Materi 7 Maintain Seaworthiness of The Ship [PDF]

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13.Menjaga kelaiklautan kapal (Maintain seaworthiness of the ship) 1. A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows causing an effect known as "Panting". What structure in the forward region of the ship combats the effects of Panting? a. Panting beams and stringers b. Collision bulkhead and deck c. Centreline bulkhead d. Double bottom tanks and floors 2. From which locations is it normally possible to close watertight doors? a. Watertight doors can be closed adjacent to the door and remotely from bridge and also one emergency remote control station b. Watertight doors can be closed from the bridge and an alarm sounds at the door c. Watertight doors can be closed locally and also a remote control station within the accommodation d. A watertight door can only be closed by a control adjacent to the door 3. How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be found from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)? a. Drawing a tangent to the curve through the origin and erecting a perpendicular through the angle of heel of 57.3 degrees b. The value in metres from the X axis of the point where the curve changes from concave to convex shape. c. Drawing a tangent from the highest point of the curve to the X axis and measuring it in metres d. It is impossible to establish the GM value from the curve of righting levers (GZ) 4. What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining Experiment? a. All of the suggested answers b. Moorings slack, head wind, minimum people on board c. All derricks lowered and no moving items on deck and in store rooms d. Minimum ballast and bunkers on board and all tanks pressed up. 1

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5. What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface? a. Reduce the number of slack tanks. b. Load liquids into only one tank at a time c. Close all watertight doors. d. Load fluids only into tanks with transverse subdivision bulkheads 6. What is the anticipated rolling period of a ship with a large initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) and would there be any associated dangers to consider? a. Short sharp period of roll associated with breaking lashings and shifting cargo b. Long slow roll and no particular hazards c. Short period of roll, but a very stable ship and no associated dangers d. Long period of roll with free surface effects at a maximum. 7. What is the correct understanding of the tem "Angle of Loll" when applied to ships stability? a. The angle the ship will lie when the ship has a negative GM b. The angle the ship will lie when it has suffered a shift of cargo. c. The maximum angle to which the ship rolls when rolling in a seaway. d. The angle of heel which the ship must reach before suffering progressive flooding through deck ventilators. 8. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bending moments" when applied to ships? a. The longitudinal Bending Moment at any section within the ship is the total moments tending to alter the longitudinal shape of the ship b. The Bending Moments of a ship are the forces acting on the ship causing it to hog and sag. c. The longitudinal Bending Moments are the forces between empty and full compartments causing the ship to bend and change shape d. All of the suggested answers

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9. What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under the International Load Line Rules? a. 0.15 metres b. 2.5 metres c. 0.5 metres d. 0,1 metre 10. When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which position can the centre of gravity of the weight be considered to act? a. From the head of the derrick or crane b. From the centre of the weight lifted c. From the position on the deck from which the weight was lifted d. From a position on the deck at the base of the derrick or crane 1. “Parametric Rollin” on a container ship results in: a. A large unstable roll motion suddenly occurring in head or stern seas. b. The sudden unexpected occurrence of large rolling angles in beam seas. c. The gradual build up of rolling angle in a head sea. d. The unexpected roll to a large angle of heel due to a beam sea. 2. A large GM on a container ship will result in: a. Quick rolling period and increasing angles of roll. b. A slow long period of roll and minimal angles of heel. c. Decreasing righting moments. d. Decreasing transverse accelerations. 3. At the design phase of a container ship, the loss of strength resulting from the large deck openings are compensated by: a. Large deck beams longitudinally and athwartships at the sides and ends of hatches. b. Large doubling plates at the hatch corners. c. Additional transverse bulkheads. d. Additional longitudinal bulkheads 4. Container ships without hatch covers are deemed to comply with the International Convention on Load line Rules after: a. An International Load Line Exemption certificate is issued in accordance to Article 6. 3

