……… 4. Mr. Tipper‘s wife was very sorry she couldn‘t celebrate the New Year with her husband. Mrs. Tipper greatly…………………………………………………………………… 5. The collision didn‘t damage my car much. Not a great………………………………………..…………………………………… Part 2: Rewrite the following sentences with the words given. 1. Teaching doesn‘t suit her. (cut) ………………………………………………………………………………………....... 2. The new ambassador is well-informed about current affairs. (wide) ………………………………………………………………………………………....... 3. I‘m afraid our problems are only just beginning. (ice berg) ………………………………………………………………………………………....... 4. The Greens consider Henry a good friend. (look) ………………………………………………………………………………………....... 5. I tiptoed to the door so as not to wake up the baby. (rather) ………………………………………………………………………………………....... ___ THE END___ PRACTICE TEST 45 B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points) Part 1. For questions 1-20, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions. (20 pts) 1. He ________ some unusual educational beliefs. A. keeps B. carries C. takes D. holds 2.There is a strong movement supporting the abolition of the death ________ . A. penalty B. punishment C. discipline D. condemnation 3. The study adds to a growing ________ of evidence that links a lack of sleep with weight gain. A. body B. form C. hulk D. soul 4. ―Are there any cookies left?‖ – ―No, ________ .‖ A. not anything B. nothing at all C. nothing whatever D. none whatsoever 5. It is ________ probable that they are the original bindings of the manuscript. A. widely B. highly C. utterly D. bitterly 6. The show was ________ bit as good as I expected. A. every B. so C. very D. much 7. My grandparents still ________ to old-fashioned ideas. A. grip B. seize C. cling D. grasp 8. So why is it that the hardest workers ________ standard are always the poorest of people. A. by any B. from any C. for every D. in every 9. I‘m hoping that this work experience will stand me in ________ in my future career. A. a good grounding B. good stead C. fine precedent D. stable footing 10. The similarities between all three crimes were such that they could not be ________ down to chance.

A. put B. laid C. set D. taken 11. His team scored a ________ victory over their opponents. A. broad B. narrow C. near D. mere 12. She doesn't mind working overtime because she gets paid ________ . A. by the hour B. all the hour C. at the hour D. in the hour 13. People often complain that children nowadays don't seem to respect their ________ . A. elderly B. elders C. aged D. age 14. There is a large effort ________ to rebuild arts education in the New York city public schools. A. under way B. a long way C. out of the way D. in the way 15. I see you've made the same mistake ________ again. A. ever B. still C. yet D. not 16. All statistical analysis must allow for a ________ of error. A. margin B. border C. frontier D. boundary 17. It's time to take a rough ________ against obesity. A. stance B. measure C. legislation D. angle 18. The world's first boot camp for teenagers addicted to the Internet may be the ________ of things to come. A. draft B. formula C. character D. shape 19. Questions have been raised about whether the meat industry has been given too much ____ to police itself. A. capital B. leeway C. scale D. vision 20. A U.N report claims that humans are inflicting damage to the environment that could pass the ____ of no return. A. peak B. point C. apex D.tip Part 2. Read the following text which contains 10 mistakes. Identify the errors and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 pts) Line 1 Many people want to know whether cycling is better than running or walking as an 2 exercise for health or weight loss. Not surprising, it turns out that all three 3 activities are excellent forms of exercise. While they are similar in which they are 4 all rhythmic aerobic activities working large muscle masses, there are also 5 significant differences. In general, in the three, running burns more calories per 6 minute. Considering a person who weighs 150 pounds. According to the National 7 Academy of Exercise, this person running at an average pace with seven minutes 8 per mile burn approximately 1,000 calories per hour. This compares to about 850 9 calories per hour for cycling at modest speed of 16 –19 miles per hour, and just 10 360 calories per hour for walking 15-minute miles, which is considered average 11 speed. While running might be more efficient at burning calories than either 12 cycling and walking, it also leads to significantly more injuries, especially ones of 13 the knees and other joint. Both cycling and walking are much gentler on the body. 14 All three activities improve aerobic fitness, which is closely linked to a reducing 15 risk of chronic disease and longer life span. 16 Your answers: ERROR CORRECTION ERROR CORRECTION (line .....) (line .....) 1. 6. 2. 7. 3. 8. 4. 9. 5. 10. Part 3. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles/prepositions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0). (10 pts) 0. He finds it hard to put _________ the noise of the nearby factory. Answer: up with 1. I can't believe how cheap it is to fly to New York right now. It's like they're giving the tickets ________. 2. Labor unions and the company face ________ in a confrontation over plans to curb benefits. 3. There was a huge coffee stain on floor near the copy machine at work. My boss asked who had made the

mess, but nobody would own ________ to it. Maybe the culprit was afraid that he or she would have to pay to have the carpet professionally cleaned. 4. Wayne missed ________ on the chance to go with us to the concert because he had the flu. 5. One of the inmates at the local prison escaped last week and was on the run for over three hours before they caught him. They used specially trained police dogs to track him ________. 6. Diana had wanted to spend Christmas in New Zealand, but her plans fell ________. She couldn't get enough time off from work to make the trip worthwhile. 7. At first I didn't like living in New York, but now the city is starting to grow ________ me. I think I am adapting to the fast-paced lifestyle. 8. This looks as if it's going to set us ________ a small fortune. I had no idea it would be so expensive. 9. Her lack of experience counted ________ her when she applied for promotion. 10. The launching of the Soviet Sputnik in 1957 touch _______ a subsequent space race with the US. Part 4. Write the correct FORM of the word given in capitals. (10 pts) Almost without exception, when a little boy starts to cry, he‘s told to put a brave face on it. ―Boys don‘t cry!‖ is the familiar 1. EXCLAIM ________, and with this, we exert enormous pressure on our sons to hide their emotions. Girls are almost 2. VARY ________ expected to express their feelings, but it would be 3. ERROR ________ to believe that they are born weaker, more sensitive or with a greater natural 4. INCLINE ________ to cry. Boys have feelings too. According to several leading psychiastrists, boys are more vulnerable to psychological and other problems later in life. Social pressures on them to be ―tough‖ can 5. EFFECTIVE ________ their academic performance, and even lead to 6. SOCIETY ________ behaviour. This, in turn, can manifest itself in 7. ACTION ________ of violence and recklessness. It is even suspected that the 8. SIGNIFICANCE ________ higher rate of suicide among young men is a result of boys being 9. ABILITY ________ to ―get it off their chest‖, as compared to girls and women, who 10. CONFIDENCE ________ more readily in others and are more likely to seek professional help if they are emotionally distressed. C. READING (60 points) Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts) That old saying, "It's not what you know, it's who you know" sums up what may well be the most important 1. _________ of climbing the business ladder. Diligence, competence and experience are fine 2. _________, but they are not enough. While this is no great secret, the fact 3. _________ that skilled workers are few and 4. _________between yet business success depends on informal networking and sociologists have 5. _________ that the majority of top jobs in the US are obtained through it. A vast 6. _________of jobs are never advertised and of those that are, many have already been 7. _________to someone known to the company. These processes 8. _________not just to industry but to the government and public sector as well. Potentially, colleagues, superiors, business friends, customers, suppliers can provide a networker with information, addresses and open doors that make the difference between stagnation and a rapid rise. Nonetheless, as a communications trainer in Germany put it: "Many people just do not know how to 9. _____, develop and foster promising relationships." For some, networking 10. ___ just too time-consuming or stressful. Such individuals shut themselves in their office and minimize contact with the outside world. They may do a great job of work, but they are unlikely to make great career strides. 1. A. measures B. resources C. means D. actions 2. A. marks B. qualities C. types D. distinctions 3. A. remains B. lasts C. continues D. keeps 4. A. long B. far C. wide D. broad 5. A. distinguished B. located C. viewed D. found 6. A. ratio B. division C. proportion D. section 7. A. promised B. assured C. declared D. warranted 8. A. carry B. engage C. suit D. apply 9. A. induct B. install C. invest D. initiate 10. A. shows B. proves C. turns D. results Part 2. For questions 1-10, read the text below and think of word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts) Men and women are different. It is a premise universally accepted, 1. _________ the subsequent argument concerning access to equal opportunities. However, what is beginning to emerge is just how wide the gap is between the sexes. 2. _________ recently, it had been thought that many of the hundreds of genes on the X and Y chromosomes