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b. Water tight integrity is demonstrated by using portable covers for hatch openings. c. A special movable deck is fitted to ensure watertight integrity. d. A spare set of portable hatch covers has been placed on board, for use during rough weather only. 5. It is considered essential that container ships should have a large ballast capacity and high powered ballast pumps, because: a. These are required for trimming the ships and offsetting longitudinal bending moments. b. These are required to load ballast during discharge. c. These are necessary to keep the vessel upright during the loaded passage. d. These are essential to retain the vessel within the International loadline requirements. 6. The design features of a container ship with pronounced bow flare, a wide flat transom stern and wall sided amidships section contribute to: a. Parametric Rolling b. Excessive pitching c. Large angles of heel with a large GM d. The ability to shed water very quickly off the decks 7. The main movements experienced by a container ship, which will create the largest forces exerted on the container frames and lashings, are: a. Rolling, Pitching and Heaving. b. Rolling, swaying, and yawing. c. Rolling, Heaving and Swaying. d. Surging, Yawing and Rolling. 8. The residual stability requirements of a container ship state that: a. A container ship must always comply with the stability requirements of the International Loadline Rules. b. A container ship is only required to comply with the loading port requirements. c. A container ship must retain a positive GM of at least 1.5 metres at all stages of the voyage. d. There are no special stability requirements, provided the ship remains 4

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fully stable at all times. 9. With reference to container ships, “TEU” refers to: a. Twenty foot equivalent unit. b. Twenty foot unit. c. Tonne effective unit. d. Truck transportable efficient unit. 1. A ‘free flow system’ with reference to an oil tanker means: a. A vessel without ordinary bottom lines where the cargo flows from tank to tank through bulkhead valves. b. A vessel without any cargo lines where the cargo is loaded via portable hoses directly into each tank. c. The vessel is not equipped with its own discharging equipment. d. The vessel has no connection between individual cargo tanks. 2. A loaded VLCC ship is stopped and Not Under Command in open sea and is observed to be drifting towards the SSE at a rate of two (2) knots. Will the direction and rate of drift be the same for the ship if it was in ballast condition? a. No, the drift in ballast condition may be quite different b. Yes, it would be expected to be the same c. It will be dependant entirely on the strength of the wind d. In a ballast condition the drift will be more to the east 3. A partially loaded ship is steaming slowly ahead in shallow, confined waters as illustrated in the diagram. Which of the suggested answers are the most critical external influences experienced by the vessel? a. All of the suggested answers are critical b. The ship will be experiencing interaction with the bank c. The ship will be experiencing the effects of Squat. d. The ship will be making leeway due to the beam wind 4. Maximum shearing forces are likely to occur on an oil tanker: a. At the bulkhead between empty and full tanks b. At the mid-length of the ship c. At the tank lids d. At the forward collision bulkhead 5. On oil tankers, Cargo tanks can be isolated from machinery spaces by:

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a. All the answers are good b. Cofferdams c. Pump room d. Ballast tanks 6. Segregated Ballast Tanks on an oil tanker may best be defined as: a. Tanks which are completely separate from cargo or fuel oil systems, being permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast and fitted with their own pumps and associated piping b. Cargo tanks which may be used for the carriage of ballast c. Cargo tanks which each have their own individual pumps, are fitted with independent piping systems and are served by unconnected ventilation arrangements d. Cargo tanks which may be used for ballast, where the lines are not connected to the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment 7. SOLAS requires the tank coatings in dedicated seawater ballast tanks on oil tankers to be of: a. Preferably any light colour. b. Preferably dark red colour only. c. Preferably white colour only d. Preferably any dark colour. 8. Tanks lids and other access points on an oil tanker are usually shaped round so as to: a. Avoid localized stress points at any corners. b. Allow several people to have visual access to the tank at the same time. c. Provide easy access to tank washing machinery. d. Avoid injuries to crew members from the sharp ends of such openings. 9. The ‘buckling’ of strength members of an oil tanker results due to high: a. Compressive forces b. Shearing forces c. Bending moments d. Transverse forces