were inactive, a consequence of damage during the 3. _________ of combination and recombination which leads to the creation of a new human being. It was believed that 4. _________ one of the two X chromosomes in women was active and 5. _________ there were none on the Y chromosomes on men, 6. _________ the result that both sexes would be comparable to 7. _________ one working X chromosome. Now, it is known that both X chromosomes in women 8. _________ to a women's genetic inheritance, while startling new evidence shows that the Y chromosome is 9. _________ from inactive. This means that men and women differ 10. _________ as much as one to two percent of their genomes, an astounding figure when considering that there is only a 1.5% difference between a man and a male chimpanzee, or a woman and a female chimpanzee. Part 3. Read the text below. For questions 1-10, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 pts) Paragr Decisions aph In a theoretical model of decision making, a decision is defined as the process of selecting one 1 option from among a group of options for implementation. []4A. Decisions are formed by a decision maker, the one who actually chooses the final option, in conjunction with a decision unit, all of those in the organization around the decision maker who take part in the process. []4B. In this theoretical model, the members of the decision unit react to an unidentified problem by studying the problem, determining the objectives of the organization, formulating options, evaluating the strengths and weaknesses of each of the options, and reaching a conclusion. []4C. Many different factors can have an effect on the decision, including the nature of the problem itself, external forces exerting an influence on the organization, the internal dynamics of the decision unit, and the personality of the decision maker. []4D During recent years, decision making has been studied systematically by drawing from such diverse areas of study as psychology, sociology, business, government, history, mathematics, and statistics. Analyses of decisions often emphasize one of three principal conceptual perspectives 2 (though often the approach that is actually employed is somewhat eclectic). In the oldest of the three approaches, decisions are made by a rational actor, who makes a particular decision directly and purposefully in response to a specific threat from the external environment. It is assumed that this rational actor has clear objectives in mind, develops numerous reasonable options, considers the advantages and disadvantages of each option 3 carefully, chooses the best option after careful analysis, and then proceeds to implement it fully. A variation of the rational actor model is a decision maker who is a satisfier, one who selects the first satisfactory option rather than continuing the decision-making process until the optimal decision has been reached. A second perspective places an emphasis on the impact of routines on decisions within organizations. It demonstrates how organizational structures and routines such as standard operating procedures tend to limit the decision-making process in a variety of ways, perhaps by restricting the information available to the decision unit, by restricting the breadth of options among which the decision unit may choose, or by inhibiting the ability of the organization to implement the decision quickly and effectively once it has been taken. Pre-planned routines and standard operating procedures are essential to coordinate the efforts of large numbers of people in massive organizations. However, these same routines and procedures can also have an inhibiting effect on the ability of the organization to arrive at optimal decisions and implement them 4 efficiently. In this sort of decision-making process, organizations tend to take not the optimal decision but the decision that best fits within the permitted operating parameters outlined by the organization. A third conceptual perspective emphasizes the internal dynamics of the decision unit and the extent to which decisions are based on political forces within the organization. This perspective demonstrates how bargaining among individuals who have different interests and motives and varying levels of power in the decision unit lead to eventual compromise that is not the preferred choice of any of the members of the decision unit. 5 Each of these three perspectives on the decision-making process demonstrates a different point of view on decision making, a different lens through which the decision-making process can be observed. It is safe to say that decision making in most organizations shows marked influences from each perspective; i.e., an organization strives to get as close as possible to the rational model in its decisions, yet the internal routines and dynamics of the organization come into play in the 6 decision.

1. It can be inferred from the information in paragraph 1 that the theoretical decision-making process A. involves only the decision maker B. requires the contemplation of numerous options. C. is made without the decision unit D. does not work in real situations 2. The phrase in conjunction with in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by A. along with B. tied to C. apart from D. connected to 3. All of the following are listed in paragraph 1 as having an effect on decisions EXCEPT A. evaluation of the problem B. focus on objectives C. generation of options D. open-ended discussions 4. Look at the four squares [] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage Additionally, when a decision must be made in a crisis situation, both stress and the speed at which events are progressing can have an effect, often a negative one, on the decision process. 5. The word eclectic in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. bizarre B. personal C. mixed D. organized 6. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that a rational actor would be least likely to A. deal with a specific threat B. work in a random fashion C. ponder various options D. consider disadvantages of options 7. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to A. each option B. the best option C. careful analysis D. variation 8. Why does the author mention a satisfier, one who selects the first satisfactory option rather than continuing the decision-making process until the optimal decision has been reached in paragraph 3? A. A satisfier shows contrasting behavior to a rational actor. B. A satisfier exhibits more common behavior than a rational actor. C. A satisfier is the predecessor of a rational actor. D. A satisfier shares some characteristics with a rational actor. 9. According to paragraph 5, what is the end result of political bargaining within an organization? A. No decision is ever reached. B. Differing interests and motives are changed. C. No one is completely satisfied with the final outcome. D. The members of the decision unit leave the unit. 10. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Set routines within organizations tend to constrain decisions. B. The restriction of information limits the number of options in a decision. C. Organizations need to set up strict procedures to maximize the effectiveness of decisions. D. Procedures are needed to ensure that decisions are implemented quickly and effectively. Part 4. Read the passage and answer the questions from 1-10 (15 pts) TACKLING OBESITY IN THE WESTERN WORLD A. Obesity is a huge problem in many Western countries and one which now attracts considerable medical interest as researchers take up the challenge to find a cure for the common condition of being seriously overweight. However, rather than take responsibility for their weight, obese people have often sought solace in the excuse that they have a slow metabolism, a genetic hiccup which sentences more than half the Australian population (63% of men and 47% of women) to a life of battling with their weight. The argument goes like this: it doesn‘t matter how little they eat, they gain weight because their bodies break down food and turn it into energy more slowly than those with a so-called normal metabolic rate. B. ―This is nonsense,‖ says Dr Susan Jebb from the Dunn Nutrition Unit at Cambridge in England. Despite the persistence of this metabolism myth, science has known for several years that the exact opposite is in fact true. Fat people have faster metabolisms than thin people. ―What is very clear,‖ says Dr Jebb, ― is that overweight people actually burn off more energy. They have more cells, bigger hearts, bigger lungs and they all need more energy just to keep going.‖ C. It took only one night, spent in a sealed room at the Dunn Unit to disabuse one of their patients of the beliefs of a lifetime: her metabolism was fast, not slow. By sealing the room and measuring the exact amount of oxygen she used, researchers were able to show her that her metabolism was not the culprit. It wasn‘t the answer they expected and probably not the one she wanted but she took the news philosophically. D. Although the metabolism myth has been completely disproved, science has far from discounted our genes as responsible for making us whatever weight we are, fat or thin. One of the world‘s leading obesity researchers, geneticist Professor Stephen O‘Rahilly, goes so far as to say we are on the threshold of a complete change in the way we view not ony morbid obesity, but aslo everyday overweight. Prof.O‘Rahilly‘s groundbreaking work in Cambridge has proven that obesity can be caused by our genes. ―These people are