10. The longitudinal bending moments caused by cargo distribution on an oil tanker 6

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need to be taken into consideration: a. During loading, discharging and on loaded passage b. Only when on loaded passage in heavy seas and when the vessel is pitching c. Only when on ballast passage in heavy seas and when the vessel is pitching d. Only during loading and discharging cargo 11. The method to avoid adverse effects of free surface on an oil tanker with full liquid cargo would be to ensure that: a. There are at least two longitudinal bulkheads and a large initial GM b. The FSE is minimal. c. There are several athwartship bulkheads. d. There are deep floors in the bottom of the tanks. 12. The purpose of having corrugations in the bulkheads of cargo tanks of an oil tanker is to: a. Provide strength, but with clean and clear surfaces within the tank. b. Reduce the effects of Free Surface within the vessel. c. Provide additional resistance to shear forces and bending moments. d. To assist in the drainage of the oil by funnelling the oil to the suction well. 13. The purpose of the ‘mud box’ fitted on a tanker is to: a. Restrict any particles and solids entering the pipeline system. b. Catch spills when connecting the discharge or loading hose. c. Collect ships waste and water mud when ballasting and de-ballasting. d. Catch the mud from the anchors and cables and deposit these at the windlass. 14. What new stability problems would be caused by having deep double bottom tanks on double hull oil tankers? a. The Metacentric Height (GM) would have to be considered. b. There are no new stability considerations c. The depth of the Double bottom would require additional strength members. d. The vessel would be "stiff" and have a sharp rolling period.

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1. By what means can we monitor and control the integrity of the hull? a. Automatic detection systems, television surveillance and patrolling b. Documented operating procedures c. Let experienced personnel close and secure doors and ramps d. The chief officer is responsible for monitoring the integrity of the hull and superstructure at all times 2. How are the officers informed of the ship's stability in damaged conditions? a. By permanently exhibited damage control plans b. By the Captain's instructions c. By damage-control information included in the muster list d. By damage-control board on the bridge 3. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged condition? a. Cross flooding arrangement b. Ballast trimming system c. Separate trim tanks d. Self acting ballast trimming arrangement 4. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships? a. The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea b. SOLAS c. International Safety Management code d. ISPS 5. What should be observed concerning a ship's water tight integrity? a. That all water tight ramps and doors are locked and secured at sea b. The ramp is in stowed position c. The aft door locked d. That all emergency exit doors are locked and secured 6. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization? a. 15 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 20 degrees 8

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d. 30 degrees 7. Why are all passenger ships divided into vertical ’zones’? a. Vertical zones are fire zones which can be divided from each other with fire doors. In case of fire, all fire doors in front and aft of the fire will be closed to prevent spreading of smoke/fire. b. Vertical zones are separated with fire doors which will be closed automatically when the fire alarm start. c. There is one fire team in each zone. d. All vertical zones are separated with watertight doors, which will be closed in the case of a grounding, etc. 1. Before departing the berth to ensure the stability of a RoRo vessel which if the following should be completed a. Close all Ramps and hatch covers b. Open all ramps and hatch covers c. Open all ramps and hatch covers d. turn off all the deck hydraulics 2. How are the surfaces of ro-ro vehicle decks and ramps treated? a. With non-skid paints b. With rubber-based paints c. With non-slip tapes d. With anti-fouling paints 3. On a Ro-Ro vessel what would be the effect of a small GM? a. A slow roll period b. A quick roll period c. An adverse affect on seaworthiness d. Resonant rolling 4. On a RoRo vessel why is it important to ensure the vessel is correctly trimmed prior to commencing cargo operations a. To ensure the angle between the Ramp and the Quay are in acceptable limits b. so the cargo wont move c. so the cargo wont move d. so the automatic ballast systems will operate correctly 5. On a RoRo vessel, what is of major concern when a shallow draught ro-ro 9

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vessel is in river transit in high winds ? a. Air draught b. Draught c. Draught d. Squat 6. On a RoRo vessel, where on board a ship will cargoes experience the least accelerations? a. At the intersection of the fore and aft, athwartships and vertical axes of the ship b. At the intersection of the fore and aft and athwartships axes of the ship c. At the intersection of the fore and aft and vertical axes of the ship d. At the intersection of the athwartships and vertical axes of the ship 7. On a RoRo vessel, which of the following can cause an unplanned list at sea? a. Ballast water exchange b. Washing down the decks c. Washing down the decks d. Turning the vessel 8. What has a major adverse effect on the manoeuverability of a RoRo car carrier? a. Wind b. Fore end design c. Tidal streams d. The vessel's block coefficient 9. Where on board a RoRo ship will cargoes experience the greatest accelerations? a. In the highest stowage positions to each side of the ship b. At the intersection of the fore and aft and athwartships axes of the ship c. At the intersection of the fore and aft and vertical axes of the ship d. At the intersection of the athwartships and vertical axes of the ship 1. By what means can we monitor and control the integrity of the hull? a. Automatic detection systems, television surveillance and patrolling of ro-ro cargo spaces b. Documented operating procedures c. Let experienced personnel close and secure doors and ramps