not weak-will, slothful or lazy,‖ says Pro.O‘Rahilly, ―They have a medical condition due to genetic defect and that causes them to be obese.‖ E. In Australia, the University of Sydney‘s Professor Ian Caterson says while major genetic defects may be rare, many people probably have minor genetic variations that combine to dictate weight and are responsible for things such as how much we eat, the amount of exercise we do and the amount of energy we need. When you add up all these little variations, the result is that some people are genetically predisposed to putting on weight. He says while the fast/slow metabolism debate may have been settled, that doesn‘t mean some other subtle changes in the metabolism gene won‘t be found in overweight people. He is confident that science will, eventually, be able to ―cure‖ some forms of obesity but the only effective way for the vast majority of overweight and obese people to lose weight is a change of diet and an increase in exercise. F. Despite the $500 million a year Australians spend trying to lose weight and the $830 million it costs the community in health care, obesity is at epidemic proportions here, as it is in all Western nations. Until recently, research and treatment for obesity had concentrated on behaviour modification, drugs to decrease appetite and surgery. How the drugs worked was often not understood and many caused severe side effects and even death in some patients. Surgery for obesity has also claimed many lives. Questions 1-5: Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet. i. Obesity in animals Paragraph A x ii. Hidden dangers iii. Proof of the truth 1. Paragraph B iv. New perspective on the horizon 2. Paragraph C v. No known treatment 3. Paragraph D vi. Expert explains energy requirements of obese people 4. Paragraph E vii. Nature or nurture 5. Paragraph F viii. Shifting the blame ix. Lifestyle change required despite new findings Questions 6-10 Complete the summary below, using the words from the box provided. OBESITY People with a weight problem often try to deny responsibility. They do this by seeking to blame their 6. ________ for the fact that they are overweight and erroneously believe that they use 7. ________ energy than thin people to stay alive. However, recent research has shown that a 8.________ problem can be responsible for obesity as some people seem programmed to 9.________ more than others. The new research points to a shift from trying to change people‘s 10.________ to seeking an answer to the problem in the laboratory. List of words weight exercise sleep mind bodies exercise metabolism more genetic less physical consume behaviour use mental IV. Writing: Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (10 pts) 1. I explained what had happened but they totally refused to accept what I said.  They found ____________________________________________ 2. The stadium capacity has been considerably expanded following the rise in the number of spectators.  The rise in the number of spectators has led to _________________ 3. We may as well start the meeting, now that we are all here.  As ___________________________________________________ 4. The day was unbearably hot until the sun went down.  Only __________________________________________________ 5. It‘s a widespread assumption that George was wrongly accused.  George _________________________________________________ Part 2. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in brackets and the meaning stays the same. Do NOT change the form of the given word. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the

word given. 1. The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked. (light)  The mistake in the accounts only ______________ the figures were re-checked. 2. It's possible that they got the wrong idea and thought the party was next week. (reached)  They might ______________ conclusion and thought the party was next week. 3. When I realized what had happened, I became quite afraid. (overcome)  I ______________________________ when I worked out what had happened. 84. I'm so sorry, I didn't realize it was so late. (track)  Sorry, I __________________________________________ time. 5. I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour. (leaves)  Half-an-hour ___________________________________ completely exhausted. ---- THE END ---PRACTICE TEST 46 SECTION 2. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 POINTS) Part 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points) 1. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journey and ups and downs ____. A. aplenty B. inexhaustibly C. profusely D. superabundant 2. I haven‘t seen Jane for nearly ten years, ____ I had got married and had two children. A. for that duration B. at that point C. during which time D. in that time 3. It stands to reason that a touch of humor and optimism can work ____. A. on all cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders D. your fingers to the bone 4. Researchers have made a(n) ____ plea for more sponsorship so that they can continue their project. A. compassionate B. dispassionate C. encompassed D. impassioned 5. At first, she was ____ dumbfounded to hear that he wanted to break up, and then came the stirring of autohypnotic perturbation. A. exceedingly B. out-and-out C. somewhat D. utterly 6. In the hands of a reckless driver, a car becomes a ____ weapon. A. lethal B. fatal C. mortal D. venal 7. It‘s a shame they did not pick you, but it does not ____ out the possibility that you might get a job in a different department. A. rule B. strike C. cancel D. draw 8. There‘s a small hard ____ on my wrist. I think I‘d better see the doctor. A. swelling B. lump C. bruise D. rash 9. The inconsiderate driver was ____ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place. A. inflicted