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d. The chief officer is responsible for monitoring the integrity of the hull and superstructure at all times 2. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged condition? a. Cross flooding arrangement b. Ballast trimming system c. Separate trim tanks d. Self acting ballast trimming arrangement 3. What is very important to monitor when distributing cargo? a. You should always ensure the ship has sufficient stabilty at all times. Cargo shall preferably be distributed evenly to avoid heavy list/ trim b. Shear forces and bending moments c. Only shear forces d. Only bending moments 4. What should be observed concerning a ship's water tight integrity? a. That all water tight ramps and doors are locked and secured at sea b. The ramp is in stowed position c. The aft door locked d. That all emergency exit doors are locked and secured

5. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before equalization? a. 15 degrees b. 10 degrees c. 20 degrees d. 30 degrees 6. Why are all RoRo passenger ships divided into vertical ’zones’? a. Vertical zones are fire zones which can be divided from each other with fire doors. In case of fire, all fire doors in front and aft of the fire will be closed to prevent spreading of smoke/fire.

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b. Vertical zones are separated with fire doors which will be closed automatically when the fire alarm start. c. There is one fire team in each zone d. All vertical zones are separated with watertight doors, which will be closed in the case of a grounding, etc.

1. A common cause for the weakening of a turnbuckle on container vessels is: a. Pitting b. Lack of grease c. A bent locking nut d. A fully extended spindle 2. A common problem associated with twist-locks is: a. Left hand and right hand types exist, causing uncertainty whether a fitting is locked or open b. Fracturing during rolling and pitching in high seas c. Susceptibility to wear and tear d. Freedom to slide when the vessel is rolling an pitching 3. If a twist lock is found cracked at the base, it should be: a. Removed from service. b. Use only to lock under-deck container stows. c. Use only in the lowest tier on deck. d. Repaired on board and put back into service. 4. It is not possible to install double stacking cones on container ships which has: a. Loaded out-of-gauge containers. b. Loaded a homogenous container load. c. Restrictions in the cargo securing manual. d. Limitations in ship design. 5. Normally, a twist lock should be greased: a. Between the twistlock cone and associated housing b. Over the entire outer surface c. Under the handle d. At the base of the twistlock cone 6. OIf container lashings fail at sea, the normal procedure for the vessel would be 12

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to: a. Enter the number and type of failed equipment into the lashing equipment file on board b. Report the matter to the ship owner c. Report the matter to the equipment manufacturer's d. Enter the number and type of failed equipment in the deck log book 7. The first tier of under-deck containers, on a non-cellular container vessel, are usually loaded: a. Onto dunnage laid fore and aft over the tank top. b. Directly onto the tank top. c. Onto dunnage laid athwartships over the tank top. d. Onto dunnage laid directly under the containers' bottom rails. 8. The function of double stacking cones on container vessels is: a. To link adjacent container stacks together particularly those in line with buttresses. b. To lock adjacent container stacks together. c. To lock containers horizontally. d. To link out-of-gauge container stacks together. 9. The limitations of a Cargo Securing Manual of a container vessel may include the fact that: a. They are drafted whilst the ship is still under construction and need to be checked against the ship's 'as completed' condition in order to be fully reliable. b. Cargo securing arrangements in the manuals may be unsuitable for heavy weather conditions. c. They are not always approved by a classification society. d. Some Cargo Securing Manuals cover a full range of sister ships. 10. The main factor when determining the way containers must be lashed is by: a. Referring to the cargo securing manual. b. Seeking advice from shore planners. c. Referring to SOLAS 74/88. d. Referring to OSHA regulations. 11. The main function of a buttress on a container ship is:

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a. To support container stacks in a non-cellular cargo hold. b. To support the lowest tier of containers in a non-cellular cargo hold. c. To support the lowest tier of containers in a con-bulker's cargo hold. d. When used at the base of container stacks its prevents the tank top plating from being pierced.