B. harassed C. condemned D. confined 10. At first Tom insisted he was right, but then began to ____. A. back down B. follow up C. drop off D. break up Part 2. The passage below contains 5 errors. Write the errors and corrections in the numbered boxes. Essential oils (also known as volatile oil) are the basic materials of aromatherapy. They are made from fragrant essences found in many plants. These essences are made from special plant cells, often under the surface of leaves, bark, or peel, using energy from the sun and elements from the air, soil, and water. If the plant is crushed, the essence and its unique fragrance is released. When essences are extracted from plants in natural ways, they become essential oils. They may be distilled with steam and/or water, or mechanically press. Oils that are made with chemical processes are not considered true essential oils. There are many essential oils used in aromatherapy, including those from Roman chamomile, geranium, lavender, tea tree, lemon, cedar-wood, and bergamot. Every type of essential oil has a different chemical composition that affects how it smells, how it is absorbed, and how it is used by the body. Even the oils from varieties of plants within the same species may have chemical compositions different from each other. The same applies to plants that are grown or harvested in different ways or locations. Your answer: Mistakes

Corrections

1 2 3 4 5 Part 3. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 points) 1. These flowers belong _________ the plants classified as grasses. 2. The figures in the government report differ _________ those in our study. 3. In two studies involving 3221 participants there was no difference between the omega‐3 PUFA and placebo group in mini‐mental state examination score _________ final follow‐up 4. If somebody chips _________, we can get the kitchen painted by noon. 5. He was just an important cog _________ the machine of organized crime. Part 4. Write the correct from of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes. HECTOR BERLIOZ Hector Berlioz (1) _______ (DUBIOUS) fitted the notion of the Romantic artist of the nineteenth century: idiosyncratic, eccentric, (2)_______ (ORTHO), rebellious, (3)_______ (CALCITE), impetuous and highly strung. And, true to the Romantic ideal of art and life as one, his music mirrored his (4) _______ (TEMPER) – and still polarises opinion. There are those who hail Berlioz as one of music‘s great (5)_______ (BLAZE); others hear little more than (6)_______ (BLOW) rhetoric. Did the German poet, Heine, capture the character of the Frenchman when he said Berlioz ‗had not sufficient talent for his genius‘? Whatever his technical (7)_______ (SHORT), there is no doubt that with the Symphonie fantastique Berlioz shattered musical boundaries. The symphony‘s wild swings of emotion, its (8)_______ (NIGHT) imagery, and its (9)_______ (DISGUISE) depiction of the mental state of its creator, were utterly unlike anything ever composed before. It was an astonishing achievement for a (10)_______ (DOMINATE) untrained composer of just twenty-six and Berlioz never again plunged quite so deeply into the dark abyss of the psyche as here. SECTION 3. READING COMPREHENSION (60 POINTS) Part 1. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (10 points) Jean Piaget, the pioneering Swiss philosopher and psychologist, became famous for his theories on child development. A child (1) ____ , he became interested in the scientific study of nature at an early age. He developed a special fascination for biology, having some of his work published before graduating from high school. When, (2) ____ 10, his observations led to questions that could be answered only by access to the university library, Piaget wrote and published some notes on the sighting of an albino sparrow in the (3) ____ that this would persuade the librarian to stop treating him like a child. It worked. Piaget was (4) ____ on a path that led to his doctorate in zoology and a lifelong conviction that the way to understand anything is to know how it evolves. Piaget went on to spend much of his (5) ____ life listening to and watching children, and poring over reports of researchers who were doing the same. He found, to put it (6) ____, that children don‘t think like adults. After thousands of interactions with young people often barely old enough to talk, Piaget began to suspect that behind their cute and seemingly illogical (7) ____ were thought processes that had their own kind of order and their own special logic. Albert Einstein, the renowned physicist, deemed this a discovery ―so simple that only a genius could have thought of it.‖. Piaget‘s insight opened a new window into the inner workings of the mind. Several new fields of science, among them developmental psychology and cognitive theory, came into being as a result of his research. Although not an educational reformer, he championed a way of thinking about children that provided the foundation for today‘s education reform movements. One might say that Piaget was the first to (8) ____ children‘s thinking seriously. Others who shared this respect for children may have fought harder for immediate change in schools, but Piaget‘s influence on education remains deeper and more pervasive. Piaget has been (9) ____ by generations of teachers inspired by the belief that children are not empty vessels to be filled with knowledge, as traditional academic thinking had it, but active builders of knowledge - little scientists who are constantly creating and testing their own theories of the world. And

while he may not be as famous as Sigmund Freud, Piaget‘s contribution to psychology may be longer lasting. As computers and the Internet give children greater autonomy to explore ever larger digital worlds, the ideas he (10) ____ become ever more relevant. 1. A. prodigy B. talent C. genius D. gifted 2. A. aging B. age C. be aged D. aged 3. A. purpose B. target C. hope D. aim 4. A. launched B. introduced C. led D. initiated 5. A. professional B. academic C. vocational D. whole 6. A. shortly B. succinctly C. clearly D. simply 7. A. sentences B. speech C. words D. utterances 8. A. get B. take C. make D. have 9. A. respected B. revered C. venerated D. adored 10. A. created B. believed C. pioneered D. propagandized Part 2. Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (15 points) HOWARD‟S CAREER AS A PALAEONTOLOGIST Howard became a paleontologist because of a (1) ______ in interest rates when he was six years old. His father, a cautious man with a large mortgage and thoughts focussed merely on how the economic situation would affect him, announced that the projected holiday to Spain was no longer (2) ______. A chalet was rented on the English coast instead and thus, on a dank August afternoon, Howard picked up a coiled fossil shell, called an ammonite, on the beach. He know for a long time that he wanted to become a paleontologist, and (3) ______ the end of his time at university he became clear as to what sort of paleontologist he wanted to be. He found the focus of his interest reaching further and further back in time. The more spectacular areas were not for him, he realized, turning his back on the Jurassic, on (4) ______. He was drawn particularly to the beginnings, to that ultimate antiquity (5) ______ everything is decided, from which, against all odds, we derive. So he studied delicate creatures revealed on the surface of grey rocks. Work on his doctoral (6) ______ came to an end, and, he knew, possibly a bitter one. Would he get a job? Would he get a job in the sort of institution he sought? He was far from being without self-esteem and knew that his potential was good. But he knew that whose who deserve do not always get, and that while the objectives of science may be pure and uncompromising, the process of appointment to an academic position is not. When the Assistant Lectureship at Tavistock College in London came up, he applied at once, though (7) ______ high hopes. (8) ______ the morning of Howard‘s interview, the professor who would chair the panel had a row with his wife. As a consequence he left home in a state of irritation and inattention, drove his car violently into a gatepost and ended up in the Casualty Department of the local hospital. The interview took place without him and without the support he had intended to give to a candidate who had been a student of his. The professor who replaced him on the panel was a hated colleague, whose main concern was to oppose the appointment of his enemy‘s protege; he was able to engineer without much difficulty that Howard got the job. Howard, surprised at the evident (9) ______ from a man he did not know, was fervently grateful until, months later, a colleague kindly enlightened him as to the correct interpretation of events. Howard was only slightly chagrined. It would have been nice to think that he was the obvious candidate, or that he had captivated those present with his ability and personality. But by then the only thing that really mattered was that he had the job and that he could support (10) ______ by doing the sort of work he wanted to do. Part 3. Read the following passage and complete the statements that follow by circling A, B, C, or D to indicate your answer which you think fits best (10 points) [1] Canadian English is a regional variety of North American English that spans almost the entire continent. Canadian English became a separate variety of North American English after the American Revolution, when thousands of Loyalists, people who had supported the British, left the United States and fled north to Canada. Many Loyalists settled in southern Ontario in the 1780s, and their speech became the basis for what is called General Canadian, a definition based on the norms of urban middle-class speech. [2] Modern Canadian English is usually defined by the ways in which it resembles and differs from American or British English. Canadian English has a great deal in common with the English spoken in the United States, yet many Americans identify a Canadian accent as British. Many American visitors to Canada think the Canadian vocabulary- sounds British – for example, they notice the British "tap" and "braces" instead of the American "faucet" and "suspenders." On the other hand, many British people identify a Canadian accent as American, and British visitors think the Canadians have become Americanized, saying "gas" and "truck" for "petrol" and "lorry."