12. The main function of twist-locks is: a. To couple containers vertically. b. To couple containers horizontally. c. To bear container loads. d. To lock containers vertically and horizontally. 13. The proper funtioning of a bridge fitting on containers is prevented due to: a. Buckling b. Pitting c. Lack of grease d. A fully extended spindle 14. The purpose of the dovetail foundation on container vessels is: a. Act as a sliding base for twistlocks. b. To secure double stacking cones. c. To secure a single stacking cone. d. To lock adjacent containers together. 15. Twist locks are preferred over cone-based lashing systems on container vessels because: a. Cone-based lashing systems are more prone to failure than twistlocks. b. Cargo securing manuals do not allow for cone-based lashing systems. c. Twistlocks provide uplift resistance as well as horizontal restraint, helping to prevent containers from falling overboard in heavy weather. d. Cone-based lashing systems are not type-approved by classification societies. 1. After completing all pre-starting checks on the flue gas plant, the first thing that the operator would do is to: a. Open the flue gas isolating valve.

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b. Start the blower. c. Open the blower discharge valve. d. Open the air vent valve. 2. As per SOLAS the Inert Gas System of an oil tanker must deliver the inert gas with a maximum level of oxygen of: a. Not more than 5% by volume. b. Not less than 8% by volume. c. Maximum 3% by volume. d. Between 8% to 11% by volume. 3. During Crude Oil Washing, those areas of the cargo tank which are not directly struck by the oil jet from the tank washing machines are referred to as: a. Shadow areas. b. Protected areas. c. Hidden areas. d. Deflected areas. 4. In context of cargo oil depth and ullage measurements, the abbreviation UTI stands for: a. Ullage Temperature Interface. b. Ullage Topping Instrument. c. Uniform Tank Indicator. d. Uncorrected Tank Innage. 5. In oil cargo calculations, ASTM table 53A/B is used for: a. Finding the density of oil at 15°C from the given density at observed temperature. b. Finding the conversion factor to convert volume in cubic metres to US barrels (bbls). c. Finding the density of oil at observed temperature from the given density at 15°C. d. Finding the conversion factor to convert volume in US barrels (bbls) to cubic metres. 6. On board a crude oil tanker, guidance on the washing system and equipment along with the applicable operating procedures, can be found in: a. The Operating and Equipment (COW) Manual.

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b. The Oil Record Book - ship particulars page. c. The ODME Operating Manual - manufacturer's instruction section. d. MARPOL - Annex I. 7. The chemical characteristics of effluent water from an inert gas scrubber and the condensate which collects in the deck mains would be: a. Acidic in nature. b. Alkaline in nature. c. Neutral in nature. d. Demineralised in nature. 8. The function of the scrubber within an Inert Gas system is: a. To quench, cool and clean the flue gas. b. To blend the flue gas and air. c. To wash and warm the flue gas. d. To prevent backflow of dangerous vapours to the machinery space. 9. The one particular hazard to be taken care against, when using portable steam driven blowers for ventilating oil cargo tanks is: a. That the exhaust does not vent into the cargo tank, in order to prevent possible build-up of static electricity. b. That prolonged use may cause the core material of the fan to heat up to a point where it may become a source of ignition. c. That the steam outlet must point vertically upwards to avoid possibly burning the legs of passing personnel. d. That plastic extension tubes should not be used, in case the top collar overheats and melts, causing the tube to drop into the tank. 10. The primary purpose of the water seal within an inert gas system is: a. To prevent the passage of petroleum gases back to the machinery spaces. b. To automatically adjust the inert gas flow. c. To provide a second washing cycle to inert gas. d. To automatically compensate for temporary fluctuations in inert gas pressure within the cargo spaces. 11. The purpose of the decanting line between two slop tanks, where fitted, is:

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a. To enable most of the recovered oil to be retained in the primary slop tank, while the cleaner part of the water will flow into the secondary slop tank, where it can be re-used as wash-water. b. To enable both the primary and secondary slop tank to be filled without using the main cargo lines. c. To avoid a build-up of static electricity during water washing, caused by air being drawn in as the primary slop tank empties. d. To enable the filling of the secondary slop tank via the primary slop tank. 12. The purpose of the demister unit within the Inert Gas System is: a. To remove water from the IGS stream. b. To cool the inert gas. c. To remove sulphur oxides. d. To prevent overheating. 13. When cargo discharge reaches stripping levels on an oil tanker, it is necessary to reduce the inert gas pressure so as to: a. Minimise blowback. b. Comply with the requirement of MARPOL Annex VI. c. Avoid over-capacity in the IG generator. d. Avoid locking the cargo pump impeller. 14. When shutting down the flue gas plant, the last step that the operator shall carry out would be to: a. Shut down of inert gas blower. b. Open ventilation valve to atmosphere. c. Close the gas pressure control valve. d. Close the deck isolating valve. 15. With reference to oil tanker equipment, the abbreviation VECS stands for: a. Vapour Emission Control System. b. Vapour Ejection Control System. c. Vapour Emission Calibration System. d. Vapour Emission Control Standard. 16. With reference to the efficiency of cargo pumps on oil tankers, the abbreviation NPSH stands for:

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a. Net Pressure Suction Head. b. Nominal Pressure Suction Head. c. Natural Pumping Standard Height. d. Necessary Pumping Suction Hazard. 1. *How long should it take to release at least two thirds of the charge of CO2 that is provided for a ro-ro cargo space protected with a fixed carbon dioxide fireextinguishing system? a. Not more than 10 minutes b. Not more than 2 minutes c. Not more than 5 minutes d. Not more than 35 seconds 2. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin? a. Same number as beds in the cabin b. At least 2 c. Twice the number of beds in the cabin d. Non, they will be handed out at the muster station 3. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons and above? a. Two, one on each side of the ship b. Two, and at least one of the rescue boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat c. One Fast Rescue Boat d. None 4. How often shall liferafts be serviced? a. At intervals not exceeding 12 months b. At intervals not exceeding 18 months c. Every second year d. Decided by the safety officer 5. Is it required to have supplementary emergency electric lighting on board passenger ships? a. Yes, all passenger public spaces and alleyways shall be provided with supplementary electric lighting b. No, portable battery operated lamps shall be provided in alleyways and public spaces

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c. No, passengers should bring their own flashlights d. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes 6. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on board which type of ship? a. Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers b. Chemical tankers c. Tankers d. Passenger ships fitted with car decks 7. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations? a. 5% extra b. 10% extra c. 25% extra d. 50% extra 8. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically self-righting? a. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is empty of people b. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it is fully loaded with people c. One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position d. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats 9. What is a low location lighting system? a. A light system powered by battery or fluorescent signs mounted at deck level indicating the way to the nearest exit b. An emergency illumination system that illuminates all deck areas to a minimum c. A system displaying the escape route from all cabins by light points in the ceiling, powered by battery d. An illumination system for all corridors in cabin areas

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10. What is a Marine Evacuation System? a. Evacuation Chute(s)/Slide(s) and Liferafts b. Liferafts supported by Fast Rescue Boats and Lifeboats c. Helicopter evacuation d. Assistance from other ships 11. What is the adequate marking of liferafts for passenger ships on short international voyages? a. SOLAS B PACK b. SOLAS A PACK c. SOLAS C PACK d. SOLAS D PACK 12. What is the name of this unit? a. A hydrostatic release unit b. A liferaft release unit c. An antistatic release unit d. A slip hook 13. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships? a. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given b. 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given c. 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given d. There is no time limit 14. What special requirements applies to fire alarm signalling systems in passenger ships a. Fail safe, Centralized in a continuously manned control station, Remote control of fire doors, Indication of open or closed fire doors, Reactivation of ventilation, Detector status, Back up powered b. Centralized in a continuously manned control station with remote control of fire doors, Indication of open or closed fire doors c. Same requirements for Fire alarm systems applies to all ships d. Remote control of fire doors and reactivation of ventilation 15. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships?

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a. From the navigation bridge and in at least one other location b. Navigation bridge c. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office d. Captain's office 1. *Which of the following appliances are compulsorily in any ro-ro cargo space intended for the carriage of motor vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion? a. At least one portable foam applicator unit b. A receptacle containing sand, sawdust impregnated with soda or other approved dry material in such quantity as may be required by the Administration c. One chemical powder extinguisher for each 10 vehicles the space is intended to carry d. One chemical powder extinguisher for each 20 vehicles the space is intended to carry 2. How should cargo hold ventilation be carried out on a Ro-Ro vessel loading or discharging cargoes? a. With the ventilation fans set to ‘exhaust' b. With the ventilation fans set to ‘supply' c. With ventilation fans set alternately to ‘supply' and ‘exhaust' d. By natural ventilation 3. How should lashing belts be stowed on board a RoRo vessel? a. According to their Safe Working Load (SWL) b. According to their date of manufacture c. According to the manufacturer d. According to model type 4. On a RoRo vessel carrying no more than 36 passengers, what is the minimum capacity of the ventilation system protecting standard cargo spaces intended for carriage of motor vehicles with fuel in their tanks for their own propulsion. a. 6 air changes per hour b. 12 air changes per hour c. 20 air changes per hour d. 2 air changes per hour