[3] People who live outside North America often find it difficult to hear the differences between Canadian and American English. There are many similarities between the two varieties, yet they are far from identical. Canadian English is instantly recognizable to other Canadians, and one Canadian in a crowded room will easily spot the other Canadian among the North Americans. [4] There is no distinctive Canadian grammar. The differences are mainly in pronunciation, vocabulary, and idioms. Canadian pronunciation reflects the experience of a people struggling for national identity against two strong influences. About 75 percent of Canadians use the British "zed" rather than the American "zee" for the name of the last letter of the alphabet. On the other hand, 75 percent of Canadians use the American pronunciation of "schedule," "tomato," and "missile." The most obvious and distinctive feature of Canadian speech is probably its vowel sound, the diphthong "/ou/." In Canada, "out" is pronounced like "oat" in nearby U.S. accents. There are other identifying features of Canadian vowels: for example, "cot" is pronounced the same as "caught" and "collar" the same as "caller." [5] An important characteristic of the vocabulary of Canadian English is the use of many words and phrases originating in Canada itself, such as "kerosene" and "chesterfield" ("sofa"). Several words are borrowed from North American Indian languages, for example, "kayak," "caribou," "parka," and "skookum" ("strong"). The name of the country itself has an Indian origin; the Iroquois word "kanata" originally meant "village." A number of terms for ice hockey – "face-off," "blue-line," and "puck" – have become part of World Standard English. [6] Some features of Canadian English seem to be unique and are often deliberately identified with Canadian speakers in such contexts as dramatic and literary characterizations. Among the original Canadian idioms, perhaps the most famous is the almost universal use of "eh?" as a tag question, as in "That's a good movie, eh?" "Eh" is also used as a filler during a narrative, as in "I'm walking home from work, eh, and I'm thinking about dinner. I finally get home, eh, and the refrigerator is empty." [7] The traditional view holds that there are no dialects in Canadian English and that Canadians cannot tell where other Canadians are from just by listening to them. The linguists of today disagree with this view. While there is a greater degree of homogeneity in Canadian English compared with American English, several dialect areas do exist across Canada. Linguists have identified distinct dialects for the Maritime Provinces, Newfoundland, the Ottawa Valley, southern Ontario, the Prairie Provinces, the Arctic North, and the West. 1. According to the passage, how did Canadian English become a distinct variety of North American English? A. Linguists noticed that Canadians spoke a unique dialect. B. A large group of Loyalists settled in one region at the same time. C. Growth of the middle class led to a standard school curriculum. D. Canadians declared their language to be different from U.S. English. 2. The word ―norms‖ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____. A. patterns B.history C. words D.ideas 3. The phrase ―a great deal in common with‖ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____. A. different words for B. the same problems as C. many similarities to D. easier pronunciation than 4. In paragraph 2, what point does the author make about Canadian English? A. Canadian English is more similar to American than to British English. B. American and British visitors define Canadian English by their own norms. C. Canadian English has many words that are not in other varieties of English. D. Canadians speak English with an accent that Americans cannot understand. 5. The phrase ―the two varieties‖ in paragraph 3 refers to ____. A. People who live outside North American B. Canadian English and American English C. General Canadian and North American D. British English and Canadian English 6. The word ―spot‖ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____. A. describe B. ignore C. prefer D. find 7. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Canadian English has been strongly influenced by both British and American English. B. Canada is the only nation where people can deliberately choose which pronunciation they prefer. C. Canadians have tried to distinguish themselves as a nation, and this effort is shown in their pronunciation. D. Many newcomers to Canada must work hard to master the national style of pronouncing English. 8. All of the following words originated in North American Indian languages EXCEPT ____. A. Kerosene B. Parka C. Canada D. Kayak

9. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about vocabulary? A. Vocabulary is the most distinctive feature of Canadian English. B. World Standard English has a very large vocabulary. C. Canadians use more North American Indian words than Americans do. D. Much of the vocabulary for ice hockey originated in Canada. 10. The author discusses the expression "eh" in paragraph 6 as an example of ____. A. an idiom that uniquely characterizes Canadian speech B. an expression that few people outside Canada have heard C. a style of Canadian drama and literature D. a word that cannot be translated in