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5. On a RoRo vessel, how should additional lashings be applied to vehicles if they do not have sufficient lashing points? a. As detailed in the instructions provided by the manufacturer or shipper b. Pass lashings over the body of the vehicles c. Pass lashings over the body of the vehicles d. Secure the front and rear bumpers 6. On a RoRo vessel, if the Manufacturer and shipper of a vehicle have not provided instructions and the vehicle does not have fixed lasing points what can be used to secure the lashings a. The wheel apertures, or other suitable fixed point on the vehicle b. The Tie Rods c. The Tie Rods d. The Anti Roll Bars 7. On a RoRo vessel, what danger is associated with damaged expanded metal gratings on loading ramps? a. Vehicles' tyres may be damaged during cargo operations b. The front and/or rear ends of vehicles may be damaged during cargo operations c. The load density of the ramp will be affected d. Vehicles' windscreens may be damaged during cargo operations 8. On a RoRo vessel, when cargo has shifted at sea, what could help in reducing acceleration forces? a. Operating anti-heeling devices b. Heading out of the wind c. Heaving to d. Putting into a port of refuge 9. On a RoRo vessel, when loading Double Stacked containers on Maffi Trailers how many twist locks should have used between the 2 containers a. One on every corner 4 in total b. One at each end 2 in total c. One at each end 2 in total d. three in total 2 at the door end 1 at the opposite end 10. On a RoRo vessel, where is the best place to find information on loading ramp limitations? 22

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a. In the loading ramp manual b. In the stability booklet c. In the stability booklet d. In the company's safety instructions 11. On the bridge of a RoRo vessel, which of the following doors have no open/closed bridge indicator requirements? a. Doors leading into the engine room b. Sliding doors in watertight bulkheads c. Hinged doors in watertight bulkheads d. Shell doors and stern ramps 12. What are safety cones used for on a RoRo vessel,? a. All of the alternatives b. Guiding vehicles while parking on board c. Guiding vehicles while parking on board d. Guiding vehicles onto and off the loading ramp 13. What must be ensured immediately after lowering and securing the stern ramp on a RoRo vessel? a. Control levers should be locked in the ‘neutral' position b. Power supplies for ramp operations should be turned off c. Control levers should be in the ‘neutral' position d. Pilot indicator lights on the bridge should be working 14. Where and for what are rubber mats used on board a pure RoRo car carrier? a. Under the loading ramp flap to prevent vehicle damage b. Under the loading ramp flap to prevent jetty damage c. Under the loading ramp flap to prevent jetty damage d. Under the loading ramp flap to prevent ramp damage

15. Which of these is not a Cargo Transport Unit under the IMDG Code? a. Road tank vehicle b. Freight container c. Portable tank d. Pallet

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1. Car decks on board ro-ro passenger ships are nomally closed during sea passage. Why are passengers not allowed to be on the car-deck during sailing? a. In case of an emergency situation it can be difficult for passengers to escape. Vehicles, lorries, trailers and other cargo are maybe lashed and it is a substantial chance for passengers to get injured. Vehicles and other cargo might also shift when the ship is rolling. b. Vehicles and other cargo can shift when the ship is rolling. Persons may be trapped between vehicles or cargo. c. To prevent burglary and damage to cars d. If the car decks are empty, it will be easier for the crew to locate all passengers in case of an emergency 2. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. What information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions? a. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals b. Escape routes and alarm signals c. Name of cabin attendant d. Where to find thermal protective aids 3. If the general alarm is sounding and evacuation of the ship is required. What is the best way to ensure that all passengers are aware of the situation? a. Inform the passengers through Public Address system. Crew with designated emergency duties should proceed to their cabin section and search all cabins. Guide and evacuate passengers. If the area is inaccessible report to their superior or the bridge. b. Crew with designated emergency duties should proceed to the muster station to count all passengers in his section. If somebody is missing, report to their superior. c. Alarm signal and Public Address system will be effectively, including head count at muster point. d. Use Public Address system to inform the passengers. Inform all passengers to report to designated area for head count. 4. What are the main elements in a damage control plan? a. Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks and holds. Position

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of controls for opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for correction of list due to flooding. b. Arrangements for correction of list due to flooding within 15 minutes c. Instructions and procedures for reporting damage to the Company d. A damage control plan is the same as an emergency plan 5. What extra precautions should be taken by the officers and crew if some of the passengers are disabled, i.e. using wheelchair, cane, blind etc.? a. All passengers that will require extra assistance, also in case of an emergency situation/ evacuation, must be registered in order to allocate crew to assist them if needed. b. Passenger with some form for disability must travel with accompany, and live in same cabin or next door. c. They must be placed in cabins on the same level as the muster station. d. Locate them in large cabins to ease their stay. 6. Which one of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods? a. IMDG code b. SOLAS code c. HB code d. KLMNG code 1. As per SOLAS a fast rescue boats shall be capable of: a. Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a speed of 20 knots in calm water b. Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a speed of 8 knots c. Manoeuvring for at least 8 hrs at a speed of 10 knots d. Manoeuvring for at least 4 hrs at a speed of 4 knots 2. As per SOLAS every fast rescue boat shall be provided with: a. Thermal protective aids for at least 10% of the persons the boat is permitted to accommodate or two, which ever is greater b. Thermal protective aids for the number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate c. Emersion suits for each person the boat is permitted to accommodate d. 3 Thermal protective aids 3. As per SOLAS requirement fast rescue boats shall be constructed in such a way that: 25

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a. They are self righting or capable of being readily righted by its crew b. They are self righting c. They can be righted by 5 persons d. They will not capsize 4. Fast rescue boats construction should be: a. Rigid, inflated or rigid / inflated b. Inflated c. Rigid d. Stainless steel 5. Fast rescue boats shall be capable of carrying: a. At least 5 seated persons and a person lying down b. At least 6 persons seated c. 10 Persons d. 3 Persons 6. Fast rescue boats shall be stowed and kept in a state of continuous readiness for launching: a. In less than 5 minutes b. In less than 10 minutes c. By assigned crew in less than 15 minutes d. By 6 persons 7. How many crews are required to be trained and regularly drilled in all aspects of fast rescue boats in various conditions, including righting after capsizing? a. At least 2 b. At least 3 c. 5 d. 6 8. How many fast rescue boats are required to be carried by a passenger ship of 500 GRT and above? a. At least one of the rescue boats shall be a fast rescue boat b. One fast rescue boat on each side of the vessel c. One fast rescue boat and one rescue boat on each side of the vessel d. Fast rescue boat to accommodate 50 % of the passenger on each side 9. Most search patterns consists of: 26

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a. Parallel track covering a rectangular area b. Horizontal tracks c. Vertical tracks d. Vertical and horizontal tracks 10. Parallel sweep search in a co-ordinated manner is achieved when? a. All facilities proceed with same speed b. All facilities proceed with maximum safe speed c. All facilities proceed with different speed d. All facilities proceed with minimum safe speed

11. What are the operational requirements for a fast rescue boat? a. It shall be served by a suitable launching appliance to launch and retrieve the boat even under severe adverse weather conditions b. It shall be served by a launching appliance to launch and retrieve the boat in still conditions c. It shall be transferable on each side of the vessel d. There is no requirement for a launching appliance 12. What is most important when using expanded square search? a. Accurate navigation b. Constant speed c. Fixed turn radius d. Fixed rate of turn 13. When is sector search most effective? a. Position of the search object is accurately known b. When a datum marker can be used as a reference c. When the search pattern radius is larger than 20 NM d. Position of the search object is not accurately known 14. When is the parallel sweep search used? a. When searching large area b. When searching during night c. When searching over small area d. When searching in rough weather 15. When is track line search normally used? 27

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a. When a vessel or aircraft has disappeared without a trace b. When the position of the search object is accurate c. When a direct communication between the search object and the search facility is available d. When the position of the search object is not accurate

16. Who is normally deciding which search pattern to use? a. OSC b. CRS c. SMC d. SRU

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